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Worksheets

A&P 1 Fall 2024

Total questions: 264

Worksheet time: 4hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the term for standing straight with palms forward and feet together?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Superior

d)

Anatomical Position

2.

cranial

a)

brain

b)

skull

c)

cubital

d)

anterior

3.

posterior

a)

anterior

b)

side

c)

brachial

d)

dorsal, back

4.

lateral

a)

side

b)

back

c)

front

d)

below

5.

cephal-

a)

foot

b)

hand

c)

head

d)

eye

6.

caudal

a)

head

b)

tail

c)

pelvic

d)

ventral cavity

7.

epi-

a)

upon, over

b)

ventral, front

c)

below

d)

skull

8.

anterior

a)

dorsal, back

b)

right upper quad

c)

ventral, front

d)

upon, over

9.

dorsal

a)

back

b)

lateral

c)

ventral

d)

side

10.

inferior

a)

above

b)

below

c)

far

d)

nearest

11.

Armpit

a)

tail

b)

axillary

c)

far away from

d)

swelling

12.

superior

a)

above

b)

below

c)

side

d)

inferior

13.

distal

a)

above

b)

near

c)

far

d)

tail

14.

hypo-

a)

above

b)

under

c)

superior

d)

nearest

15.

gastr-

a)

stomach

b)

intestines

c)

bile

d)

gall bladder

16.

renal

a)

colon

b)

kidney

c)

liver

d)

tail

17.

chondr

a)

artery

b)

muscles

c)

joint

d)

cartilage

18.

viscera

a)

ventral organs

b)

dorsal organs

c)

cartilage

d)

upon, below

19.

Pulmonary

a)

lungs

b)

sutures

c)

mild not cancerous

d)

eardrum

20.

ventral

a)

dorsal , back

b)

below

c)

back

d)

front

21.

Brachial

a)

area between the shoulder and the elbow

b)

caudal

c)

thoracic cavity

d)

back of the knee

22.

cardi-

a)

liver

b)

lung

c)

heart

d)

skull

23.

Area between the abdomen and the thigh

a)

pelvic

b)

lateral

c)

inguinal

d)

caudal

24.

proximal

a)

above

b)

far away

c)

nearest

d)

upon, over

25.

back of the knee

a)

ventral

b)

dorsal

c)

popliteal

d)

proximal

26.

Front of the elbow

a)

axillary

b)

inferior

c)

inguinal

d)

cubital

27.

Describes the front or direction toward the front of the body

a)

Anterior

b)

superior

c)

posterior

d)

Inferior

28.

describes a position above or higher than another part of the body proper.

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

29.

describes a position closer to the surface of the body.

a)

Distal

b)

Medial

c)

Lateral

d)

Superficial

30.

It describes a position in a limb that is nearer to the point of attachment or the trunk of the body.

a)

Inferior

b)

Proximal

c)

Superior

d)

Anterior

31.

It describes the middle or direction toward the middle of the body.

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Anterior

d)

Superior

32.

Describes the back or direction toward the back of the body.

a)

Posterior

b)

Anterior

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

33.

It describes a position below or lower than another part of the body

a)

Superior

b)

Anterior

c)

Inferior

d)

posterior

34.

It describes the side or direction toward the side of the body.

a)

Medial

b)

Superficial

c)

Lateral

d)

Deep

35.

It describes a position farther from the surface of the body

a)

Superficial

b)

Deep

c)

Proximal

d)

Distal

36.
Divides body into top and bottom portions (superior-head; inferior-feat)
a)
Medial Plane
b)
Sagittal
c)
Proximal 
d)
Transverse Plane
37.
Body is standing straight, facing forward, upper limbs at side and palms facing forward. 
*right and left refer to "right" and "left" of the body in position.
a)
Sagittal
b)
Anatomical Position
c)
Anterior Position
d)
Anatomical Plane
38.
Away from the origin or trunk
a)
Deep
b)
Distal
c)
Proximal
d)
Posterior
39.
In the anatomical position, the palms are facing-
a)
forward
b)
backward
40.
Towards the Front. 
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
a)
Inferior
b)
Deep
c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
41.
The knee is _______ to the ankle.
a)
proximal
b)
lateral
c)
distal
d)
medial
42.
The head is ______ to the chest.
a)
superior
b)
dorsal
c)
inferior
d)
ventral
43.
The bone is _____ to the skin.
a)
inferior
b)
superficial
c)
deep
d)
posterior
44.
The right shoulder is ______ to the sternum.
a)
medial
b)
proximal
c)
distal
d)
lateral
45.
The rib cage is _____ to the heart.
a)
proximal
b)
medial
c)
superficial
d)
distal
46.

