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Worksheets

Final Review

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Electrical safety involves the use of PPE and portable tools. Which of the following is a key aspect of electrical safety?

a)

Wearing insulated gloves

b)

Using non-conductive ladders

c)

Ensuring tools are properly grounded

d)

All of the above

2.

What does HERO require for ordnance handling with HF equipment?

a)

Specialized training

b)

Protective gear

c)

Specific safety protocols

d)

No special requirements

3.

What is the function of GCCS-M in terms of ship location?

a)

To track and display ship locations

b)

To manage ship crew schedules

c)

To monitor ship fuel levels

d)

To control ship navigation systems

4.

What is the purpose of ADNS troubleshooting?

a)

To identify and resolve network issues

b)

To enhance user interface design

c)

To develop new software applications

d)

To improve hardware performance

5.

What is Fleet Tactical Network Defense in terms of Line of Sight (LOS)?

a)

A method of communication that relies on direct visual contact

b)

A strategy for underwater communication

c)

A satellite-based communication system

d)

A type of encrypted radio communication

6.

OPTASK COMMs guarding refers to:

a)

Monitoring communication channels

b)

Securing communication equipment

c)

Encrypting messages

d)

Establishing communication protocols

7.

What is the minimum classification of COMMPLAN?

a)

Confidential

b)

Secret

c)

Top Secret

d)

Unclassified

8.

The FREQPLAN contains:

a)

Frequency allocations

b)

Network configurations

c)

User data

d)

Security protocols

9.

What is the purpose of an SAA?

a)

To provide a structured approach to software architecture

b)

To ensure software applications are secure

c)

To manage software application updates

d)

To analyze software application performance

10.

What is the purpose of the PYQ-10?

a)

To measure temperature

b)

To analyze data

c)

To test software

d)

To conduct surveys

11.

How would you describe the UNIFORM circuit?

a)

A circuit with consistent parameters throughout

b)

A circuit with varying parameters

c)

A circuit that changes over time

d)

A circuit with no specific pattern

12.

What does the ROMEO circuit transmit, and how does it use crypto BAS (Black SAS)?

a)

The ROMEO circuit transmits encrypted data using crypto BAS.

b)

The ROMEO circuit transmits unencrypted data without using crypto BAS.

c)

The ROMEO circuit transmits encrypted data without using crypto BAS.

d)

The ROMEO circuit transmits unencrypted data using crypto BAS.

13.

What is the required frequency separation for UHF multi-couplers (OA-9123) when tuning up to four transceivers (WSC-3(v)7)?

a)

25 kHz

b)

50 kHz

c)

100 kHz

d)

200 kHz

14.

What are the steps of the HAVE QUICK procedure for Anti-Jam (AJ)?

a)

Frequency hopping

b)

Time synchronization

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

15.

What resource is available for the KG-84 crypto device?

a)

User manual

b)

Technical support

c)

Online tutorial

d)

None of the above

16.

The SRA-56/57/58 coupler group uses which method to connect to the transmitter (URT-23E)?

a)

Direct cable connection

b)

Wireless connection

c)

Optical fiber connection

d)

Bluetooth connection

17.

What antenna is used for receiving on the YANKEE circuit in HF?

a)

Dipole antenna

b)

Yagi antenna

c)

Loop antenna

d)

Whip antenna

18.

The SIERRA circuit uses which antenna and coupler group for receiving?

a)

Group A

b)

Group B

c)

Group C

d)

Group D

19.

What is the resource for tuning the SRA-56/57/58 coupler group?

a)

Tuning Manual

b)

Calibration Kit

c)

Adjustment Tool

d)

User Guide

20.

What resources are used for tuning the AN/URA-38 coupler?

a)

Capacitors and inductors

b)

Resistors and diodes

c)

Transistors and transformers

d)

Microcontrollers and sensors

21.

How do you use a headset or phones on an HF receiver?

a)

Plug them into the headphone jack

b)

Connect via Bluetooth

c)

Use an adapter for USB connection

d)

They cannot be used with an HF receiver

22.

What resource is available for AGC speed and bandwidth?

a)

CPU

b)

Memory

c)

Network

d)

Storage

23.

