WorksheetsOOAD Midterm Review - 24.25
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 35mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following best describes OOP?
a)
A programming style that focuses on functions
b)
A paradigm focused on object interactions
c)
A low-level coding approach
d)
A sequential style of programming
2.
What is encapsulation in OOP?
a)
Inheriting properties
b)
Binding data and methods
c)
Extending a class
d)
Reusing code
3.
What does inheritance in OOP allow for?
a)
Defining multiple classes
b)
Reusing properties and behaviors from a parent class
c)
Combining unrelated classes
d)
Using private data across classes
4.
Which of the following is true about polymorphism?
a)
Allows objects to change class at runtime
b)
Permits the same interface for different data types
c)
Prevents code duplication
d)
Ensures encapsulation
5.
What is an object in OOP?
a)
A blueprint of a class
b)
A specific instance of a class
c)
A function with specific attributes
d)
A stand-alone code snippet
6.
Which OOP concept involves hiding internal details of an object?
a)
Inheritance
b)
Abstraction
c)
Encapsulation
d)
Polymorphism
7.
What does the term "class" refer to in OOP?
a)
A specific instance of an object
b)
The attributes of an object
c)
A blueprint for creating objects
d)
The function of an object
8.
How does abstraction help in OOP?
a)
By focusing on high-level design
b)
By making all data public
c)
By providing extensive implementation details
d)
By eliminating encapsulation
9.
In which programming style do you specify how a task is accomplished by detailing a sequence of commands and instructions?
a)
Functional Programming
b)
Declarative Programming
c)
Imperative Programming
d)
Object-Oriented Programming
10.
Which programming style focuses on describing what the outcome should be without specifying the steps to achieve it?
a)
Procedural Programming
b)
Declarative Programming
c)
Imperative Programming
d)
Event-Driven Programming
11.
What is the primary goal of Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC)?
a)
Ensuring software quality
b)
Reducing software cost
c)
Increasing project duration
d)
Limiting software usability
12.
Which model is considered ad-hoc in SDLC?
a)
Spiral Model
b)
Agile Model
c)
Code-and-Fix Model
d)
Waterfall Model
13.
How many phases in SDLC?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
14.
During which SDLC phase is the system architecture designed?
a)
Testing
b)
Design
c)
Maintenance
d)
Development
15.
In the Waterfall model, which phase follows the design phase?
a)
Testing
b)
Development
c)
Deployment
d)
Maintenance
16.
What are characteristics of Agile in SDLC?
a)
Sequential
b)
Iterative
c)
Expensive
d)
Incremental
17.
Which model is suitable for ordered and predictable projects
a)
Waterfall
b)
Agile
c)
Code-and-Fix Model
d)
Spiral Model
18.
What are goals of Agile Model
a)
Adaptive
b)
Responsive
c)
Flexible
d)
Faster
19.
Which phase of SDLC involves coding?
a)
Planning
b)
Analysis
c)
Implementation
d)
Design
20.
Why is the Scrum model named after rugby?
a)
Reflects fast development
b)
Teamwork in small tasks
c)
Named by a rugby player
d)
Used for large teams
21.
Which SDLC model is best for projects with fixed requirements?
a)
Spiral
b)
Agile
c)
Waterfall
d)
Prototype
22.
What does the Agile Manifesto emphasize?
a)
Control
b)
Predictability
c)
Adaptability
d)
Cost reduction
23.
What does Product Owner do?
a)
Manages the Product Backlog
b)
Manage itself, create "Done" increments
c)
Manage the Scrum Process
24.
What does Scrum Master do?
a)
Manages the Product Backlog
b)
Manage itself, create "Done" increments
c)
Manage the Scrum Process
25.
What does Development Team do?
a)
Manages the Product Backlog
b)
Manage itself, create "Done" increments
c)
Manage the Scrum Process
26.
Which SDLC model uses sprints?
a)
Waterfall
b)
Scrum
c)
V-Model
d)
Spiral
27.
In SDLC, the primary focus of the testing phase is?
a)
Validating functionality
b)
Implementing requirements
c)
Designing systems
d)
Delivering product
28.
What does a use case diagram primarily represent?
a)
Data structures of a system
b)
Functional requirements of a system
c)
Relationships among objects
d)
Detailed object attributes
29.
Which component in a use case diagram represents the external entities interacting with the system?
a)
Class
b)
Actor
c)
Activity
d)
Attribute
30.
What symbol is typically used to represent a use case in an use case diagram?
a)
Oval
b)
Rectangle
c)
Diamond
d)
Triangle
31.
In a use case diagram, an "include" relationship is used when:
a)
A use case is optional and may not always occur.
b)
A use case has behavior that is reusable and should be included in multiple other use cases.
c)
One use case extends the behavior of another in special conditions.
d)
There is no interaction or dependency between two use cases.
32.
Which of the following best describes an "extend" relationship?
a)
It adds optional behavior to a base use case
b)
It is used to generalize actors
c)
It is identical to an "include" relationship
d)
It combines two or more use cases
33.
Who or what can be an actor in a use case diagram?
a)
Only human users
b)
Any external entity interacting with the system
c)
Only other systems
d)
Only individuals within the system
34.
Which of the following is true about actors in a use case?
a)
They must always be human users
b)
They represent only internal components
c)
They have specific roles or responsibilities
d)
They do not interact with use cases
35.
What is a "subject" in use case modeling?
a)
The user of the system
b)
A classification for actors
c)
A component within the system boundary
d)
A central component to which use cases apply
36.
In a use case diagram, a "generalization" relationship is used when:
a)
One use case needs to conditionally invoke another use case.
b)
Multiple use cases share common behavior but have unique specialized behaviors.
c)
A use case is required by multiple other use cases to avoid redundancy.
d)
Two use cases need to execute in parallel.
