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Mock Test2

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In 16-bit 2’s complement representation, the decimal number -28 is

a)

1000 0000 1110 0100

b)

0000 0000 1110 0100

c)

1111 1111 1110 0100

d)

1111 1111 0001 1100

2.

The minters expansion of f(P, Q, R) = PQ + QR’ + PR’ is

a)

 m2 + m4 + m6 + m7

b)

m0 + m1 + m3 + m5

c)

m0 + m1 + m6 + m7

d)

m2 + m3 + m4 + m5

3.

In the circuit shown, diodes and are ideal, and the inputs and are “0 V” for logic ‘0’ and “10 V” for logic ‘1’. What logic gate does the circuit represent?

a)

a.3-input OR gate

b)

3-input AND gate

c)

3-input NOR gate

d)

3-input XOR gate

4.

Consider the D-Latch shown in the figure, which is transparent when its clock input CK is high and has zero propagation delay. In the figure, the clock signal CLK1 has a 50% duty cycle and CLK2 is a one-fifth period delayed version of CLK1. The duty cycle at the output latch in percentage is ___________

a)

30

b)

25

c)

35

d)

40

5.

A mod-n counter using a synchronous binary up-counter with synchronous clear input is shown in the figure. The value of n is

a)

5

b)

7

c)

15

d)

6

6.

A 16 Kb (=16,384 bit) memory array is designed as a square with an aspect ratio of one (number of rows is equal to the number of columns). The minimum number of address lines needed for the row decoder is ____________

a)

3

b)

128

c)

5

d)

7

7.

A linear time invariant system has an impulse response of e2t, t > 0. If the initial conditions are zero and the input is e3t, what is the output for t > 0?

a)

e5t

b)

e3t+e2t

c)

e3t−e2t

d)

None of the above

8.

In a unity negative feedback system with an open–loop transfer function:

G(s)=K/{s(s+1)}

What should be the gain K for the system to have a damping ratio of 0.25?

a)

5

b)

2.5

c)

4.75

d)

4

9.

Change in output of a sensor with change in input is

a)

A.Resolution

b)

Sensitivity

c)

Response

d)

Selectivity

10.

Which one generally is not desired in sensors

a)

High Selectivity

b)

High Sensitivity

c)

Hysteresis

d)

Low Response time

11.

In liquid level systems unit of capacitance is

a)

m2

b)

m3

c)

m2/s

d)

Farad

12.

Arduino Uno works on

a)

8 bit architecture

b)

16 bit architecture

c)

32 bit architecture

d)

Both A and B

13.

Which of the following semiconducting material is generally not used in the LDR sensor?

a)

CdSe

b)

InS

c)

PbS

d)

Ge

14.

The basic function of the spring in a control valve is to

a)

Characterize flow

b)

Oppose the diaphragm so as to position the valve according to signal pressure

c)

Close the valve if air failure occurs

d)

Open the valve if air failure occurs

15.

Which of the following is neutral position in float center 4/3 DC valve configuration

a)

b)

c)

d)

16.

Which of the following is pressure sequence valve

a)

b)

c)

d)

17.

MOV A, @R0 is which type of addressing

a)

Direct Addressing

b)

Indirect Addressing

c)

Immediate Addressing

d)

Register Addressing

18.

A methane sensor gives wrong output because of presence of CO2, Which one can be said about sensor

a)

Sensor has Low Selectivity

b)

Sensor has Low Sensitivity

c)

Sensor has Low Resolution

d)

D.All of Above

19.

Which of the following elements transfers torque and is only subjected with bending moment?

a)

Brake

b)

Clutch

c)

Axle

d)

Belt drive

20.

The elongation of a bar is 0.5 mm, when a tensile stress of 200 N/mm2 acts on it. Determine original length of a bar if modulus of elasticity is 150 x 103.

a)

375 mm

b)

300 mm

c)

360 mm

d)

None of the above

21.

What is the primary function of mechanism?

a)

Power transmission

b)

Power absorption

c)

Force transmission

d)

Motion transmission

22.

A beam of uniform strength has

a)

same cross-section throughout the beam

b)

same bending stress at every section

c)

same bending moment at every section

d)

same shear stress at every section

23.

In the given figure, the stress corresponding to point D is

a)

yield point stress

b)

breaking stress

c)

ultimate stress

d)

elastic limit

24.

A shaft revolving at ω rad / s transmits torque (T) in N-m. The power developed is

a)

T.ω watts

b)

2 π Tω watts

c)

2*pi*Tω/75 Watts

d)

2*pi*Tω/4500 Watts

25.

Oldham coupling is used to transmit power between two parallel shafts which are slightly offset.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Compression members always tend to buckle in the direction of the

a)

Axis of load

b)

Perpendicular to the axis of load

c)

Minimum cross section

d)

Least radius of gyration

27.