What does the LOCAL-LOCK-REMOTE toggle switch control?

a)

The power supply

b)

The network settings

c)

The locking mechanism

d)

The display brightness

24.

What should you do if the URT-23E’s OVERLOAD switch is reset, but the OVERLOAD light remains on?

a)

Check the power supply

b)

Replace the fuse

c)

Consult the manual

d)

Contact technical support

25.

Setting up local Lines and Trunks on a circuit involves which of the following steps?

a)

Configuring the PBX system

b)

Installing a new router

c)

Updating the firmware

d)

Changing the circuit board

26.

What does limited operation mode on the HFRG transmit subsystem involve?

a)

Reduced power output

b)

Increased power output

c)

Normal operation

d)

Shutdown mode

27.

What is the first step in troubleshooting in general?

a)

Identify the problem

b)

Implement a solution

c)

Test the solution

d)

Document the process

28.

How does the transmit segment of the SIERRA circuit work?

a)

It modulates the signal for transmission.

b)

It demodulates the incoming signal.

c)

It amplifies the received signal.

d)

It filters out noise from the signal.

29.

What is the frequency range of the DMR system when using SATCOM?

a)

225-400 MHz

b)

400-450 MHz

c)

450-500 MHz

d)

500-550 MHz

30.

What does the FREQPLAN contain for circuits while underway?

a)

Frequency assignments

b)

Circuit diagrams

c)

Operational guidelines

d)

Safety protocols

31.

CIB 7E refers to:

a)

A type of financial instrument

b)

A coding standard

c)

A regulatory body

d)

A software version

32.

What is the calibration step for the PYQ-10/SKL?

a)

Connect the device to a power source

b)

Press the calibration button

c)

Adjust the settings manually

d)

Run the automatic calibration software

33.

How does the UNIFORM circuit connect the crypto device (KG-58) to the channelizer (C-10276)?

a)

Through a direct cable connection

b)

Using a wireless link

c)

Via a satellite communication system

d)

By utilizing a fiber optic cable

34.

How does the BAS decrypt signals?

a)

By using a complex algorithm

b)

By manual intervention

c)

By using a simple key

d)

By broadcasting the signal

35.

What is the purpose of a multicoupler?

a)

To combine multiple signals into one

b)

To distribute a single signal to multiple outputs

c)

To amplify weak signals

d)

To filter out unwanted frequencies

36.

What are the startup procedures for the WSC-3/HAVE QUICK system?

a)

Power on the system and perform a self-test

b)

Check the antenna alignment

c)

Verify the frequency settings

d)

Ensure the system is connected to the network

37.

When should you zeroize a KG-84?

a)

When the device is no longer in use

b)

At the end of each day

c)

Before maintenance

d)

When instructed by a superior

38.

How do you secure a plain YANKEE circuit call?

a)

Use encryption

b)

Use a secure line

c)

Use a password

d)

Use a firewall

39.

What is the YANKEE circuit connection to the receiver and transmitter interface?

a)

A direct connection

b)

An indirect connection

c)

A wireless connection

d)

No connection

40.

How does the SIERRA circuit transmit signals?

a)

Through electromagnetic waves

b)

Via optical fibers

c)

Using electrical pulses

d)

By sound waves

41.

What does the TUNE/OPERATE switch do on the SRA-56/57/58 coupler group?

a)

It tunes the antenna for optimal performance.

b)

It switches the coupler between tuning and operating modes.

c)

It powers on the coupler group.

d)

It resets the coupler to factory settings.

42.

What is the automatic setup mode on the URA-38 coupler?

a)

Manual Mode

b)

Automatic Mode

c)

Semi-Automatic Mode

d)

Remote Mode

43.

What is the purpose of the HF receiver (R-2368) TUNE RATE button?

a)

To adjust the frequency tuning speed

b)

To change the volume level

c)

To switch between AM and FM modes

d)

To power on the receiver

44.

What is the resource for the R-2368 receiver?

a)

Technical Manual

b)

User Guide

c)

Installation Instructions

d)

Warranty Information

45.