What is the definition of the sagittal plane?

a)

divides the body into left and right

b)

divides the body into front and back

c)

divides the body into top and bottom

47.

A coronal plain will divide the body into which sections?

a)

left and right

b)

superior and inferior

c)

anterior and posterior

d)

cranial and caudal

48.

What section will cut an organ into EQUAL right and left parts?

a)

sagittal

b)

mid-sagittal

c)

transverse

d)

coronal

49.

In the _________________________ position, the body is upright, directly facing the observer, feet flat and directed forward. The upper limbs are at the body's sides with the palms facing forward.

a)

inferior

b)

superior

c)

frontal

d)

anatomical

50.

Which body plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?

a)

transverse

b)

sagittal

c)

frontal

d)

occipital

51.

Which two body cavities are DORSAL body cavities?

a)

thoracic

b)

cranial

c)

abdominopelvic

d)

spinal

52.

Which of the following body cavities are VENTRAL body cavities?

a)

thoracic

b)

cranial

c)

abdominal

d)

pelvic

53.

Name this body region:

a)

femoral

b)

gluteal

c)

posterior

d)

inguinal

54.

Which organ is located in the cranial cavity?

a)

spinal cord

b)

brain

c)

lungs

d)

esophagus

55.

What quadrant does number 3 Represent?

a)

Right Upper

b)

Left Upper

c)

Right Lower

d)

Left Lower

56.

What is section 1?

a)

Epigastric

b)

Left Hypochondriac

c)

Right Hypochondriac

d)

Right iliac

57.

What is section 2?

a)

Epigastric

b)

Left Hypochondriac

c)

Right Hypochondriac

d)

Right iliac

58.

What is section 3?

a)

Epigastric

b)

Left Hypochondriac

c)

Right Hypochondriac

d)

Right iliac

59.

What is section 5?

a)

Umbilical

b)

Left lumbar

c)

Right lumbar

d)

Right iliac

60.

Closer to the head.

a)

Anterior

b)

Proximal

c)

Superior

d)

Medial

61.

Away from the head.

a)

Inferior

b)

Lateral

c)

Deep

d)

Distal

62.

Toward the front of the body.

a)

Superficial

b)

Anterior

c)

Inferior

d)

Proximal

63.

Toward the back of the body.

a)

Superficial

b)

Distal

c)

Superior

d)

Posterior

64.

Another term for anterior.

a)

Dorsal

b)

Distal

c)

Lateral

d)

Ventral

65.

Toward the midline of the body

a)

Inferior

b)

Superficial

c)

Proximal

d)

Medial

66.

Away from the midline of the body

a)

Inferior

b)

Distal

c)

Lateral

d)

Posterior

67.

Toward the surface of the body.

a)

Deep

b)

Superficial

c)

Inferior

d)

Distal

68.

Away from the surface of the body.

a)

Medial

b)

Inferior

c)

Proximal

d)

Deep

69.

Divides the body into left and right portions.

a)

Frontal

b)

Transverse

c)

Sagittal.

70.

Divides the body into front and back portions.

a)

Sagittal

b)

Frontal

c)

Transverse

71.

Divides the body into top and bottom portions.

a)

Sagittal

b)

Frontal

c)

Transverse

72.

The formation of an ionic bond involves the...

a)

sharing of electrons.

b)

transfer of electrons.

c)

transfer of protons.

73.

Which of the following best describes the type of bond formed when sodium reacts with chlorine?

a)

ionic bond

b)

metallic bond

c)

covalent bond

74.

Predict the type of bond that would form between oxygen and chlorine

a)

ionic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

metallic bond

75.

Predict the type of bonding that most likely to be found in an alloy

a)

ionic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

metallic bond

76.

Predict the type of bonding which would occur in sodium and fluorine.

a)

ionic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

metallic bond

77.

An aluminium ion Al3+ has a mass number of 27 and an atomic number of 13. Which of the following would the ion contain:

i. 14 neutrons

ii. 10 protons

iii. 10 electrons

iv. 13 neutrons

a)

i and ii only

b)

i and iii only

c)

iii and iv only

d)

i, ii and iii only

78.

which of the following statements best describe a metallic structure?

a)

a metal atom held together by anions

b)

cations held together by a sea of mobile electrons

c)

metal atoms held together by electrons

79.

