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Characteristics and Functions of Money

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of money?

a)

Portable

b)

Durable

c)

Easily counterfeited

d)

Divisible

2.

What is the primary function of money as a medium of exchange?

a)

To store value over time

b)

To facilitate transactions between buyer and seller

c)

To measure unit of account

d)

To settle debt

3.

Which type of financial market involves the buying and selling of currencies?

a)

Money market

b)

Capital market

c)

Foreign exchange market

d)

Stock market

4.

What does M1 represent in terms of money supply?

a)

Broad money

b)

Narrow money

c)

Digital money

d)

Capital market

5.

Which financial asset represents ownership in a company?

a)

Bonds

b)

Mutual funds

c)

Stocks

d)

Derivatives

6.

What is digital money primarily used for?

a)

Physical currency transactions

b)

Barter trade

c)

Electronic transactions

d)

Gold exchange

7.

What is the main goal of a financial market?

a)

To increase government revenue

b)

To match buyers and sellers to allocate financial capital efficiently

c)

To regulate international trade

d)

To provide free financial services

8.

Which of the following is a key role of financial markets?

a)

To provide free education

b)

To facilitate saving by businesses and households

c)

To increase tax rates

d)

To control inflation

9.

What is the relationship between market interest rates and bond prices?

a)

Direct relationship

b)

Inverse relationship

c)

No relationship

d)

Exponential relationship

10.

What does equity represent in a company?

a)

A loan with fixed interest

b)

Ownership and a share of profits

c)

A government bond

d)

A type of insurance

11.

What is a characteristic of commercial banks?

a)

They operate in capital markets

b)

They provide traditional banking services like accepting deposits

c)

They focus on underwriting securities

d)

They are not regulated by governments

12.

What is one of the primary functions of a commercial bank?

a)

Manufacturing goods

b)

Providing loans

c)

Selling insurance

d)

Offering legal advice

13.

Which of the following is considered an asset on a commercial bank's balance sheet?

a)

Deposits

b)

Borrowings

c)

Cash and Reserves

d)

Capital

14.

What is the fractional reserve system?

a)

A system where banks hold all deposits in reserve

b)

A system where banks hold a fraction of deposits as reserves

c)

A system where banks lend out all deposits

d)

A system where banks do not hold any reserves

15.

What is the money multiplier effect?

a)

The process of banks destroying money

b)

The process of banks holding all money in reserves

c)

The process of banks lending out funds, increasing the money supply

d)

The process of banks reducing the money supply

16.

What is a limitation on money creation by commercial banks?

a)

Unlimited lending opportunities

b)

No regulatory policies

c)

Market forces and regulatory policies

d)

Constant demand for loans

17.

What is one of the main roles of a central bank?

a)

Issuing currency for foreign countries

b)

Supervising the financial system

c)

Setting tax rates

d)

Managing private investments

18.

What does the term "lender of last resort" refer to?

a)

A bank that provides loans to individuals

b)

A central bank providing emergency loans to financial institutions

c)

A private lender offering high-interest loans

d)

A government agency managing public funds

19.

What is the base rate?

a)

The interest rate set by commercial banks

b)

The main interest rate set by a nation’s central bank

c)

The rate for savings accounts

d)

The rate for credit cards

20.

What is the purpose of bank reserve requirements?

a)

To increase bank profits

b)

To ensure banks have enough liquidity to meet customer needs

c)

To reduce the number of loans given

d)

To control inflation directly

21.

Which of the following is NOT a function of a central bank?

a)

Managing government debt

b)

Providing advice to governments

c)

Setting tax policies

d)

Issuing government bonds

22.

What is one of the main purposes of financial regulation?

a)

To increase risky activities

b)

To promote unfair pricing practices

c)

To protect consumers from fraud

d)

To encourage predatory lending

23.

Which body is responsible for regulating financial institutions in the UK?

a)

The Bank of England

b)

The Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

c)

The Financial Policy Committee (FPC)

d)

The Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

24.

What does the Financial Policy Committee (FPC) do to assess financial stability?

a)

Conducts market supervision

b)

Sets consumer protection standards

c)

Conducts stress tests

d)

Enforces prudential standards

25.

What is a potential consequence of a "run on the bank"?

a)

Increased bank credit rating

b)

Depositors panic and withdraw money

c)

Banks gain more liquidity

d)

Banks can borrow easily overnight

26.

What is the purpose of a Capital Adequacy Ratio?

a)

To measure a bank's total deposits

b)

To ensure a bank's capital is sufficient relative to its risk exposure

c)

To assess a bank's short-term financial obligations

d)

To mandate cash reserves with the central bank

27.

