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Maya chemistry Revision

Total questions: 219

Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
At higher temperatures
a)
particles in an object have less energy
b)
particles in an object move faster
c)
a gas contracts
2.
A gas
a)
has a definite shape but no definite volume
b)
has a definite volume but no definite shape
c)
has fast-moving particles
3.
Freezing
a)
Solid to gas
b)
Liquid to solid
c)
Gas to solid
d)
Liquid to gas
4.
Boiling
a)
liquid to gas
b)
gas to solid
c)
gas to liquid
d)
solid to liquid
5.
Which state of matter has a definite shape?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
6.
What is happening when my ice cream changes from a solid to a liquid?
a)
freezing
b)
melting
c)
burning
d)
evaporation
7.
Define a liquid.
a)
Indefinite shape, indefinite volume
b)
Definite shape, definite volume
c)
Found in stars
d)
Definite volume, indefinite shape
8.
The state of matter that has no definite size or shape is
a)
Solid
b)
Liquid
c)
Gas
9.
Particles (molecules) in a ______________________ have more energy than the other states of matter.
a)
gas
b)
solid
c)
liquid
10.
Particles of a liquid
a)
are tightly packed together and stay in a fixed position.
b)
have no viscosity.
c)
decrease in volume with increasing temperature.
d)
are free to move around one another but still touch.
11.
What term describes a solid changing to a gas?
a)
Deposition
b)
Sublimation
c)
Evaporation
d)
Freezing
12.
What is condensation?
a)
gas to solid
b)
gas to liquid
c)
liquid to solid 
d)
solid to liquid 
13.
The speed of the molecules determines the _____.
a)
volume
b)
density
c)
pressure
d)
temperature
14.
Thermal energy is...
a)
heat energy.
b)
the energy of motion
c)
energy of nuclear processes.
d)
an indication of physical change.
15.

When a mixture of rock pieces, salt, and water is filtered, what is the residue?

a)

Rock Pieces

b)

Salt

c)

Water

d)

Salt and Water

16.

When a mixture of rock pieces, salt, and water is filtered, what is the filtrate?

a)

Rock Pieces

b)

Salt

c)

Water

d)

Salt and Water

17.

Out of salt and water, what is the solute?

a)

Salt

b)

Water

18.

Out of salt and water, what is the solvent?

a)

Salt

b)

Water

19.

Solvent + Solute -> (a)  

20.

What is the name of the process used to separate an insoluble substance from an a solution?

a)

Filtration

b)

Crystallisation

c)

Sieving

21.

1.What is the name of the process to separate a soluble substance from a solution?

a)

Filtration

b)

Crystallisation

c)

Sieving

22.

What do we call the change of state from a liquid to a gas?

(a)  

23.

Particles in a regular arrangement are which state?

(a)  

24.

Something that can be compressed is in which state?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

25.

Which one of the following would you use to separate sand from iron filings?

a)

a bar magnet

b)

filter paper

c)

chromatography paper

d)

alum

26.

Which tools are best for separating a mixtures of sand, iron filings, and water?

a)

Hot plate and filter

b)

Tweezers and filter

c)

Filter and magnet

d)

Magnet and hot plate

27.

Which substances, when mixed together, maintain their original physical properties?

a)

gravel and water

b)

wood chips, water and sand

c)

sand and water

d)

all of the above

28.

Which mixture can be separated using a filter?

a)

sand and iron filings

b)

saltwater

c)

sand and water

d)

none of the above

29.

True or False: Each part of a mixture keeps its properties when mixed.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

True or False: Mixtures can be separated by physical processes.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Lauren wants to separate salt from water. What separation technique should she use?

a)

Distillation

b)

Filtration

c)

Chromatography

32.

Making a mixture results in ___________________ only.

a)

chemical reactions

b)

separate parts

c)

physical changes

d)

two subtances

33.

Salad is an example of a

a)

homogeneous mixture

b)

heterogeneous mixture

34.