The atomic number of an element is 15. To which group in the periodic table does it belong?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

80.

The diagram above shows:

a)

an ionic compound

b)

metallic bonding

c)

sodium atoms

81.

Cations have a (a)   charge

82.

The image above shows:

a)

covalent bonding

b)

ionic bonding

c)

metallic bonding

83.

The image above shows

a)

covalent bonding

b)

ionic bonding

c)

metallic bonding

84.

Metals like to ___________ electrons to become stable

a)

lose

b)

gain

c)

share

85.

Why do metals conduct electricity?

a)

They are shiny

b)

The electrons are held tightly within the lattice

c)

The electrons are delocalised and able to move

d)

The electrons are shared between two metal ions

86.

Which is described as the force holding atoms together?

a)

formula unit

b)

cation

c)

lattice

d)

chemical bond

87.

How many single covalent bonds can carbon form?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

88.

Which is the charge that results when oxygen becomes an ion?

a)

+3

b)

+2

c)

-2

d)

-3

89.

In general, this type of bond will form a compound with a high melting point.

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

90.

Covalent bonds are formed by sharing an electron from a _______ to a ________.

a)

Metal to a metalloid

b)

Metalloid to a nonmetal

c)

Nonmetal to a nonmetal

d)

Metal to a nonmetal

91.

Typically, atoms gain or lose electrons to achieve

a)

An exchange of energy

b)

Ionization

c)

A stable electron configuration.

92.

Ionic bonds are formed by transferring an electron from a _______ to a ________.

a)

Metal to a metalloid

b)

Metalloid to a nonmetal

c)

Nonmetal to a nonmetal

d)

Metal to a nonmetal

93.

What is an atom or group of atoms that has an electric charge?

a)

ion

b)

metal

c)

nonmetal

d)

ionic compound

94.
Which of the following elements has the smallest radius?
a)
Mg
b)
Al
c)
Si
d)
K
95.

Which element in Period 2 has the greatest atomic radius?

a)

Be

b)

C

c)

Na

d)

Li

96.

Of the halogens (group 7A), which has the smallest radius?

a)

F

b)

Br

c)

He

d)

At

97.
As you move across the periodic table from left to right, the atomic radius decreases.  This is because - 
a)
the number of protons increases, so attraction to electrons increases
b)
the number of energy levels increases
c)
the number of electrons increases
d)
the atomic mass increases
98.
Ionization energy is...
a)
the energy required to add an electron to a specific atom
b)
how much energy it takes to remove an electron from an atom
c)
the energy required to shield the outer electrons from the nucleus
d)
a measure of the ability of an atom to attract electrons
99.

Electronegativity __________ from left to right within a period and __________ from top to bottom within a group.

a)

decreases, increases

b)

increases, increases

c)

increases, decreases

d)

stays the same, increases

100.

The vertical (up and down) columns in the Periodic Table are called

a)

groups

b)

towers

c)

periods

d)

atomic numbers

101.

The atom with the largest atomic radius in Group 8A is -

a)

Ar

b)

He

c)

Kr

d)

Rn

102.
Francium (Fr) has the lowest ionization energy in Group 1 because - 
a)
it has the smallest number of valence electrons
b)
it has the greatest atomic mass
c)
it has the greatest number of protons, so it attracts its electrons the strongest
d)
its 1 valence electron is very far from the nucleus, so little energy is needed to remove it
103.
Which has the greater EN: 
H or F?
a)
H
b)
F
104.
Which has the greater EN: 
N or C?
a)
C
b)
N
105.

How many valence electrons does Carbon have?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

8

106.
Atoms that have a high electronegativity, _______________.
a)
give up their electrons more easily.
b)
hold on to their electrons more tightly.
c)
have more electron shells.
107.
Which of the following sequences corresponds to a correct trend in ionization energy?
a)
Cl > S > P > Al
b)
Sr > Ca > Mg > Be
c)
Rb > K > Na > Li
d)
Rb > Sr > I > Xe
108.