The layer at the centre of gravity of the beam as shown in the given figure will be

a)

In tension

b)

In compression

c)

Neither in tension nor in compression

d)

None of these

28.

Which one is not unit of Stress in any measurement system

a)

N/mm2

b)

kPa

c)

psi

d)

None of the given option

29.

The rolling contact bearings are known as

a)

thick lubricated bearings

b)

plastic bearings

c)

thin lubricated bearings

d)

antifriction bearings

30.

In order to remove internal stresses produced by hardening the steel, the process usually adopted is

a)

tempering

b)

annealing

c)

normalising

d)

spheroidising

31.

In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first converted into kinetic energy by

a)

Impulse turbine

b)

Reaction turbine

c)

Both a. and b.

d)

None of the above

32.

Which of the following is an example of impulse turbine?

a)

Propeller turbine

b)

Francis turbine

c)

Kaplan turbine

d)

Pelton wheel

33.

Which of the following is NOT a type of positive displacement pumps?

a)

Reciprocating pump

b)

Rotary displacement pump

c)

Centrifugal pump

d)

None of the above

34.

Machine elements such as bearings are _________

a)

holding type elements

b)

supporting type elements

c)

power transmitting elements

d)

all of the above

35.

The objective of considering ergonomics in machine design is to ____
1. decrease physical stresses
2. make user adapt to the machine
3. make machine fit for the user
4. improve appearance of the product

a)

only 2

b)

3 and 4

c)

1 and 3

d)

1, 3 and 4

36.

The component deforming progressively under load at high temperatures is called as

a)

Resilience

b)

Creep

c)

Fatigue

d)

All of the above

37.

Match the following Manufacturing processes with their Types and select the correct option.

a)

1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B

b)

1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B

c)

1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

d)

1-– D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C

38.

In four stroke cycle engine, cycle is completed in ______

a)

two strokes of the piston

b)

two revolutions of the crankshaft

c)

three strokes of the piston

d)

four revolutions of the crankshaft

39.

Factor of safety is the ratio of _________

a)

working stress and ultimate strength

b)

yield strength and endurance strength

c)

ultimate strength and yield strength

d)

yield strength and working stress

40.

Straight bevel gears are easy to design and manufacture and give reasonably good service with quieter operation.

a)

True

b)

No, noise problem

c)

No, vibration problem

d)

None of the listed

41.

When, p = specific pressure v = specific volume P = Total pressure of gas V= Total volume of gas R = Characteristic gas constant n = number of moles in gas m = mass of the gas T = Temperature of the gas then the ideal gas equation will be

a)

v =m R T

b)

P V = R T

c)

P V = m R T

d)

all of the above

42.

Which among the following systems undergo/es work transfer?

a)

Current flowing through the resistor

b)

A shaft rotated by a motor

c)

both a. and b

d)

none of the above

43.

An electric current I is passing through a resistor in contact with a reservoir. The internal energy of the resistor is constant. Heat generated is absorbed by surrounding at temperature T0. What will be the effect on entropy of the universe?

a)

Entropy of the universe is always constant

b)

The process increases the entropy of the universe

c)

The process decreases the entropy of the universe

d)

cannot say

44.

Consider the given diagram of heat transfer and work transfer for a system. What will be the first law equation for the below system?

a)

(Q1 – Q2) = ΔE – ( W2 + W3 – W1 )

b)

(Q1 + Q2) = ΔE + ( W2 – W3 + W1 )

c)

(Q1 – Q2) = ΔE + ( W2 + W3 – W1 )

d)

none of the above

45.

Hybrid vehicle consist of

a)

Motor electric 1 + motor electric 2

b)

Internal combustion engine + electric motor

c)

NGV engine + Gasoline engine

d)

All of the above

46.

What is heat transfer?

a)

Flow of thermal energy from low-temperature reservoir to high-temperature reservoir

b)

Flow of energy in the form of heat from high-temperature reservoir to low-temperature reservoir

c)

Flow of thermal energy irrespective of reservoir temperature

d)

None of the above

47.

Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

Constant

d)

may increase or decrease depending on temperature

e)

unpredictable

48.

Which of the following is the case of heat transfer purely by radiation

a)

blast furnace

b)

heating of building

c)

cooling of parts in furnace

d)

heat received by a person from fireplace

e)

all of the above

49.

Which of the following has least value of conductivity

a)

glass

b)

water

c)

plastic

d)

rubber

e)

air

50.

Euler's formula holds good only for

a)

short columns

b)

long columns

c)

both short and long columns

d)

weak columns

51.

Tolerance on the dimension x in the two-component assembly shown below is

a)

±0.025

b)

±0.030

c)

±0.040

d)

±0.045

52.