Coloured water is an example of a

a)

homogeneous mixture

b)

heterogeneous mixture

35.

Distillation uses the physical property of ​ (a)  

Filtration uses the physical property of ​ (b)  

Metal detecting uses the property of ​ (c)  

Separation funnel uses the property of ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words

boiling point.

particle size.

magnetism.

density.

mass.

melting point.

freezing point.

36.

Match the mixtures with the best options for separation.

Categorize the following

Sand & Water

Salt Water

Coins in Sand

Oil & Water

Filtration
Distilation
Metal Detecting
Separation Funnel
37.

During the California Gold Rush settlers were searching for gold in the rivers and soil. What separating technique would be best for them to use?

a)

Chromatagraphy

b)

Filtration

c)

Separation Funnel

d)

Distillation

e)

Metal Detecting

38.
What subatomic particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons only
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Neutrons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Electrons 
39.
Which subatomic particles contribute the most to the mass of an atom?
a)
Protons, Neutrons, Electrons
b)
Protons only
c)
Protons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Neutrons
40.
An atom has 10 protons, 15 neutrons and 10 electrons what is its mass number.
a)
20
b)
10
c)
5
d)
25
41.
An element with a mass number of 11 and an atomic number of 5 has how many neutrons?
a)
11
b)
5
c)
6
d)
16
42.
The particles of the atom you can find by knowing the atomic number.
a)
neutrons
b)
protons and electrons
c)
protons and neutrons
d)
atomic mass
43.
What is the atomic mass of the atom pictured? 
a)
9
b)
10
c)
18
d)
19
44.
What is the atomic number of the atom pictured? 
a)
9
b)
10
c)
18
d)
19
45.
What do the following properties describe? : shiny, ductile, good conductor, high melting point
a)
metal
b)
nonmetal
c)
metalloid
46.
Elements in the periodic table are arranged in order by their ...
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass (mass number)
c)
metal, nonmetal, or metalloid properties
47.
This particle determines what element you have - the elements identity.
a)
electron
b)
proton
c)
neutron
d)
valence shell
48.
What is the electron configuration of sodium?
a)
2.8
b)
2.8.2
c)
2.8.1
d)
11
49.
Which element has an electron configuration of 2.5?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Phosphorus
d)
Carbon
50.
Which element has an electron configuration of 2.8.8?
a)
Lead
b)
Flourine
c)
Neon
d)
Argon
51.

Which element has the electron configuration of 2.7?

a)

Krypton

b)

Iodine

c)

Fluorine

d)

Barium

52.

Which alkali metal is most reactive out of the following

a)

rubidium

b)

potassium

c)

sodium

d)

lithium

53.

How many electrons do the alkali metals have in their outer shell?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

8

d)

7

54.

What happens to the reactivity of the alkali metals as you move down the group?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

55.

Which gas is released when the alkali metals react with water?

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

hydroxide

d)

carbon dioxide

56.

What happens to the shielding affect as you go down the group?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

57.

Which of the following is TRUE about an isotope?

a)

same number of protons and neutrons

b)

same number of protons but different number of neutrons

c)

same atomic mass but different atomic number

d)

neutron and electron numbers are the same

58.

The vertical (up and down) columns in the Periodic Table are called

a)

groups

b)

towers

c)

periods

d)

atomic numbers

59.
The Modern Periodic Table of Elements is arranged by
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
valence electrons
d)
number of isotopes
60.
Which group of the periodic table is composed of inert (not reactive)  gases?
a)
alkali metals
b)
alkaline earth metals
c)
halogens
d)
noble gases
61.
Which is an alkali metal?
a)
Magnesium
b)
Iron
c)
Sodium
d)
Europium
62.
Which is a halogen?
a)
Helium
b)
Chlorine
c)
Oxygen
d)
Neptune
63.
Elements in a ..................have similar chemical properties.  
a)
period
b)
group
c)
row
64.

The letter, C, is a ... of carbon.

a)

Name

b)

Nickname

c)

Chemical Symbol

d)

Pseudonym

65.