The ability of an atom to attract electrons in a bond is called

a)

Ionization energy

b)

electronegativity

c)

atomic radius

d)

proton affinity

109.
As you move down a group, atomic radius increases because - 
a)
you add more and more neutrons
b)
you add more and more protons
c)
you add more and more shells (energy levels)
d)
you add more atomic mass
110.
The element with the smallest ionization energy in Period 6 is - 
a)
Rn
b)
Cs
c)
Os
d)
Tm
111.

Which of the following will have a lower ionization energy than Scandium (Sc)?

a)

Helium (He)

b)

Titanium (Ti)

c)

Calcium (Ca)

d)

Magnesium (Mg)

112.

Which of the following will have a higher electronegativity than arsenic (As)?

a)

Carbon (C)

b)

Neon (Ne)

c)

Antimony (Sb)

d)

Germanium (Ge)

113.

As you move left to right across a period, ionization energy

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

says the same

114.

What group is highlighted here on the periodic table (Group 1A)?

a)

Noble Gases

b)

Halogens

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Alkaline Earth Metals

115.

What group is highlighted here on the periodic table (Group 8A)?

a)

Noble Gases

b)

Halogens

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Alkaline Earth Metals

116.

What group is highlighted here on the periodic table (Group 2A)?

a)

Noble Gases

b)

Halogens

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Alkaline Earth Metals

117.

What group is highlighted here on the periodic table (Group 7A)?

a)

Noble Gases

b)

Halogens

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Alkaline Earth Metals

118.

What group is highlighted here on the periodic table (D-block elements)?

a)

Non-metals

b)

Metalloids

c)

Rare Earth Metals

d)

Transition Metals

119.

____________ is the branch of chemistry that would identify enzymes and determine reaction mechanisms for biochemical reactions.

a)

Organic Chemistry

b)

Biochemistry

c)

Physical Chemistry

d)

Analytical Chemistry

120.

____________ is the branch of chemistry that would measure the amount of energy released or absorbed in chemical processes.

a)

Inorganic Chemistry

b)

Organic Chemistry

c)

Biochemistry

d)

Physical Chemistry

121.

____________ is the branch of chemistry that would study and develop new materials to improve existing products or make new ones that in general do no contain carbon.

a)

Organic Chemistry

b)

Inorganic Chemistry

c)

Biochemistry

d)

Physical Chemistry

122.

____________ is the branch of chemistry that would analyze new chemicals made from carbon-containing building blocks to identify its properties and use. (Select all that apply.)

a)

Inorganic Chemistry

b)

Organic Chemistry

c)

Biochemistry

d)

Analytical Chemistry

123.

____________ is the branch of chemistry that would analyze the composition of medicines and research how it reacts in the body. (Select all that apply)

a)

Analytical Chemistry

b)

Organic Chemistry

c)

Biochemistry

d)

Inorganic Chemistry

124.
The study of chemicals that, in general, do not contain carbon. 
a)
applied chemistry
b)
inorganic chemistry
c)
organic chemistry
d)
biochemistry
125.

Identifies an unknown through by determining its composition.

a)

analytical

b)

physical

c)

organic

d)

biochemistry

126.

finding out how much nitrogen is in a sample of air

a)

organic

b)

inorganic

c)

analytical

d)

physical

127.

studying the process of photosynthesis in plants

a)

biochemistry

b)

inorganic

c)

analytical

128.
Something that takes up space and has mass.
a)
volume
b)
matter
c)
mass
d)
density
129.
The amount of space something takes up
a)
density
b)
volume
c)
mass
d)
matter
130.

Which among the following is a NOT MATTER?

a)

Mars

b)

Smoke

c)

Steam

d)

none of the choices

131.

The study of the composition, structure, and properties of matter and the changes it undergoes.

a)

Chemistry

b)

Physics

c)

Biology

d)

Social Science

132.

The study of carbon containing compounds.

a)

Organic Chemistry

b)

Inorganic Chemistry

c)

Physical Chemistry

d)

Biochemistry

133.

The study of compounds that do not contain carbon.

a)

Organic Chemistry

b)

Inorganic Chemistry

c)

Biochemistry

d)

Analytical Chemistry

134.

The study of substances and processes occurring in living things.

a)

Biochemistry

b)

organic Chemistry

c)

inorganic Chemistry

d)

Applied Chemistry

135.

The identification of the components and composition of materials refers to___________________________

a)

Biochemistry

b)

Physical Chemistry

c)

Organic Chemistry

d)

Analytical Chemistry

136.

