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Thermodynamics 1

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function only of ___________.

a)

entropy

b)

internal energy

c)

temperature

d)

pressure

2.

Which of the following is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle?

a)

Brayton

b)

Otto

c)

Carnot

d)

Diesel

3.

What is the first law of thermodynamics?

a)

internal energy is due to molecular motions

b)

entropy of the universe is increased by irreversible processes

c)

energy can neither be crated nor destroyed

d)

heat energy cannot be completely transformed into work

4.

An ideal gas is compressed isothermally, what is the enthalpy change?

a)

always negative

b)

always positive

c)

zero

d)

undefined

5.

Name the process that has no heat transfer.

a)

isothermal

b)

isobaric

c)

Polytropic

d)

adiabatic

6.

An ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder so well insulated that there is essentially no heat transfer. The temperature of the gas

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

remain constant

d)

is zero

7.

What is the SI unit of pressure?

a)

kg/cm²

b)

dynes/cm²

c)

Pascal

d)

Psi

8.

The equation Cp = Cv + R applies to which of the following?

a)

enthalpy

b)

ideal gas

c)

two phase state

d)

all pure substances

9.

In the flow process, neglecting kinetic and potential energies, the integral of Vdp represents what?

a)

heat transfer

b)

flow energy

c)

enthalpy change

d)

shaft work

10.

Mechanical energy of pressure transformed into energy of heat.

a)

kinetic energy

b)

enthalpy

c)

heat exchanger

d)

heat of compression

11.

The theory of changing heat into mechanical work.

a)

thermodynamics

b)

kinematics

c)

inertia

d)

kinetics

12.

Average pressure on a surface when a changing pressure condition exist.

a)

back pressure

b)

partial pressure

c)

pressure drop

d)

mean effective pressure

13.

Which of the following cycles consists two isothermal and two constant volume processes?

a)

diesel cycle

b)

Ericson cycle

c)

Stirling cycle

d)

Otto cycle

14.

A control volume refers to what?

a)

a fixed region in space

b)

a reversible process

c)

an isolated system

d)

a specified mass

15.

In the polytropic process, PV^n = constant, if the value of n is infinitely large, the process is

a)

isobaric

b)

isometric

c)

isothermal

d)

polytropic

16.

If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased beyond the saturation pressure, then the working medium must be:

a)

compressed liquid

b)

sub cooled liquid

c)

saturated vapour

d)

saturated liquid

17.

Is one whose temperature is below the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure.

a)

super heated vapor

b)

wet vapor

c)

sub cooled liquid

d)

saturated liquid

18.

Number of molecules in a mole of any substance is a constant called __________.

a)

Rankine constant

b)

Avogadro’s number

c)

Otto cycle

d)

Thompson constant

19.

If the pressure of a gas is constant the volume is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.

a)

Boyle’s law

b)

Joule’s law

c)

Charle’s law

d)

Kelvin’s law

20.

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom or the number of electrons in the orbit of an atom.

a)

atomic volume

b)

atomic number

c)

atomic weight

d)

atomic mass

21.

In a P-T diagram of a pure substance, the curve separating the solid phase from the liquid phase is:

a)

vaporization curve

b)

fusion curve

c)

boiling point

d)

sublimation point

22.

A water temperature of 18 °F in the water cooled condenser is equivalent in °C to ________.

a)

7.78

b)

10

c)

263.56

d)

-9.44

23.

The latent heat of vaporization in joules per kg is equal to _________.

a)

5.4x10²

b)

4.13x10³

c)

22.6x10⁵

d)

3.35x10⁵

24.

Form of energy associated with the kinetic energy of the random motion of large number of molecules.

a)

internal energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

heat of fusion

d)

heat

25.

If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased beyond the saturation pressure, then the working medium must be:

a)

saturated vapor

b)

compressed liquid

c)

saturated liquid

d)

sub cooled liquid

26.

Is the condition of pressure and temperature at which a liquid and its vapor are indistinguishable.

a)

critical point

b)

dew point

c)

absolute humidity

d)

relative humidity

27.

When a substance in gaseous state is below the critical temperature, it is called _____________.

a)

vapor

b)

cloud

c)

moisture

d)

steam

28.

Super heated vapour behaves

a)

just as gas

b)

just as steam

c)

just as ordinary vapor

d)

approximately as gas

29.

Which of the following provides the basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature?

a)

zeroth law of thermodynamics

b)

first law of thermodynamics

c)

second law of thermodynamics

d)

third law of thermodynamics

30.

Which of the following is commonly used as liquid absorbent?

a)

silica gel

b)

activated alumina

c)

ethylene glycol

d)

none of these

31.

Mechanism designed to lower the temperature of air passing through it.

a)

air cooler

b)

air defense

c)

air spill ove

d)

air cycle

32.

A device for measuring the velocity of wind.

a)

aneroid barometer

b)

anemometer

c)

anemoscope

d)

anemograph

33.

Heat normally flowing from a high temperature body to a low temperature body where in it is impossible to convert heat with out other effects.

a)

first law of thermodynamics

b)

second law of thermodynamics

c)

third law of thermodynamics

d)

zeroth law of thermodynamics

34.