Which of the following are physical properties of metal?

a)

Luster

b)

Conductivity

c)

Malleability

d)

Ductility

66.

True or False: The reactivity of metals tends to decrease as you move from left to right across the periodic table.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Name this group: These metals are the most reactive.

a)
b)
c)
d)
68.

Name this group: These metals are the second most reactive.

a)
b)
c)
d)
69.

Name this group: These metals are the second most reactive.

a)
b)
c)
d)
70.

Name this group: These metals contain familiar metals such as gold, iron, and copper.

a)
b)
c)
d)
71.

Name this group: These metals, located near the nonmetals, are never found uncombined in nature.

a)
b)
c)
d)
72.

Find these groups: Locate Lanthanides and Actinides.

a)
b)
c)
d)
73.

Which of the following could be properties of nonmetals?

a)

Poor electrical conductivity

b)

Poor thermal conductivity

c)

Dullness

d)

Brittleness

74.

I am a metal


I am in group 2


I am in period 6


I am…

a)

Mo

b)

Re

c)

S

d)

Ba

75.

I am a nonmetal


I am in period 2


I am in group 16/6A

a)

Ba

b)

Si

c)

Ba

d)

O

76.

Find an element with similar chemical properties to Barium (Ba).

a)

Ca an Ra, because they are in the same group and have similar chemical properties.

b)

Cs and La, b/c they are in the same period number.

c)

Ca and Y, b/c they are 90 degree angle and have similiar properties.

77.

Look at the diagram. How many covalent bonds does each carbon atom form in graphite?

(a)  

78.

Look at the diagram. How many covalent bonds does each carbon atom form in diamond?

(a)  

79.

Tick the properties of diamond

a)

Very hard

b)

Slippery

c)

Conducts electricity

d)

Soft

e)

Does not conduct electricity

80.

Tick the properties of graphite

a)

Very hard

b)

Slippery

c)

Conducts electricity

d)

Soft

e)

Does not conduct electricity

81.

What type of bonding involves metals ONLY?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

82.

What type of bonding involves non-metals ONLY?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

83.

What type of bonding involves metals and non-metals?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

84.

What type of bonding would you expect to see in SODIUM CHLORIDE?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

85.

What type of bonding would you expect to see in CARBON DIOXIDE?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

86.

Which statement correctly explains why metals conduct electricity?

a)

Metals contain delocalised electrons which can move throughout the structure

b)

Metals contain ions which are free to move throughout the structure

c)

Metals contain an electrical current

d)

Metals are magnetic

87.

Which statement correctly explains why ionic compounds conduct electricity as a LIQUID?

a)

Ionic compounds contain delocalised electrons which can move throughout the structure

b)

Ions are free to move

c)

Ions are fixed in position

d)

Ionic compounds contain an electrical current

88.

Which statement correctly explains why ionic compounds DO NOT conduct electricity as a SOLID?

a)

Ionic compounds contain delocalised electrons which can move throughout the structure

b)

Ions are free to move

c)

Ions are fixed in position

d)

Ionic compounds are not magnetic

89.

How many bonding pairs are present in this covalent molecule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

90.

How are covalent bonds formed?

a)

Pairs of electrons are shared

b)

Electrons are transferred from one atom to another

c)

Strong attraction between negative delocalised electrons and positive ions

91.

How are ionic bonds formed?

a)

Pairs of electrons are shared

b)

Electrons are transferred from one atom to another

c)

Strong attraction between negative delocalised electrons and positive ions

92.

Which statement correctly explains why metals are easily bent and shaped?

a)

The metal ions can be squashed

b)

The metal ions can move

c)

The metal ions are in layers which can slide over each other

d)

The metal ions are all the same size

93.

Which statement correctly explains why alloys are harder to shape than pure metals?

a)

The metal ions can be squashed

b)

The metal ions cannot move

c)

The metal ions are in layers which can slide over each other

d)

Different size metal ions disrupt the layers

94.