The use of mathematics and computers to understand the principles behind observed chemical behavior and to design and predict the properties of new compounds.

a)

Theoretical Chemistry

b)

Biochemistry

c)

Inorganic Chemistry

d)

Organic Chemistry

137.

Anything that has mass and occupies space

(a)  

138.

Study of essentially all chemicals that contain carbon

(a)  

139.

Study of the composition of substances

(a)  

140.

Study of the the mechanism, the rate, and the energy transfer that occurs when matter undergoes a change

(a)  

141.

Research that is directed toward a practical goal or application

(a)  

142.

The means by Which a society provides its members with those things needed nd desired

(a)  

143.

What is the teachers full name of his major degree

(a)  

144.

What subatomic particles are found in the nucleus and have a positive charge?

a)

Neutrons

b)

electron

c)

atoms

d)

protons

145.

 

What subatomic particles are found in energy levels outside of the nucleus and have a negative charge?

a)

Neutrons

b)

Protons

c)

Electrons

d)

Isotopes

146.

A substance formed by two or more different elements defines a/an

a)

Isotope

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Compound

d)

Elements

147.

What type of bond is formed between atoms of different charges? (gain or lose atoms)

a)

Covalent

b)

Compound

c)

Ionic

d)

Elemental

148.

Carbohydrates, Lipids, Proteins, and Nucleic Acids are the biomolecules/macromolecules that make you up.

a)

True

b)

False

149.

__________ are organic compounds that are good sources of energy. They contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

a)

Protein

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

150.

Simple sugars, or monosaccharides, such as glucose are the building blocks of

a)

Lipids

b)

Carboydrates

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acids

151.

The building blocks of ______ are fatty acids, which contain a carboxyl group and a hydrocarbon chain.

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic Acids

152.

Monomers are also known as

a)

Building blocks

b)

Houses

c)

Compounds

d)

Elements

153.

A single subunit of a biomolecule is called a polymer, while a group of subunits of a biomolecule is called a monomer.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

The 1:2:1 ratio of carbon to hydrogen to oxygen is seen in which group of organic compounds?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic acid

e)

None of the above

155.

Matter is____

a)

the pull of gravity on

an object.

b)

Space

c)

anything that

occupies space or has mass.

d)

study of life

156.

Each element of the periodic table is composed of how many atoms?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

157.

What subatomic particles are found in the nucleus and have no charge?

a)

Protons

b)

Elements

c)

Neutrons

d)

Electrons

158.

The nucleus of an atom is composed of:

a)

Protons/ Electrons

b)

Electrons / Neutrons

c)

Protons/ Neutrons/ Electrons

d)

Protons / Neutrons

159.

Are lipids nonpolar? (hydrophobic)

a)

True

b)

False

160.

Amino Acids are monomers for

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acids

161.

The function of Nucleic Acids is

a)

Store Energy

b)

Use energy

c)

to store and transmit genetic

info

d)

to transport oxygen throughout the body

162.

Nucleotides are monomers for Nucleic Acids

a)

True

b)

False

163.

Polymers are broken up and turned into monomers by which process

a)

Covalent Bonding

b)

Ionic Bonding

c)

Hydrolysis

164.

A process called ______ combines smaller molecules

together to form these larger

macromolecules.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Polymerization

c)

Cohesion

d)

Adhesion

165.

Atoms share pairs of Electrons in what kind of bond

a)

Covalent

b)

Ionic

c)

Electrical

d)

Cohesive

166.

In an Ionic bond, if you lose an electron, the charge is negative

a)

True

b)

False

167.

Ion is an atom that has gained or

lost one or more electron.

a)

True

b)

False

168.

Atoms that gain electrons are called ____ ion

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

169.

Which of the following is NOT a type of organic compound found in living things?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic Acids

e)

Water

170.

Which of the following is a chemical reaction?

a)

Calcium chloride dissolves in water.

b)

A balloon pops.

c)

Soft-drink powder mixes with water and the water turns red.

d)

A nail is dropped in the yard and rusts.

171.

A student mixed two saltwater solutions and weighed 50 mL of each. Solution 1 had a mass of 64 g. Solution 2 had a mass of 48 g. Which is true?

a)

Solution 1 is less dense and less concentrated than Solution 2.

b)

Solution 1 is less dense and more concentrated than Solution 2.

c)

Solution 1 is more dense and more concentrated than Solution 2.

d)

Solution 1 is more dense and less concentrated than Solution 2.