What is asymmetric information in the financial sector?

a)

One party in a transaction has more information than the other

b)

Both parties have equal information

c)

Neither party has any information

d)

Information is irrelevant in transactions

28.

What is an example of adverse selection?

a)

Borrowers with poor credit history seeking loans

b)

Banks offering low-interest rates to all customers

c)

Investors buying stocks based on public information

d)

Companies issuing bonds to raise capital

29.

What does moral hazard refer to in the financial sector?

a)

Taking excessive risks due to perceived protection

b)

Avoiding risks due to fear of loss

c)

Investing in high-risk stocks for high returns

d)

Saving money in low-interest accounts

30.

What are negative externalities in the financial sector?

a)

Risky practices leading to systemic risks

b)

Efficient allocation of capital

c)

Increased consumer spending

d)

Higher interest rates for loans

31.

What is market rigging?

a)

Manipulation of financial markets for unfair advantages

b)

Investing in diverse portfolios

c)

Setting interest rates by central banks

d)

Offering discounts to loyal customers

32.

What can inadequate regulation in financial markets lead to?

a)

Excessive risk-taking and fraud

b)

Increased market stability

c)

Higher consumer confidence

d)

Lower interest rates

33.

What is a financial crisis typically associated with?

a)

Falling asset prices and insolvency

b)

Rising stock prices and economic growth

c)

Stable currency values

d)

Increased government spending

34.

What is the definition of globalisation?

a)

The reversal of the process of globalisation

b)

A slowdown in the speed of globalisation

c)

The deepening of relationships between countries, reflected in an increasing level of cross-border trade and investment and migration

d)

The process of reducing trade barriers

35.

Which of the following is a characteristic of globalisation?

a)

Decrease in global branding

b)

Reduction in capital transfers

c)

Increased trade to GDP ratios

d)

Decrease in labour migration

36.

What is one of the causes of globalisation?

a)

Decrease in FDI flows between countries

b)

Increasing influence of powerful corporations (MNCs/TNCs)

c)

Reduction in the number of trading blocs

d)

Decrease in communication and information flows

37.

Which of the following is a benefit of globalisation?

a)

Higher consumer prices

b)

Slower economic growth

c)

Freer movement of labour

d)

Decreased awareness of global challenges

38.

What does the term "economies of scale" refer to in the context of globalisation?

a)

Reduction in the division of labour

b)

Increased monopoly profits

c)

Encouragement of both producers and consumers to reap benefits from division of labour

d)

Decrease in productive efficiency

39.

What is one of the costs of globalisation related to income distribution?

a)

Increased access to foreign markets

b)

Rising inequality

c)

Improved productivity and innovation

d)

Attraction of foreign investment

40.

Which of the following is a cause of de-globalisation?

a)

Increased access to global markets

b)

Economic Nationalism

c)

Improved productivity

d)

Attraction of foreign investment

41.

What is a systemic risk of negative global shocks?

a)

Increased foreign investment

b)

Geo-political shocks

c)

Improved productivity

d)

Attraction of foreign investment

42.

What is a benefit of globalisation for developing countries?

a)

Economic dependence

b)

Increased access to knowledge and technology

c)

Exploitation of labour

d)

Environmental degradation

43.

What is a cost of globalisation on developed countries?

a)

Increased access to foreign markets

b)

Job displacement/structural unemployment

c)

Improved productivity and innovation

d)

Attraction of foreign investment

44.

What is a multinational corporation (MNC)?

a)

A company that operates in only one country

b)

A business that bases its operations in several countries

c)

A local business with no international presence

d)

A government-owned enterprise

45.

What is one way MNCs affect globalization?

a)

They increase local employment only

b)

They relocate manufacturing to countries with lower unit labor costs

c)

They focus solely on domestic markets

d)

They avoid international trade

46.

What is the Global Value Chain (GVC)?

a)

A local supply chain within a single country

b)

A network of activities for producing and delivering goods across multiple countries

c)

A chain of retail stores in one region

d)

A government-regulated trade agreement

47.

Which of the following is a benefit of MNCs for a country?

a)

They increase local taxes only

b)

They create employment opportunities

c)

They reduce foreign investment

d)

They limit technological advancement

48.

What is a potential cost of MNCs for a country?

a)

They always increase local business profits

b)

They may displace local businesses, leading to job losses

c)

They ensure complete economic independence

d)

They guarantee higher wages for all workers

49.

What is the main reason countries engage in international trade?

a)

To increase the availability of resources, goods, and services

b)

To decrease consumer choice

c)

To increase production costs

d)

To reduce product differentiation

50.