What is an alloy?

a)

Mixture of elements

b)

Mixture of metals

c)

Pure metal

d)

Mixture of metal and plastic

95.

What is a smart alloy?

a)

An alloy that can change colour

b)

An alloy that returns to its original shape

c)

An alloy that can be used for different purposes

96.

Which are examples of alloys?

a)

Stainless steel

b)

Iron

c)

Copper

d)

Brass

e)

Nitinol

97.

Which ONE is an example of a smart alloy?

a)

Stainless steel

b)

Iron

c)

Copper

d)

Brass

e)

Nitinol

98.

Which statement correctly explains why most covalent substances have low melting/boiling points?

a)

There are strong electrostatic attractions

b)

There are weak intermolecular forces

c)

Covalent bonds are weak

d)

There are no strong bonds

99.

Which statement correctly explains why ionic compounds have high melting/boiling points?

a)

There are strong electrostatic attractions

b)

There are weak intermolecular forces

c)

Ionic bonds are weak

d)

There are strong intermolecular forces

100.

What type of structure do ionic compounds have?

a)

Small, simple molecules

b)

Giant molecule

c)

Giant lattice

101.

Which ion is formed by sodium (Na)?

a)

Na-

b)

Na+

c)

Na+7

d)

Na-7

102.

Which ion is formed by magnesium (Mg)?

a)

Mg-

b)

Mg+

c)

Mg2+

d)

Mg2-

103.

Which ion is formed by oxygen (Mg)?

a)

O-

b)

O+

c)

O2+

d)

O2-

104.

Which ion is formed by Chlorine (Cl)?

a)

Cl-

b)

Cl+

c)

Cl2+

d)

Cl2-

105.

Choose the correct words to complete the sentence:

Ionic compounds can conduct electricity when ____________ or ____________.

a)

solid

b)

aqueous (dissolved)

c)

powdered

d)

squashed

e)

molten

106.

Choose the correct words to complete the sentence:

Metals are excellent conductors of ___________ and _____________.

a)

heat

b)

water

c)

electricity

d)

light

107.
What is the range of pH values in an acidic solution?
a)
0-6
b)
8-14
c)
15-239058204958
d)
pH = 7
108.

What are the reactants for the reaction of magnesium with oxygen

Magnesium + oxygen --> Magnesium oxide

a)

Magnesium

b)

Oxygen

c)

Magnesium oxide

d)

Magnesium and oxygen

109.
An acid reacts with metal to produce 
a)
Carbon dioxide 
b)
Hydrogen gas
c)
Hydrogen gas and water 
d)
Salt and hydrogen gas 
110.
A neutralisation reaction is a reaction between 
a)
Acid and a Base 
b)
Acid and water 
c)
Base and water 
d)
None of the above 
111.
An acid reacts with a metal carbonate to produce 
a)
Salt, water and hydrogen gas
b)
Salt, water and carbon dioxide
c)
Limewater
d)
Salt and water 
112.
A neutralisation reaction produces 
a)
An acid 
b)
A neutral substance 
c)
Only water 
d)
Salt and water 
113.
Complete the following reaction:
Sulphuric acid + sodium carbonate
--> 
a)
Carbon dioxide + water 
b)
calcium carbonate + water + carbon dioxide 
c)
Sodium sulphate + water + carbon dioxide 
d)
Sodium chloride + water + carbon dioxide 
114.
Complete the following reaction:
Hydrochloric acid + magnesium hydroxide --> 
a)
Magnesium chloride + water 
b)
Magnesium + water
c)
Magnesium chloride + hydrogen gas 
d)
Magnesium chloride + water + carbon dioxide 
115.

How do we test for hydrogen?

a)

Squeaky pop test

b)

Hydrogen extinguishes a lit splint

c)

Bubbling through lime water

d)

Hydrogen makes a glowing splint relight

116.

Calcium carbonate + hydrochloric acid -->

a)

Calcium chloride + hydrogen

b)

Calcium choride + water

c)

Calcium chloride + carbon dioxide + water

d)

Calcium sulfate + carbon dioxide + water

117.