172.

A solution has 20 g salt and 100 mL water. What would make the solution half as concentrated?

a)

Add 10 g salt.

b)

Add 50 mL water.

c)

Add 20 g salt.

d)

Add 100 mL water.

173.

Solution A has 10 g solid. Solution B has 12 g solid. Both have equal amounts of water. Which is true?

a)

A is less concentrated and less dense.

b)

A is less concentrated and more dense.

c)

B is less concentrated and less dense.

d)

A is more concentrated and less dense.

174.

Which is a substance made up of only one kind of atom?

a)

element

b)

mixture

c)

solution

d)

compound

175.

Two spoons of solid are mixed in 50 mL water and the solid dissolves. The mass of one spoon of solid is 4 g. What is the mass of the solution?

a)

8 g

b)

58 g

c)

52 g

d)

54 g

176.

Two spoons of solid are mixed in 50 mL water and the solid dissolves. The mass of one spoon of solid is 4 g. After the water evaporates, what will be the mass of the remaining solid?

a)

4 g

b)

52 g

c)

8 g

d)

58 g

177.

A student dissolves 15 g of solid in 200 mL of water. Which is true?

a)

The solution's mass is less than the mass of the water.

b)

The solution's mass is greater than the mass of the water.

c)

The solution's mass is the same as the mass of the water.

d)

You cannot tell from the information given.

178.

Which of these makes both a mixture and a solution?

a)

salt and pepper

b)

calcium chloride and salt

c)

citric acid and water

d)

water and sand

179.

Why do we heat water when adding sugar to make candy?

a)

So the solution will condense more quickly

b)

So the solution will evaporate

c)

So the solution will become saturated right away

d)

So the solution is highly concentrated

180.

A solution mixes a colorless liquid and a blue solid. Which is evidence of a chemical reaction?

a)

The solid dissolved.

b)

Bubbles form in the mixture.

c)

The solution turned blue.

d)

The solution's odor is still strong.

181.

Which is the amount of space occupied by an object?

a)

weight

b)

mass

c)

volume

d)

density

182.

A filter separates sand from water. Why does this work?

a)

The holes in the filter are larger than the sand.

b)

The holes in the filter are smaller than the sand.

c)

The holes in the filter are the same size as the sand.

d)

The filter does not have holes.

183.

You filtered a mixture after a chemical reaction and have a clear liquid in the cup. How could you find out if there is a dissolved solid in the liquid?

a)

Evaporate the liquid.

b)

Freeze the liquid.

c)

Condense the liquid.

d)

Filter the liquid again.

184.

Which of these cups contains a solid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None

185.

In which of these cups are the atoms close together and moving around one another?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None

186.

In which of these cups are the atoms constantly moving?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

All of them

187.

In which of these cups are the particles locked in position and only able to vibrate?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

All of them

188.

Which of these jars contains a gas?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

All of them

189.

Which of these jars has the greatest density?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

All of them

190.

If the jars had lids and we removed them, which jar's particles would move out of the jar?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