The temperature at which its vapour pressure is equal to the pressure exerted on the liquid.

a)

absolute humidity

b)

calorimeter

c)

boiling point

d)

thermal point

35.

A nozzle is used to

a)

increase velocity and decrease pressure

b)

decrease velocity as well as pressure

c)

increase velocity as well as pressure

d)

decrease velocity and increase pressure

36.

The sum of energies of all the molecules in a system where energies appear in several complex form.

a)

kinetic energy

b)

potential energy

c)

internal energy

d)

frictional energy

37.

The total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any section in a pipeline is a function of

a)

pressure and velocity

b)

pressure, density and velocity

c)

pressure, density, velocity and viscosity

d)

flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy

38.

The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of some standard substance.

a)

relative density

b)

specific gravity

c)

specific density

d)

relative gravity

39.

Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure corresponding to its temperature.

a)

compressed liquid

b)

saturated liquid

c)

saturated vapor

d)

super heated vapor

40.

The changing of solid directly to vapour without passing through the liquid state is called.

a)

evaporation

b)

vaporation

c)

sublimation

d)

condensation

41.

Weight per unit volume is termed as __________.

a)

specific gravity

b)

density

c)

weight density

d)

specific volume

42.

What is the SI unit of force?

a)

pound

b)

Newton

c)

Kilogram

d)

Dyne

43.

The volume of fluid passing a cross-section of steam in unit time.

a)

steady flow

b)

uniform flow

c)

discharge

d)

Dyne

44.

What equation applies in the first law of thermodynamics for an ideal gas in a reversible open steady-state system?

a)

Q – W = U2 - U1

b)

Q + VdP = H2 - H1

c)

Q – VdP = U2 - U1

d)

Q – PdV = H2 - H1

45.

A pressure of 1 millibar is equivalent to

a)

1000 dynes/cm²

b)

1000 cm of Hg

c)

1000 psi

d)

1000 kg/cm²

46.

When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is undergoing:

4 lines
47.

When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is undergoing:

a)

isobaric process

b)

quasi-static process

c)

isometric process

d)

cyclic process

48.

What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the center about which it is rotating?

a)

centrifugal force

b)

centrifugal in motion

c)

centrifugal in advance

d)

centripetal force

49.

What is the process that has no heat transfer?

a)

reversible isometric

b)

isothermal

c)

polytropic

d)

adiabatic

50.

Which of the engine is used for fighter bombers?

a)

turbojet

b)

pulse jet

c)

rockets

d)

ramjet

51.

Exhaust gases from an engine posses:

a)

solar energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

chemical energy

d)

stored energy

52.

At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is

a)

temperature dependent

b)

zero

c)

minimum

d)

maximum

53.

What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the center about which it is rotating?

a)

centrifugal force

b)

centrifugal in motion

c)

centrifugal advance

d)

centripetal force

54.

When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is undergoing

a)

isobaric process

b)

quasi – static process

c)

isometric process

d)

cyclic process

55.

A pressure of 1 millibar is equivalent to

a)

1000 dynes/cm²

b)

1000 cm of Hg

c)

1000 psi

d)

1000 kg/cm²

56.

Work done per unit charge when charged is moved from one point to another.

a)

equipotential surface

b)

potential at a point

c)

electro static point

d)

potential difference

57.

How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

58.

Which of the following relations defines enthalpy?

a)

h = u + p/T

b)

h = u +pV

c)

h = u + p/V

d)

h = pV + T

59.

Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?

a)

internal energy is negative

b)

entropy is non - zero

c)

specific volume is zero

d)

vapour pressure is zero

60.

On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted

a)

p - V

b)

p - T

c)

h - s

d)

h - u

61.

The compressibility factor z, is used for predicting the behaviour of non – ideal gasses. How is the compressibility factor defined relative to an ideal gas? (subscript c refers to critical value)

a)

z = P/푃

b)

z = PV/RT

c)

z = T/푇

d)

z = (T/푇)(푃/푐)

62.

How is the quality x of a liquid – vapour mixture defined?

a)

the fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapor

b)

the fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid

c)

the fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor

d)

the fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid

63.

What is the expression for heat of vaporization?

a)

ℎ

b)

ℎ

c)

ℎ - ℎ

d)

ℎ - ℎ

64.

What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?

a)

zero

b)

positive

c)

negative

d)

indeterminate

65.

What is the equation for the done by a constant temperature system?

a)

W = mRT ln (푉 - 푉)

b)

W = mRT (푇 −푇) ln (푉/ 푉)

c)

W = MRT ln (푉/푉)

d)

W = RT ln (푉/푉)

66.

What is the true about the polytropic exponent n for a perfect gas undergoing an isobaric process?

a)

n > 0

b)

n < 0

c)

n = ∞

d)

n = 0

67.

How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?

a)

adiabatic: heat transfer = 0, isentropic: heat transfer = 0

b)

adiabatic: heat transfer = 0, isentropic: heat transfer = 0

c)

adiabatic: reversible, isentropic: not reversible

d)

both: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible

68.