Copper carbonate + hydrochloric acid -->

a)

Copper chloride + hydrogen

b)

Copper chloride + water

c)

Copper chloride + water + hydrogen

d)

Copper chloride + water + carbondioxide

118.
Values from 0-14 that determine the acidity of a solution
a)
Molarity
b)
Polarity
c)
pH scale
d)
Solubility
119.
If the pH of a solution is 9, it is a....
a)
acid
b)
base
c)
both
d)
none
120.

Hydrochloric acid reacts to form ........ salts.

a)

chloride

b)

hydrochloride

c)

nitrate

d)

sulfate

121.

Nitric acid reacts to form ........ salts.

a)

chloride

b)

nitrite

c)

nitrate

d)

sulfate

122.

Sulfuric acid reacts to form ........ salts.

a)

chloride

b)

nitrite

c)

sulfite

d)

sulfate

123.

acid + base -> salt + ............

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

hydrogen

c)

ammonia

d)

water

124.

acid + metal -> salt + ............

a)

carbon dioxide + water

b)

hydrogen

c)

ammonia + water

d)

water

125.

Which acid reacts with potassium hydroxide to form potassium sulfate?

a)

chloric acid

b)

hydrochloric acid

c)

nitric acid

d)

sulfuric acid

126.

Which acid reacts with calcium hydroxide to form calcium nitrate?

a)

chloric acid

b)

hydrochloric acid

c)

nitric acid

d)

sulfuric acid

127.

Oxides and hydroxides are

a)

bases

b)

carbonates

c)

acids

d)

metals

128.

What are the products formed when zinc + ethanoic acid react?

a)

magnesium chloride and water

b)

aluminium chloride and hydrogen gas

c)

aluminium chloride and water

d)

zinc ethanoate and hydrogen gas

129.

Which of the following describes a precipitate?

a)

a liquid forms when a block of metal is heated

b)

a solid forms when one liquid is poured into another

c)

a gas forms when a solid is placed in a liquid

d)

bubbles form when an acid is poured on a rock

130.

What is the difference between base and alkali

a)

Alkalis are water insoluble bases

b)

Alkalis are water soluble bases

c)

Both are same

d)

Alkali react with acids while bases don't.

131.

Metal ions have which charge?

a)

+

b)

-

132.

Non-metal ions have which charge?

a)

+

b)

-

133.

PANIC - The positve electrode is called the _______

a)

Anode

b)

Cathode

134.

PANIC - The negative electrode is called the _______

a)

Anode

b)

Cathode

135.

Metal ions are attracted to the

a)

Anode

b)

Cathode

136.

Non-metal ions are attracted to the

a)

Anode

b)

Cathode

137.

The rule for products at the anode (positive electrode) is that ____________ always forms unless there are halide (group 7) ions.

a)

O2

b)

H2

c)

OH-

d)

H+

138.

CO32- and OH- are attracted to the positive electrode (anode). What gas forms?

a)

OH-

b)

CO2

c)

O2

d)

H2

139.

NO3- and OH- are attracted to the positive electrode (anode). What gas forms?

a)

OH-

b)

NO3-

c)

O2

d)

H2

140.

SO42- and OH- are attracted to the positive electrode (anode). What gas forms?

a)

OH-

b)

SO42-

c)

O2

d)

H2

141.

PO42- and OH- are attracted to the positive electrode (anode). What gas forms?

a)

OH-

b)

PO42-

c)

O2

d)

H2

142.

Cl- and OH- are attracted to the positive electrode (anode). What gas forms?

a)

OH-

b)

Cl

c)

O2

d)

Cl2

143.

Br- and OH- are attracted to the positive electrode (anode). What gas forms?

a)

OH-

b)

Br

c)

O2

d)

Br2

144.

F- and OH- are attracted to the positive electrode (anode). What gas forms?

a)

OH-

b)

F

c)

O2

d)

F2

145.