All of them

191.
A substance that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction is called
a)
a catalyst
b)
a lipid
c)
a molecule
d)
an element
192.
Which macromolecule stores energy and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
193.
This is one job proteins do NOT have in the body
a)
storing genetic information
b)
structure
c)
speed up chemical reactions
d)
transport things through cell membrane
194.
DNA and RNA are examples of...
a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
195.
What is the monomer of nucleic acids?
a)
Glycerol
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Nucleotides
196.
Storing genetic information is a function belonging to which macromolecule? 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
197.
What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
capillary action
d)
surface tension
198.
The attraction that causes water and other liquids to form drops on thin films is called ________________. This is also water’s ability to be attraction to other water molecules.
a)
adhesion
b)
capillary action
c)
cohesion
d)
surface tension
199.
Which property of water will cause water to bead up on glass?
a)
Adhesion
b)
Cohesion
c)
Ability to dissolve substances
d)
High specific heat
200.
Bond created by the weak attraction of a slightly positive hydrogen atom to a slightly negative portion of another molecule
a)
polar molecule
b)
solution
c)
adhesion
d)
hydrogen bond
201.
What is the monomer of carbohydrates?
a)
monosaccharide
b)
amino acid
c)
protein
d)
fatty acid
202.
What elements are found in proteins?
a)
C H O
b)
C H O P
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N
203.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in the number of
a)
protons
b)
neutrons
c)
electrons
204.
What subatomic particle is negatively charged?
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
solution
205.
The energy needed to get a reaction started is the 
a)
adhesion energy
b)
activation energy
c)
cohesion energy
d)
chemical energy
206.
When salt is dissolved in water, water is the 
a)
reactant
b)
solute
c)
solvent
d)
solution
207.
The three particles that make up atoms are
a)
protons, neutrons, solvents
b)
protons, electrons, solutions
c)
protons, neutrons, soltuions
d)
protons, neutrons, and electrons
208.
A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a)
transferring electrons
b)
sharing electrons
c)
transferring protons
d)
sharing protons
209.
True or False. Enzymes are used up during a chemical reaction.
a)
True
b)
False
210.
Which two macromolecules are made up only of C, H , and O?
a)
Carbohydrates & Lipids
b)
Lipids & Proteins
c)
Lipids & Nucleic Acids
d)
Carbohydrates & Proteins
211.
Neutrons and protons make up the atom's ________.
a)
nucleus
b)
electrons
c)
solvent 
d)
solution
212.
A positively or negatively charged atom is called a(n)
a)
atom
b)
solvent
c)
solute
d)
ion
213.
Compounds that form hydrogen ions in solution is 
a)
a solution
b)
a base
c)
an acid
d)
a proton
214.
The function of carbohydrates is
a)
store genetic information.
b)
to transports substances in the body.
c)
makes up cell membrane.
d)
main source of energy.
215.
Which macromolecule basic unit is glycerol and fatty acids?
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
proteins
d)
nucleic acids
216.

Which of the following word pairs correctly completes the sentence below?

_______ are corrosive substances characterized as having a strong smell, a sour taste, and a _______.

a)

acid pH less than 7

b)

acid pH greater than 7

c)

base pH less than 7

d)

base pH greater than 7

217.

The pH of a solution is tested, and it is found to be a basic solution. Of the following choices, what could the pH have been?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

9

d)

5

218.

Human blood has a pH between 7.35 and 7.45. Which of the following best describes human blood?

a)

strongly acidic

b)

slightly acidic

c)

strongly basic

d)

slightly basic

219.

When using pH paper, the pH of a solution can be determined by looking at the _______ of the paper

a)

texture

b)

mass

c)

colour

d)

length

220.

What would be considered the weakest base?

a)

8

b)

7.8

c)

11.6

d)

14

221.

Many cleaning solutions are bases. Which of the following is a property of most bases?

a)

feels slippery

b)

white color

c)

can only be liquid

d)

tastes sour

222.

Pure water has a pH of 7. Pure water _______.

a)

is a base

b)

is a neutral substance

c)

could be either an acid or a base

d)

is an acid

223.

A sour taste is a characteristic of:

a)

acid

b)

base

c)

neutral

d)

pH scale

224.

pH is the measure of the concentration of ______.

a)

Acids

b)

H+ ion

c)

OH- ion

d)

Base

225.

If a solution is basic which ion will be more present?

a)

H+

b)

K+

c)

OH-

d)

H-

226.

Stronger acids have a pH closer to...

a)

7

b)

14

c)

0

d)

9

227.

Weaker bases have a pH closer to...

a)

8

b)

14

c)

0

d)

4

228.

A pH level of 7 indicates

a)

acid

b)

base

c)

neutral

d)

non of the following

229.

The pH scale is a range from:

a)

1-7

b)

1-5

c)

0-14

d)

1-14

230.

Which property is not associated with acids?

a)

Sour taste

b)

strong acids can burn you

c)

turns litmus paper blue

d)

reacts with metals

231.

Which of the following is true about acids and bases?

a)

The lower the pH #, the stronger the acid

b)

the higher the pH #, the stronger the acid

c)

The lower the pH #, the more neutral the acid

d)

The higher the pH #, the weaker the base

232.

You test a solution with pH paper, and the paper turns blue. The solution is ______.

a)

neutral

b)

an acid

c)

a base

d)

an acid & a base

233.