In clearance fit size of shaft is _________ than hole size ?

a)

Small

b)

greater

c)

Equal

d)

None of the above

53.

Which type of CNC machine is used for producing cylindrical parts?

a)

CNC milling machine

b)

CNC lathe

c)

CNC router

d)

CNC plasma cutter

54.

CNC system use the following G code for absolute dimensioning ?

a)

G 91

b)

G 81

c)

G 01

d)

G 90

55.

Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system?

a)

Clutch

b)

Wheels

c)

Gear Box

d)

Axles

56.

Electric Vehicles are generally powered by __________

a)

Aluminum batteries

b)

Lead-acid batteries

c)

Sodium batteries

d)

Magnesium batteries

57.

Which component in an electric vehicle allows the driver to control the speed and direction of the vehicle?

a)

Battery pack

b)

Electric motor

c)

Drive-by-wire system

d)

Charging port

58.

Sum of three Natural numbers a, b and c is 10. How many ordered triplets (a, b, c) exist?

Ordered triplets means (a,b,c) and (b,a,c) are different.  Also a=b or b=c or c=a will also be counted as a possiblity.

a)

45

b)

36

c)

54

d)

28

59.

If all words with 2 distinct vowels and 3 distinct consonants were listed alphabetically, what would be rank of ACDEF.

a)

4716

b)

4720

c)

4718

d)

4750

60.

From the digits 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7, how many 5-digit numbers can be formed that have distinct digits and are multiples of 12.

a)

36

b)

60

c)

84

d)

72

61.

You have 12 players (7 boys and 5 girls). How many ways can you form 3 teams of 4 players each if each team must include at least 1 girl and at least 1 boy?

a)

10120

b)

4360

c)

31760

d)

384

62.

A box contains 5 red, 3 green, and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that they are of different colors?

a)

31/45

b)

14/45

c)

1/3

d)

2/3

63.

A box contains 6 white balls, 4 black balls, and 2 red balls. If three balls are drawn at random, what is the probability that at least one ball is red?

a)

6/11

b)

5/11

c)

1/12

d)

1/110

64.

A bag contains 5 red balls and 3 blue balls. If you draw a ball from the bag, record its color, and then put it back in the bag. You repeat this process 4 times. What is the probability of drawing exactly 2 red balls in those 4 draws?

a)

675/2048

b)

5/8

c)

25/64

d)

10/28

65.

In a city, 70% of the population owns a car, and 40% of the car owners also own a house. If a person is selected at random, what is the probability that they own a house given that they own a car?

a)

4/7

b)

0.28

c)

0.4

d)

0.7

66.

What is the difference between the compound interests on Rs. 5000 for 1 years at 4% per annum compounded yearly and half-yearly?

a)

Rs. 3.06

b)

Rs. 4.80

c)

Rs 8.30

d)

Rs 2.04

67.

Rahul invested a certain amount in three different schemes A, B, and C with the rate of interest 10% p.a., 12% p.a. and 15% p.a. respectively. If the total interest accrued in one year was Rs. 3200 and the amount invested in Scheme C was 150% of the amount invested in Scheme A and 240% of the amount invested in Scheme B, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?

a)

Rs 10000

b)

Rs 8000

c)

Rs 6500

d)

Rs 5000

68.

 If SACHIN is coded as CASINH then DRAVID will be coded as

a)

RADDIV

b)

RADIDV

c)

ARDIDV

d)

ARDDIV

69.

Please read the directions given below and answer following question
Six product boxes are placed one above the other: A, B, C, D, E, and F, but not necessarily in the same order. At most two boxes are placed above box A. Two boxes are placed between box A and box B. The box of E is placed below the box B. The box of F is placed three places above the box C. No box is placed between box A and box D. Box D is placed below the box F.


Ques- Who sits between D & E

a)

F & B

b)

E only

c)

F & A

d)

A & C

e)

B & C

70.

Please read the directions given below and answer following question
Six product boxes are placed one above the other: A, B, C, D, E, and F, but not necessarily in the same order. At most two boxes are placed above box A. Two boxes are placed between box A and box B. The box of E is placed below the box B. The box of F is placed three places above the box C. No box is placed between box A and box D. Box D is placed below the box F.


Ques-What is position of C with respect to E

a)

Two places above

b)

Immediately above

c)

Immediately below

d)

4 place above

71.

Please read the direction given below
Eight persons live in an eight-floor building. The ground floor is numbered as 1 and topmost floor is numbered as 8. D lives on an even number floor below 5th floor. There is only one person lives between D and C. G lives on one of the even number floors but not on the top floor. There are two persons live between C and A who lives below E. H lives on a floor immediate above the B’s floor. The number of persons live between F and B is same as the number of persons live between F and E.

Ques- On which floor E lives

a)

5

b)

6

c)

4

d)

3

72.