The rule at the cathode (negative electrode) is that the ________ reactive metal forms.

a)

least

b)

most

146.

Cu2+ and H+ are attracted to the negative electrode (cathode). Which product forms?

a)

H+(g)

b)

H2 (g)

c)

Cu (s)

d)

Cu2+(s)

147.

Copper chloride solution undergoes electrolysis. Which product forms at the negative electrode (cathode)?

a)

H+(g)

b)

H2 (g)

c)

Cu (s)

d)

Cu2+(s)

148.

Molten copper chloride undergoes electrolysis. Which product forms at the negative electrode (cathode)?

a)

H+(g)

b)

H2 (g)

c)

Cu (s)

d)

Cu2+(s)

149.

Molten lead bromide undergoes electrolysis. Which product forms at the negative electrode (cathode)?

a)

H+(g)

b)

H2 (g)

c)

Pb (s)

d)

Pb2+(s)

150.

Water acidified with sulfuric acid H2SO4 (aq) undergoes electrolysis. Which product forms at the negative electrode (cathode)?

a)

H+(g)

b)

H2 (g)

c)

O2 (g)

d)

OH- (g)

151.

Copper chloride CuCl2 solution undergoes electrolysis. Which product forms at the anode (positive electrode)?

a)

O2 (g)

b)

H2 (g)

c)

Cl2 (g)

d)

OH- (g)

152.

Sodium chloride NaCl solution undergoes electrolysis. Which product forms at the anode (positive electrode)?

a)

O2 (g)

b)

H2 (g)

c)

Cl2 (g)

d)

OH- (g)

153.

A cation is:

a)

A neutral atom

b)

A molecule

c)

A positive ion

d)

A negative ion

154.

Cations form when atoms ...

a)

... gain electrons to form negative ions.

b)

... lose electrons to form positive ions.

c)

... gain electrons to form positive ions.

d)

... lose electrons to form negative ions.

155.

More reactive metals form cations ...

a)

... more readily.

b)

... less readily.

156.

Select the most reactive metal from the options below:

a)

Zn

b)

Ag

c)

K

d)

Fe

157.

Select the most reactive metal from the options below:

a)

Zn

b)

Fe

c)

Cu

d)

Al

158.

In displacement reactions ...

a)

... the more reactive metal is displaced from the compound.

b)

... the more reactive metal displaces the less reactive metal from the compound.

159.

Select the displacement reaction from the options below:

a)

2AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag2AgNO_3\ +\ Cu\ \rightarrow\ Cu\left(NO_3\right)_2\ +\ 2Ag

b)

HCl + KOH → KCl +H2OHCl\ +\ KOH\ \rightarrow\ KCl\ +H_2O

c)

2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl2Na\ +\ Cl_2\ \rightarrow\ 2NaCl

d)

CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2CaCO_3\ +\ 2HCl\ \rightarrow\ CaCl_2\ +\ H_2O\ +\ CO_2

160.

Displacement reactions are an example of ...

a)

... neutralisation.

b)

... redox reaction.

c)

... combustion.

d)

... disproportionation reaction.

161.

In redox reactions:

a)

Electrons are lost.

b)

Electrons are gained.

c)

Electrons are lost and gained.

d)

There is no movement of electrons.

162.

Gold is found uncombined in the Earth’s crust because it is...

a)

Unreactive

b)

Reactive

c)

Plentiful

d)

Shiny

163.

Select the metal which must be extracted by electrolysis.

a)

Copper

b)

Aluminium

c)

Iron

d)

Silver

164.

Select the metal which can be extracted by reduction by carbon.

a)

Aluminium

b)

Sodium

c)

Potassium

d)

Iron

165.

Select the metal which is likely to be found uncombined in the Earth’s crust.

a)

Aluminium

b)

Iron

c)

Zinc

d)

Silver

166.

Phytoextraction is the use of:

a)

Bacteria to extract a metal from its ore.

b)

Plants to extract a metal from its ore.