During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?

a)

it is always zero

b)

it is always less than zero

c)

it is always greater than zero

d)

it is temperature - dependent

69.

For an irreversible process, what is true about the change in entropy of the system and surroundings?

a)

ds = 푑푞/푑푡

b)

ds = 0

c)

ds > 0

d)

ds < 0

70.

For which type of process does the equation dQ = Tds hold?

a)

irreversible

b)

reversible

c)

isobaric

d)

isothermal

71.

Which of the following is true for any process?

a)

∆S (surrounding) + ∆ (system) > 0

b)

∆S (surrounding) + ∆ (system) < 0

c)

∆S (surrounding) + ∆ (system) ≤ 0

d)

∆S (surrounding) + ∆ (system) ≥ 0

72.

Which of the following thermodynamic cycle is the most efficient?

a)

Brayton

b)

Rankine

c)

Carnot

d)

Otto

73.

The ideal reversible Carnot cycle involves four basic processes. What type of processes are they?

a)

all isothermal

b)

all adiabatic

c)

all isentropic

d)

two isothermal and two isentropic

74.

What is the temperature difference of the cycle if the entropy difference is ∆S, and the work done is W?

a)

W - ∆S

b)

W / ∆S

c)

∆S / W

d)

∆S - W

75.

Which of the following is not an advantage of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an open Rankine cycle?

a)

lower equipment cost

b)

increased efficiency

c)

increased turbine life

d)

increased boiler life

76.

Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycle is not true?

a)

use of a condensable vapour in the cycle increases the efficiency of the cycle

b)

the temperatures at which energy is transferred to and from the working liquid are less separated than in a Carnot cycle,

c)

super heating increases the efficiency of a Rankine cycle

d)

in practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine materials to corrosion is not a key limitation on the operating efficiency.

77.

Which one of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)

a)

0 K and 1atm pressure

b)

0 F and zero pressure

c)

32 F and zero pressure

d)

0 °C and 1atm pressure

78.

A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs?

a)

it turns red

b)

it loses electrons

c)

it gives off heat

d)

it absorbs energy

79.

Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?

a)

Pa

b)

푘푔/푚−푠

c)

bars

d)

푘푔/푚²

80.

Which of the following is the definition of Joule?

a)

Newton meter

b)

푘푔 푚/푠²

c)

unit of power

d)

rate of change of energy

81.

Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?

a)

the principle of conservation of mass

b)

the principle of conservation of energy

c)

the continuity equation

d)

Fourier’s law

82.

Equation of state for a single component can be any of the following except:

a)

the ideal gas law

b)

any relationship interrelating 3 or more state functions

c)

relationship mathematically interrelating thermodynamic properties of the material

d)

a mathematical expression defining a path between states

83.

The state of a thermodynamic system is always defined by its:

a)

absolute temperature

b)

process

c)

properties

d)

temperature and pressure

84.

In any non quasi – static thermodynamic process, the overall entropy of an isolated system will

a)

increase and then decrease

b)

decrease and then increase

c)

increase only

d)

decrease only

85.

Entropy is the measure of :

a)

the internal energy of a gas

b)

the heat capacity of a substance

c)

randomness or disorder

d)

the change of enthalpy

86.

Which of the following statements about entropy is false?

a)

entropy of mixture is greater than that of its components under the same condition

b)

an irreversible process increases entropy of the universe

c)

net entropy change in any closed cycle is zero

d)

entropy of a crystal at 0 °F is zero

87.

Work or energy can be a function of all of the following except :

a)

force and distance

b)

power and time

c)

force and time

d)

temperature and entropy

88.

Energy changes are represented by all except which one of the following:

a)

m퐶dt

b)

- ∫VdP

c)

Tds - PdV

d)

푑푄/푇

89.

A substance whose state is defined by variable intensive thermodynamic properties.

a)

pure substance

b)

simple substance

c)

vapor

d)

water

90.

A system in which there is no exchange of matter with the surrounding or mass does not cross its boundaries.

a)

open system

b)

closed system

c)

isolated system

d)

non flow system

91.

A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding or neither mass nor energy cross its boundaries.

a)

open system

b)

closed system

c)

isolated system

d)

non flow system

92.

A system in which there is a flow of mass across its boundaries.

a)

open system

b)

closed system

c)

isolated system

d)

non flow system

93.

The properties that are dependent upon the mass of the system and are total values such as total volume and total internal energy.

a)

intensive properties

b)

extensive properties

c)

specific properties

d)

state properties

94.

The properties that are independent of the mass of the system such as temperature, pressure, density and voltage.

a)

intensive properties

b)

extensive properties

c)

specific properties

d)

state properties

95.

The properties for a unit mass and are intensive by definition such as specific volume.

a)

intensive properties

b)

extensive properties

c)

specific properties

d)

thermodynamic properties

96.

The condition as identified through the properties of the substance, generally defined by particular values of any two independent properties.

a)

state

b)

point

c)

process

d)

flow

97.

The only base unit with a prefix kilo is

a)

kilogram

b)

kilo meter

c)

kilo Joule

d)

kilo Pascal

98.

The force gravity on a body.

a)

weight

b)

specific gravity

c)

attraction

d)

mass

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