What is international specialization?

a)

Focusing on producing goods with a comparative advantage

b)

Producing all goods equally

c)

Avoiding trade with other countries

d)

Specializing in goods with the highest production cost

51.

What is absolute advantage?

a)

Producing a good at a lower direct cost

b)

Producing a good at a higher opportunity cost

c)

Producing fewer goods with more resources

d)

Producing goods with no specialization

52.

Which country has an absolute advantage in the production of Good X?

a)

Country A

b)

Country B

c)

Both Country A and Country B

d)

Neither Country A nor Country B

53.

What is comparative advantage?

a)

Producing a good at a lower opportunity cost

b)

Producing a good at a higher direct cost

c)

Producing all goods equally

d)

Avoiding specialization

54.

Which country has a comparative advantage in the production of Good Y?

a)

Country A

b)

Country B

c)

Both Country A and Country B

d)

Neither Country A nor Country B

55.

What happens to the joint output of Good X after specialization?

a)

It increases from 180 to 200

b)

It decreases from 200 to 180

c)

It remains the same

d)

It decreases from 180 to 160

56.

What is meant by "mutually beneficial terms of trade"?

a)

Terms that benefit only one country

b)

Terms that benefit both countries

c)

Terms that increase trade barriers

d)

Terms that decrease production costs

57.

What is the opportunity cost ratio for Country A before trade?

a)

1X:0.5Y

b)

1Y:1.34X

c)

1X:0.75Y

d)

1Y:2X

58.

Which of the following is an assumption of comparative advantage?

a)

High transport costs

b)

Barriers to trade

c)

Homogenous goods

d)

Limited factor mobility

59.

What does "competitive advantage" refer to?

a)

Access to cheaper labor

b)

Access to technology or innovations

c)

Access to more natural resources

d)

Access to larger markets

60.

Who developed the idea of comparative advantage?

a)

Adam Smith

b)

John Maynard Keynes

c)

David Ricardo

d)

Karl Marx

61.

What is the pattern of trade?

a)

The exclusive import of goods from neighboring countries

b)

The mix of goods and services a country imports and exports in international trade

c)

The domestic trade of goods within a country

d)

The export of only agricultural products

62.

Which factor does NOT influence the pattern of trade?

a)

Absolute and comparative advantages

b)

Exchange rate movements

c)

Local weather conditions

d)

Globalisation and trade agreements

63.

What percentage of UK exports go to the European Union?

a)

53%

b)

46%

c)

13%

d)

3.6%

64.

What is primary product dependency?

a)

Reliance on manufactured goods for economic stability

b)

Dependence on the export of raw materials or primary products

c)

Importing all goods from a single country

d)

Trading only within the European Union

65.

What is an emerging market?

a)

A fully developed economy with no need for further investment

b)

An economy investing heavily in its productive capacity but not yet classified as 'developed'

c)

A market that only trades with neighboring countries

d)

A market that relies solely on agricultural exports

66.

What is a tariff?

a)

A payment by the government to reduce costs of producers

b)

A physical limit on the quantity of imports allowed

c)

A tax on imports

d)

A rule for the national source of traded goods

67.

Which of the following is an example of a non-tariff barrier (NTB)?

a)

Subsidy

b)

Quota

c)

Tariff

d)

Import quota

68.

What is the effect of a subsidy on imports?

a)

Increases domestic supply and reduces imports

b)

Decreases domestic supply and increases imports

c)

Has no effect on domestic supply

d)

Increases both domestic supply and imports

69.

What is the impact of a quota on the market?

a)

It decreases the market price

b)

It increases the market price

c)

It has no effect on the market price

d)

It eliminates the market price

70.

What is the role of intellectual property laws in trade?

a)

To reduce the costs of producers

b)

To protect patents and copyrights

c)

To impose tariffs on imports

d)

To set quotas on exports

71.

What is one of the main reasons for protecting domestic industries through trade restrictions?

a)

To increase foreign competition

b)

To prevent job losses and maintain national self-sufficiency

c)

To lower consumer prices

d)

To encourage import of goods

72.

Which argument supports the use of tariffs to help emerging industries grow?

a)

Sunset industry argument

b)

National security argument

c)

Infant industry argument

d)

Anti-dumping measures

73.

What is a potential problem with protectionism related to consumer choice?

a)

It increases consumer choice

b)

It limits or prevents some goods from being imported

c)

It ensures a variety of imported goods

d)

It reduces domestic product availability

74.