167.

Bioleaching involves using:

a)

Bacteria to extract a metal from its ore.

b)

Plants to extract a metal from its ore.

168.

An advantage of phytomining is that it:

a)

Is cheap.

b)

Can be used as a source of renewable energy.

c)

Can be used to extract metals from contaminated soils.

d)

Yields pure metal product (no further purification required).

169.

Oxidation is:

a)

The addition of oxygen.

b)

The removal of oxygen.

c)

The addition of electrons.

d)

The removal of electrons.

170.

Reduction is:

a)

The addition of oxygen.

b)

The removal of oxygen.

c)

The addition of electrons.

d)

The removal of electrons.

171.

Select the common uses of aluminium from the list below:

a)

Cans

b)

Foils

c)

Aeroplane parts

d)

Wires

172.

Select the common uses of copper from the list below:

a)

Aeroplane parts

b)

Wires

c)

Roofing

d)

Car parts

173.

Select the common uses of silver from the list below:

a)

Jewellery

b)

Mirrors

c)

Wires

d)

Car parts

174.

Magnalium, used for aircraft parts is an alloy of:

a)

Copper

b)

Aluminium

c)

Alnico

d)

Magnesium

175.

Aluminium is used for aircraft parts as it is:

a)

A good conductor of heat and electricity.

b)

Strong and low density.

c)

Malleable and a good conductor of electricity.

d)

Strong and a good conductor of heat.

176.

More reactive metals ...

a)

... rust more quickly.

b)

... rust more slowly.

c)

... corrode more quickly.

d)

... corrode more slowly.

177.

Rusting can be prevented by:

a)

Exclusion of air.

b)

Exclusion of water.

c)

Sacrificial protection.

d)

Applying oil/paint to create a barrier.

178.

Electroplating can cause a material to:

a)

be more aesthetically pleasing.

b)

change it’s chemical properties.

c)

become something else.

d)

be corrosion resistant.

179.

Alloying steel with chromium gives properties which aid:

a)

Thermal conductivity

b)

Corrosion resistance

c)

Electrical conductivity

d)

Malleability

180.

Recycling is important as it:

a)

Conserves natural resources

b)

Is easy

c)

Is cheap

d)

Protects ecosystems and wildlife

181.

A lifecycle assessment of a product features:

a)

Extracting and processing the raw materials needed.

b)

Manufacturing the product and it packaging.

c)

Using the product during its lifetime.

d)

Disposing of the product at the end of its useful life.

182.

What are the limitations of life cycle assessments?

a)

They don’t consider disposal.

b)

They only consider the effect the product has in terms of energy usage.

c)

Companies producing them can be biased.

d)

It can be difficult to obtain numerical values which are accurate.

183.

What name is given to the minimum amount of energy needed by particles for them to react when they collide?

a)

Activation energy

b)

Catalytic energy

c)

Threshold energy

184.

What is the name of the model which is used to explain how different factors affect the rate of a reaction?

a)

Particle theory

b)

Big Bang theory

c)

Collision theory

185.

What piece of apparatus could be used to measure the volume of gas produced in a reaction

a)

Gas syringe

b)

Beaker

c)

Top pan balance

186.

Which of the following is a possible unit for rate of reaction?

a)

cm3/s

b)

m/s

c)

N

187.

Which of the following would speed up a reaction?

a)

Using lumps instead of powder

b)

Increasing the concentration of an acid

c)

Decreasing the temperature

188.

Which of the following will increase the frequency of successful collisions?

a)

Increasing the temperature

b)

Decreasing the pressure

c)

Decreasing the concentration

189.

Which of the following has the smallest surface area to volume ratio?

a)

Powder

b)

Gauze

c)

Lumps

190.

Which of the following statements about catalysts is false?

a)

They speed up reactions

b)

They provide an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy

c)

They become chemically changed at the end of the reaction

191.

Which of the following will increase the proportion of successful collisions?

a)

Increasing the temperature

b)

Increasing the pressure

c)

Increasing the concentration

192.