Please read the direction given below.
Eight persons live in an eight-floor building. The ground floor is numbered as 1 and topmost floor is numbered as 8. D lives on an even number floor below 5th floor. There is only one person lives between D and C. G lives on one of the even number floors but not on the top floor. There are two persons live between C and A who lives below E. H lives on a floor immediate above the B’s floor. The number of persons live between F and B is same as the number of persons live between F and E.
Ques- Which of the following statement is correct

a)

D lives two floor above A

b)

Two persons live between F & B

c)

F lives immediately above C

d)

Three persons live between F & E

73.

Please select option which best describes below given Idiom/ Phrase
Fair and Square

a)

In an honest way and according to rules

b)

Attractive Personality

c)

Equal in size and shape

d)

Clear communication

74.

Please select option which best describes below given Idiom/ Phrase
By Fits and starts.

a)

With lot of efforts

b)

By any means

c)

Occasionally and irregularly

d)

Quickly and efficiently

75.

Select word which best fits in the blank space to make a meaningful statement

The overpopulation of large snakes in the forest is …………… to the wild rat population.

a)

Infliction

b)

Stagger

c)

Turpitude

d)

Deleterious

76.

Find the next number in given series

1, 6, 13, 24, 41, ?

a)

64

b)

66

c)

61

d)

70

77.

Which number will be next in given series

16, 17, 27, 56, 142.5, ?

a)

362

b)

518

c)

415.5

d)

430.5

78.

Which number will be next in given series

14, 526, 477, 693, 668,

a)

753

b)

752

c)

648

d)

732

79.

A car after travelling a distance of 110 km develops a problem in the engine and proceeds at ¾ th of its former speed and arrives at the destination 60 minutes late. Had the problem developed 30 km further on, the car would have arrived 12 minutes sooner. Find the original speed of the car.

a)

40 Km/h

b)

50 Km/h

c)

60 Km/h

d)

45 Km/h

80.

In what ratio, water must be mixed with fruit juice costing Rs.24 per litre so that the juice would be worth of Rs.20 per litre?.

a)

1/5

b)

5/1

c)

1/6

d)

6/1

81.

Without stoppage, a train travels at an average speed of 72 km/hr and with some stoppage, it travels at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Find how many minutes, does train stops per hr?

a)

12 min

b)

10 min

c)

11 min

d)

13 min

82.

Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 5: 3 and 4: 5 The ratio in which these mixtures be mixed to form a new mixture containing half milk and half water is

a)

7/4

b)

4/7

c)

2/3

d)

3/2

83.

Study the pie chart and line graph given and answer the following questions.

Pie chart shows the % distribution of total employees of four companies (A, B, C & D) and line chart shows the % distribution of employees of each company in three different departments (i.e., Production, Finance and Marketing).

Ques- Find ratio of employees of company-A in finance & production department together to employees of company-B in production department and employees of company-C in marketing department together.

a)

21/25

b)

84/85

c)

18/25

d)

84/65

84.

Study the pie charts given below and answer the following questions.

Pie chart shows the % distribution of total employees of four companies (A, B, C & D) and line chart shows the % distribution of employees of each company in three different departments (i.e., Production, Finance and Marketing).

Ques- Number of employees in A & B together is what percent more than employees in C

a)

38

b)

37.5

c)

28.57

d)

40

85.

Study the pie charts given below and answer the following questions.

Ques A shopkeeper sells four different products A, B, C & D, Pie chart  given shows distribution of total sale. If total sale is 720 product, find out how many products in category C he sold

a)

140

b)

330

c)

280

d)

180

86.

If the volume of a cone is 308 cm cube and the area of base is 154 cm square, then surface area of curved surface will be

a)

23√85

b)

27√85

c)

22√85

d)

5√85

87.

The area of a triangle is 294 cm2 and its sides are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 4. The perimeter of the triangle is.

a)

102 cm

b)

64 cm

c)

81 cm

d)

84 cm

88.

A and B enter into a partnership with Rs. 14000 and Rs. 27,000 respectively. C joins x months before end of the year, contributing Rs. 21,000 and B leaves them after x months from the start of the year. If they share the annual profit in the ratio of 14 : 9 : 7, then find the value of x

a)

3.5

b)

4

c)

5

d)

7

89.

In a given code language

Hospitals provide proper facilities’ is coded as ‘yu   ki   fs   bv’

‘Proper study guidance important’ is coded as ‘bv   at   zx   pe’

‘Hospitals facilities not important’ is coded as ‘zx   yu   fs   gf’

‘facilities guidance where needed’ is coded as ‘fs   at   hw   dn’.

What will be code for provide not

a)

bv zx

b)

gf bv

c)

gf ki

d)

fs zx

90.

Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X)

a)

4

b)

2

c)

3

d)

1