Neutralization is the process of an acid and a base reacting to form what? Select all that apply

a)

An ionic salt

b)

Hydronium ions

c)

NaCl

d)

Water

234.
Which item is an acid?
a)
Drain cleaner
b)
Ammonia
c)
An orange.
235.
You can eat or drink an acid.
a)
True 
b)
False
236.
You can eat or drink a base.
a)
True
b)
False
237.
Vinegar is a base.
a)
True
b)
False
238.
Which of the following describes a battery?
a)
Acid 
b)
Base
239.
Ammonia has a pH of 12.  Ammonia is __________.
a)
an acid
b)
a base
c)
an element
d)
a metal
240.
When dissolved in water, bases produce:
a)
acids
b)
salts
c)
hydrogen ions
d)
hydroxide ions
241.

Which of the following sub-atomic particle has positive charge?

a)

Electron

b)

Proton

c)

Neutron

d)

None of the above

242.
Chemical Formulas ...
a)
are written in alphabetical order 
b)
represent the destruction or creation of atoms 
c)
represent how atoms are arranged in a chemical reaction 
d)

None of the above

243.
The image shows the periodic grid for POTASSIUM. What is Potassium's atomic number?
a)
19
b)
39
c)
20
d)

None of the above

244.
Explain this graph
a)
A catalyst is used to speed up the reaction rate
b)
The catalyst provides a short cut to the products
c)
The red line shows how the catalyst saves energy 
d)
All of these choices
245.
What is the law of Conservation of Mass?
a)
A measure of how much mass is created or destroyed. 
b)
Mass can neither be created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. 
c)

Mass remains same in all conditions

d)

None of the above

246.
A catalyst  
a)
is added to a reaction to make it slow down 
b)
breaks apart and is changed 
c)
provides an energetic short cut to the products 
d)

None of the above

247.
Everything is made up of little tiny things called _____
a)
compounds
b)
molecules
c)
atoms
d)
solids
248.
From the diagram, which particles are indicated with the arrow?
a)
electrons and protons
b)
protons and neutrons
c)
electrons and neutrons
d)
photons and nucleons
249.
These particles orbit around the nucleus of an atom.  What are they called?
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
photons
250.
If a grapefruit's atoms were the size of blueberries, then the grapefruit would be the size of _____
a)
the Earth
b)
a house
c)
a city
d)
the solar system
251.
If you filled the Earth with blueberries, that same number would represent the atoms in _____
a)
a grapefruit
b)
the sun
c)
a basketball
d)
a grain of sand
252.
In the center of the atom is something called _____
a)
the kernel
b)
the cell
c)
the nucleus
d)
the focal point
253.
What are the names of the particles in the nucleus?
a)
protons and neutrons
b)
protons and electrons
c)
photons and neutrons
d)
nucleons and protons
254.
Near the outside of an atom, you'd find _____
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
photons
255.
Old pictures of the atom from science textbooks are wrong because _____
a)
they show the nucleus at the center
b)
they're not drawn to scale
c)
the nucleus is drawn too small
d)
the electrons are on the outside
256.
If you opened up a blueberry, which represented an atom, the nucleus would be _____
a)
too small to see
b)
barely visible
c)
the size of a seed
d)
almost the size of the blueberry
257.
If a blueberry, which represents an atom, was the size of a house then the nucleus would be _____
a)
too small to see
b)
barely visible
c)
the size of a seed
d)
almost the size of the blueberry
258.
If an atom was the size of a football stadium, the nucleus would be _____
a)
too small to see
b)
barely visible
c)
the size of a marble
d)
the size of a house
259.
The protons and neutrons are inside of the nucleus, and contain almost all of _____
a)
the charge of the atom
b)
the volume of the atom
c)
the mass of the atom
d)
the kinetic energy of the atom
260.
In terms of matter, the atom is almost entirely filled with _____
a)
orbiting electrons
b)
charged protons
c)
heavy neutrons
d)
empty space
261.
Technically, in the vast regions of the empty space of the atom there are _____
a)
fields of study
b)
wheat fields
c)
gravitational fields
d)
electromagnetic fields
262.
Why does hamburger have lower energy than a steak?
a)
because it's in the ground state
b)
because it's hard pressed
c)
because it's all dressed up
d)
because it's thinner
263.
In metric units, the density of a typical nucleus is four times 10 to the 17th _____
a)
pounds per cubic feet
b)
kilograms per meter cubed
c)
meters per second
d)
ounces per cubic inch
264.
To have the same density as a nucleus, how many cars must be crammed into a one-cubic-foot box?
a)
one car
b)
one hundred cars
c)
about 6 million cars
d)
about 6 billion cars

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