How can trade restrictions improve a country's balance of payments?

a)

By increasing imports

b)

By reducing imports through tariffs or quotas

c)

By encouraging foreign investment

d)

By lowering domestic production

75.

What is a benefit of protectionism for domestic industries?

a)

It makes domestic industries less competitive

b)

It protects jobs and prevents structural unemployment

c)

It decreases tax revenue from tariffs

d)

It reduces national security

76.

What is a trading bloc?

a)

A single country trading with others

b)

A regional economic grouping or regional trade agreement

c)

A bilateral agreement between two companies

d)

A local market agreement

77.

Which type of trade agreement involves free trade between members and a common external tariff on non-members?

a)

Preferential Trading Area (PTA)

b)

Free trade area/agreement (FTA)

c)

Customs union

d)

Monetary union

78.

What is the main feature of a single (common) market?

a)

Tariffs on all goods

b)

Free movement of goods, services, capital, and labor

c)

High import quotas

d)

Strict border controls

79.

What does trade creation involve?

a)

Increasing tariffs between members

b)

Removal of tariffs between members

c)

Imposing quotas on exports

d)

Increasing import taxes

80.

What is an example of a monetary union?

a)

ASEAN

b)

Eurozone

c)

USMCA

d)

ACFTA

81.

When did the UK join the European Economic Community?

a)

1973

b)

1983

c)

1993

d)

2003

82.

What was one of the benefits of the UK's EU membership from 1973-2020?

a)

Increased trade restrictions

b)

Access to the Single Market

c)

Higher membership fees

d)

Loss of sovereignty

83.

Which of the following was a cost of EU membership for the UK?

a)

Access to immigrant labour

b)

Foreign Direct Investment

c)

Membership Fees

d)

Trade Agreements

84.

What did the UK vote for in the 2016 referendum?

a)

To join the Eurozone

b)

To leave the EU

c)

To increase EU membership fees

d)

To expand the Single Market

85.

What is one impact of Brexit mentioned in the document?

a)

Increased tax revenue

b)

Economic growth of 10%

c)

Economy 4-5% smaller

d)

More trade agreements

86.

What is one advantage of trading blocs?

a)

Increased trade among non-member countries

b)

Higher production costs

c)

Trade diversion

d)

Increased trade among member countries

87.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of trading blocs?

a)

Increased political cooperation

b)

Trade diversion

c)

Efficiency gains

d)

Economies of scale

88.

What is one of the key functions of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?

a)

Promoting trade diversion

b)

Facilitating trade negotiations

c)

Increasing trade barriers

d)

Providing preferential treatment

89.

What challenge does the WTO face due to the rise of digital trade and e-commerce?

a)

Increased trade barriers

b)

Trade diversion

c)

Existing trade rules may not cover these areas

d)

Increased political cooperation

90.

What is a possible conflict between trading blocs and the WTO?

a)

Increased economies of scale

b)

Trade discrimination against non-members

c)

Increased political cooperation

d)

Efficiency gains

91.

What are the three key parts of a country's balance of payments account?

a)

Current account, capital account, financial account

b)

Trade balance, services balance, primary income

c)

Exports, imports, net exports

d)

Budget deficit, trade deficit, financial deficit

92.

What does a trade surplus indicate?

a)

The value of imports exceeds the value of exports

b)

The value of exports exceeds the value of imports

c)

The value of exports equals the value of imports

d)

The value of imports equals the value of exports

93.

Which account records transactions related to financial assets and liabilities?

a)

Current account

b)

Capital account

c)

Financial account

d)

Trade balance

94.

What is the primary income in the current account?

a)

Net transfers of money or goods between countries

b)

Net flows of earnings from investments

c)

Balance in trade for services

d)

Balance in trade of goods

95.

What happens when the value of exports is less than the value of imports in the current account?

a)

Trade surplus

b)

Trade deficit

c)

Current account deficit

d)

Budget deficit

96.

What is a current account deficit?

a)

When the value of exports is higher than imports

b)

When the value of exports is lower than imports

c)

When investment incomes are higher than transfer inflows

d)

When there is a net inflow of income

97.

Which of the following is a method to finance a current account deficit?

a)

Decrease foreign currency reserves

b)

Increase domestic spending

c)

Attract inflows of FDI and portfolio investments

d)

Reduce interest rates

98.

What is a consequence of a current account deficit?

a)

Increase in GDP growth

b)

Appreciation of the exchange rate

c)

Depreciating exchange rate

d)

Increase in investment and jobs

99.

What are cyclical causes of a current account deficit?

a)

High levels of capital investment

b)

Low productivity and research

c)

Rising real incomes boosting consumer spending

d)

Decline in extractive sectors