What component on the URT-23E transmitter allows it to enter Allow mode?

a)

Control Panel

b)

Power Supply

c)

Mode Selector

d)

Frequency Modulator

46.

What is the first step in shutting down the URT-23E transmitter?

a)

Turn off the power switch

b)

Disconnect the antenna

c)

Press the shutdown button

d)

Check the manual

47.

How does HF voice enter the line and trunk number?

a)

Through a direct connection

b)

Via a satellite link

c)

Using a modem

d)

Through a digital signal processor

48.

What is the difference between Black SAS and Red SAS?

a)

Black SAS is used for data analysis, while Red SAS is used for data visualization.

b)

Black SAS is a type of software, while Red SAS is a hardware component.

c)

Black SAS is a security protocol, while Red SAS is a data storage solution.

d)

Black SAS and Red SAS are different versions of the same software.

49.

What are the characteristics and purpose of the HFRG transmit subsystem?

a)

It is used for high-frequency radio communication.

b)

It is a component of a satellite communication system.

c)

It is designed for underwater communication.

d)

It is part of a weather monitoring system.

50.

What should you do after fixing or working on a circuit?

a)

Test the circuit

b)

Leave it as it is

c)

Document the changes

d)

Inform your supervisor

51.

What happens when a SIERRA voice circuit fails to hear comms to the ship?

a)

The circuit automatically retries.

b)

The communication is logged as failed.

c)

An alert is sent to the operator.

d)

The system shuts down.

52.

What is the purpose of the DMR/USC-61C in amplifying RF signals?

a)

To increase the power of RF signals

b)

To decrease the power of RF signals

c)

To convert RF signals to digital signals

d)

To filter out noise from RF signals

53.

What should you do to set up a DMR?

a)

Read the manual

b)

Install the software

c)

Configure the settings

d)

Contact support

54.

What is the resource for setting up DMR configuration?

a)

User Manual

b)

Configuration Guide

c)

Installation Wizard

d)

Setup Assistant

55.

What is the purpose of the TDS 3000B Oscilloscope?

a)

To measure electrical signals

b)

To cook food

c)

To navigate a car

d)

To play music

56.

A Spectrum Analyzer is used to:

a)

Measure the magnitude of an input signal versus frequency

b)

Analyze the color spectrum of light

c)

Measure temperature variations

d)

Calculate the speed of sound

57.

What is the purpose of a Spectrum Analyzer?

a)

To measure the frequency spectrum of radio signals

b)

To amplify audio signals

c)

To convert digital signals to analog

d)

To store large amounts of data

58.

What are the common uses of a Spectrum Analyzer on SHF SATCOM signals?

a)

Measuring signal strength

b)

Identifying signal interference

c)

Analyzing frequency spectrum

d)

All of the above

59.

What system streamlines shipboard message traffic?

a)

Automated Message Handling System

b)

Shipboard Communication System

c)

Maritime Traffic Control System

d)

Naval Messaging Network

60.

Which NAVMACS II component has an ON/OFF Power Switch?

a)

Transceiver

b)

Antenna

c)

Power Supply

d)

Control Unit

61.

Do externally generated messages travel through NAVMACS II?

a)

Yes

b)

No

62.

What resource is used to set up the USC-61C/DMR?

a)

User Manual

b)

Installation Guide

c)

Technical Specifications

d)

Quick Start Guide

63.

What actions are required to set up the USC-61C/DMR?

a)

Connect the power supply and configure settings

b)

Install additional software

c)

Perform a factory reset

d)

Update the firmware

64.

What is the purpose of the TDS 3000B Oscilloscope?

a)

To measure electrical signals

b)

To cook food

c)

To play music

d)

To clean surfaces

65.

What is required for Spectrum Analyzer operations?

a)

Power supply

b)

Signal input

c)

Calibration

d)

All of the above

66.

How do you connect a Spectrum Analyzer to a device?

a)

Using a coaxial cable

b)

Using a USB cable

c)

Using an HDMI cable

d)

Using a Bluetooth connection

67.