37.
What does the system boundary in a use case diagram indicate?
a)
The separation of actors and use cases
b)
The scope of the system
c)
Actor responsibilities
d)
External system components
38.
What is the primary purpose of an activity diagram in UML?
a)
Define system requirements
b)
Describe the structure of the system
c)
Show the workflow of a process
d)
Display object interactions
39.
What symbol represents the start of an activity diagram?
a)
Action Node
b)
Initial Node
c)
Final Node
d)
Decision Point
40.
Which node signifies the end of an activity flow in an activity diagram?
a)
Initial Node
b)
Final Node
c)
Action Node
d)
Swimlane
41.
An activity diagram should always have only one initial node and one final node.
a)
True
b)
False
42.
Which component in an activity diagram indicates a decision point?
a)
Guard
b)
Swimlane
c)
Synchronization Bar
d)
Branch Node
43.
What is the purpose of a swimlane in an activity diagram?
a)
To separate concurrent actions
b)
To group activities by actor
c)
To indicate conditional branches
d)
To merge multiple workflows
44.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of activity diagrams?
a)
Showing parallel behavior
b)
Identifying the structure of a system
c)
Clarifying decision points
d)
Describing a process workflow
45.
What does a synchronization bar represent in an activity diagram?
a)
The beginning of an activity
b)
The merging of workflows
c)
The coordination of parallel activities
d)
A decision node
46.
In an activity diagram, where is a guard expression typically placed?
a)
Inside a decision node
b)
On activity edges
c)
Within the swimlane
d)
At the start node
47.
How do the actions labeled "Action 1" (1 and 2) in the diagram interact with the synchronization bar?
a)
Both actions must complete before the process can proceed along the path labeled "3."
b)
Either one of the actions can complete to proceed along the path labeled "3."
c)
The actions proceed independently without requiring synchronization.
d)
The synchronization bar represents a decision point where only one action will be executed.
48.
What condition must be met for "Action 3" to start?
a)
Both "Action 1" tasks (1 and 2) must complete before "Action 3" can begin.
b)
Only one of the "Action 1" tasks (1 or 2) needs to complete.
c)
"Action 3" will run independently of "Action 1" tasks.
d)
"Action 3" can start before the completion of either "Action 1" tasks.
49.
What differentiates an activity diagram from a flowchart?
a)
It only shows decision points
b)
It allows for parallel behaviors
c)
It doesn’t include swimlanes
d)
It doesn’t allow conditional branches
50.
When should activity diagrams be avoided?
a)
When representing object collaborations
b)
When modeling high-level workflows
c)
For systems with multiple processes
d)
When identifying actions within use cases
51.
What does SOA stand for?
a)
Service Offering Architecture
b)
System Oriented Architecture
c)
Service Oriented Architecture
d)
Structured Object Application
52.
What is a primary benefit of Service Oriented Architecture (SOA)?
a)
Reduces hardware cost
b)
Improves scalability
c)
Reduces user error
d)
Increases latency
53.
In SOA, what does a Service Consumer do?
a)
Provides the service
b)
Hosts the service
c)
Uses the service
d)
Manages the service
54.
Which SOA component provides a central point where available services are listed along with their access protocols, location, and provider details?
a)
Service Provider
b)
Service Directory
c)
Service Executor
d)
Service Lookup
55.
Which of the following is a challenge of SOA?
a)
Low availability
b)
Technical complexity
c)
Simple implementation
d)
Redundant services
56.
Which architecture allows for loosely coupled services?
a)
SOA
b)
Monolithic
c)
Traditional
d)
Fixed
57.
What is an example of SOA in action?
a)
Single network login
b)
Direct software calls
c)
Local application service
d)
Peer-to-peer file sharing
58.
In SOA, who manages the business logic and processes requests?
a)
Service Provider
b)
Service Consumer
c)
Service Directory
d)
Service Manager
59.
What is a key characteristic of services in SOA?
a)
Tightly coupled
b)
Hardware-dependent
c)
Platform-independent
d)
Incompatible across networks
60.
Which of these is a benefit of SOA?
a)
Slower integration
b)
Scalability
c)
Limited reusability
d)
High setup cost
61.
What is the main purpose of Aspect-Oriented Programming?
a)
To replace Object-Oriented Programming
b)
To handle cross-cutting concerns
c)
To improve UI design
d)
To simplify algorithms
62.
Which of the following is an example of a cross-cutting concern?
a)
Data storage
b)
Logging
c)
UI rendering
d)
Networking
63.
In AOP, what is an "aspect"?
a)
A data type
b)
A function
c)
A modular unit handling a cross-cutting concern
d)
A UI element
64.
What is "advice" in AOP?
a)
Code that runs at a specified point in program execution
b)
An interface
c)
A design pattern
d)
A subclass
65.
Which advice type in AOP runs after a method execution?
a)
Before
b)
After
c)
Around
d)
During
66.
What does "join point" refer to in AOP?
a)
A specific location in code where an aspect can be applied
b)
A class property
c)
A subclass instance
d)
A local variable
67.
What is the role of a "pointcut" in AOP?
a)
It defines a method
b)
It identifies join points where advice should apply
c)
It stores data in the system
d)
It connects classes
68.
Which of the following languages natively supports AOP?
a)
Python
b)
JavaScript
c)
AspectJ
d)
Swift
69.
"Around advice" in AOP allows you to:
a)
Execute code only before a method
b)
Skip execution of certain methods
c)
Surround method execution with custom code
d)
Execute code only after a method
70.
Which of the following is a benefit of using AOP?
a)
Reduces need for encapsulation
b)
Handles low-level code errors
c)
Manages cross-cutting concerns separately from main logic
d)
Increases code redundancy
100 %