Which of the following would give a steeper curve on a graph of volume of gas against time?

a)

Low temperature

b)

Low concentration

c)

Using a catalyst

193.

What is this symbol '⇌' used to represent?

a)

A redox reaction

b)

A reversible reaction

c)

A physical change

194.

What term is used to describe a chemical reaction in which the forward and reverse reaction rates are the same?

a)

A static equilibrium

b)

An equal equilibrium

c)

A dynamic equilibrium

195.

What is produced in the backward reaction in this equilibrium, when the reaction goes from right to left: NH4Cl(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + HCl(g)?

a)

NH4Cl(s)

b)

NH3(g) + HCl(g)

c)

NH4Cl(s) + NH3(g) + HCl(g)

196.

If the forward reaction is endothermic, what can be deduced about the reverse reaction?

a)

It is also endothermic

b)

There is no energy change

c)

It is exothermic

197.

When a reversible reaction is at equilibrium, which of these statements is true?

a)

The concentration of products is greater than the concentration of reactants

b)

The concentration of products remains constant over time

c)

The concentration of products is equal to the concentration of reactants

198.

The equation for the Haber process is: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. What gases will be present at equilibrium?

a)

Nitrogen and hydrogen

b)

Nitrogen, hydrogen and ammonia

c)

Ammonia only

199.

One of the stages in sulfuric acid production is described by this equation: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g). What will happen to the yield of SO3 if the pressure is increased?

a)

It will go up

b)

It will go down

c)

It will stay the same

200.

If the forward reaction in a reversible reaction is endothermic, what will be the effect of decreasing the temperature?

a)

It increases the amount of product present at equilibrium

b)

It decreases the amount of product present at equilibrium

c)

It does not affect the equilibrium

201.

What is the effect of decreasing the pressure on the following equilibrium 2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)?

a)

Less NO2 will be produced

b)

Less NO and O2 is formed

c)

No change will occur

202.

What effect on the equilibrium position is produced by adding a catalyst to a system in equilibrium?

a)

It decreases the yield of product

b)

It increases the yield of products

c)

It has no effect

203.
Measure of the amount of matter 
a)
mass
b)
volume
c)
weight
d)
density
204.
Anything that has mass & takes up space
a)
gravity
b)
force
c)
matter
d)
volume
205.
Smallest unit of an element
a)
compound
b)
atom
c)
molecule
d)
product
206.
Smallest unit of a compound
a)
atom
b)
density
c)
element
d)
molecule
207.
Substance that cannot be broken into simpler substances
a)
element
b)
molecule
c)
gram
d)
proton
208.
Substance made up of chemically combined elements
a)
atom
b)
element
c)
electron
d)
compound
209.
Number placed in front of a chemical formula
a)
product
b)
coefficient
c)
reactant
d)
subscript
210.
Number written below & to the right of a chemical symbol
a)
subscript
b)
reactant
c)
product
d)
coefficient
211.
Highly reactive metals in first column of periodic table
a)
halogens
b)
noble gases
c)
alkali metals
d)
metalloids
212.
Highly reactive non-metals in second to last column on periodic table
a)
noble gases
b)
metalloids
c)
alkali metals
d)
halogens
213.
Unreactive gases in last column of periodic table
a)
halogens
b)
alkali metals
c)
noble gases
d)
metalloids
214.
Substances that form as the result of a chemical reaction
a)
products
b)
reactants
c)
coefficients
d)
subscripts
215.
Substances present at the start of a chemical reaction
a)
subscripts
b)
coefficients
c)
reactants
d)
products
216.
Electrons in the outermost orbit or shell
a)
quarks
b)
molecules
c)
valence
d)
compounds
217.
How many iron atoms are in 
Fe(NO3)2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
218.
How many nitrogen atoms are in 
Fe(NO3)2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
219.
How many oxygen atoms are in 
Fe(NO3)2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6

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Semester 1

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Semester 1

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8th Grade - University