NAVMACS II communicates via radio signals.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

How is NAVMACS II described?

a)

A communication system

b)

A navigation tool

c)

A weather forecasting device

d)

A data storage unit

69.

Where do you manually create and route messages in NAVMACS II?

a)

Message Center

b)

Communication Hub

c)

Routing Station

d)

Control Panel

70.

What is the main section of the NAVMACS II system hardware?

a)

Central Processing Unit

b)

Power Supply Unit

c)

Communication Interface

d)

User Interface Module

71.

What keeps power to the NAVMACS II COMM Terminal during a shutdown?

a)

Backup battery

b)

Main power supply

c)

Solar panel

d)

Generator

72.

What are the three most common logs used in NAVMACS II?

a)

Operational Log, Maintenance Log, and Communication Log

b)

Security Log, Error Log, and Access Log

c)

System Log, Event Log, and Audit Log

d)

Transaction Log, Debug Log, and Performance Log

73.

NAVMACS II OPINT logs are:

a)

Operational intelligence logs used in naval communications

b)

A type of navigation chart

c)

A software for weather forecasting

d)

A system for managing naval personnel records

74.

Can you reroute messages in the NAVMACS II MESSAGE log?

a)

Yes, you can reroute messages.

b)

No, you cannot reroute messages.

c)

Only administrators can reroute messages.

d)

Messages can be rerouted only during maintenance.

75.

Which NAVMACS II message traffic is received only in port?

a)

Operational messages

b)

Administrative messages

c)

Logistics messages

d)

Weather updates

76.

Which NAVMACS II circuits both transmit and receive?

a)

Circuit A

b)

Circuit B

c)

Circuit C

d)

Circuit D

77.

How do you verify that FSM messages are being received in NAVMACS II?

a)

By checking the message log

b)

By observing the system status lights

c)

By running a diagnostic test

d)

By contacting technical support

78.

QCMS (Quality Control Monitoring System) is used for:

a)

Monitoring quality control processes

b)

Managing financial transactions

c)

Scheduling employee shifts

d)

Tracking inventory levels

79.

What is the reference for BSR (Broadcast Screen Request)?

a)

RFC 1234

b)

RFC 5678

c)

RFC 9101

d)

RFC 1122

80.

What is a COMMSPOT Report used for?

a)

To track communication issues

b)

To generate sales reports

c)

To analyze market trends

d)

To manage employee performance

81.

When should you send a BSR?

a)

When you need to report a bug

b)

When you need to submit a budget request

c)

When you need to send a Business Status Report

d)

When you need to schedule a meeting

82.

What causes muscle spasms in an electrical context?

a)

Nerve damage

b)

Electrocution

c)

Dehydration

d)

Muscle fatigue

83.

What does HERO stand for?

a)

Health Emergency Response Organization

b)

High Efficiency Rescue Operations

c)

Humanitarian Emergency Relief Organization

d)

Hazardous Environment Response Operations

84.

What provides a shared environment to share information?

a)

A library

b)

A database

c)

A network

d)

A classroom

85.

What should you troubleshoot if there's no internet on the Bridge but the internet works in Radio?

a)

Check the Bridge's network configuration

b)

Inspect the Radio's signal strength

c)

Verify the internet service provider's status

d)

Examine the computer's firewall settings

86.

How are long-range communications described?

a)

As short-range interactions

b)

As medium-range communications

c)

As long-range interactions

d)

As immediate communications

87.

What designator uses seven characters?

a)

ICAO airport code

b)

IATA airport code

c)

ZIP code

d)

ISBN number

88.

What document provides accurate and procedural information for tactical communications?

a)

Field Manual

b)

Technical Manual

c)

Standard Operating Procedure

d)

Communication Handbook

89.

What does the FREQPLAN contain?

a)

Frequency allocations

b)

Network configurations

c)

User data

d)

Security protocols

90.

CIB 7E refers to:

a)

A type of financial instrument

b)

A coding standard

c)

A regulatory body

d)

A software version

91.

What is the calibration step for PYQ-10/SKL?

a)

Step 1: Initialize the device

b)

Step 2: Adjust the settings

c)

Step 3: Perform a test run

d)

Step 4: Finalize the calibration