wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

11-14

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are two reasons to create a network baseline?

a)
  • to identify future abnormal network behavior

b)
  • to determine if the network can deliver the required policies

c)
  • to evaluate security vulnerabilities in the network

d)
  • to design a network according to a proper model

e)
  • to determine what kind of equipment to implement

2.

A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?

a)
  • The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.

b)
  • The computer has an invalid default gateway address.

c)
  • The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.

d)
  • The computer has an invalid IP address.

3.

In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?

a)
  • Narrow the scope.

b)
  • Document the symptoms.

c)
  • Determine ownership.

d)
  • Determine the symptoms.

4.

What network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure occur?

a)
  • the reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network core

b)
  • the installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network

c)
  • the deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer switch connections between them

d)
  • the configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway

5.

Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

a)
  • add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network

b)
  • continually purchase backup equipment for the network

c)
  • implement STP portfast between the switches on the network

d)
  • immediately replace a non-functioning module, service or device on a network

6.

What is a definition of a two-tier LAN network design?

a)
  • access and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the distribution layer on a separate tier

b)
  • distribution and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the access layer on a separate tier

c)
  • access, distribution, and core layers collapsed into one tier, with a separate backbone layer

d)
  • access and distribution layers collapsed into one tier, and the core layer on a separate tier

7.

What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

a)
  • increased flexibility

b)
  • reduced costs

c)
  • decreased number of critical points of failure

d)
  • increased bandwidth availability

e)
  • increased network management options

8.

What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

a)
  • provides access to the user

b)
  • aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains

c)
  • aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries

d)
  • provides fault isolation

9.

Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

a)

ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput

b)
  • ability to build a routing table

c)
  • ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)

d)
  • ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself

10.

When is the most appropriate time to measure network operations to establish a network performance baseline?

a)
  • during quiet vacation periods, so that the level of non-data traffic can be determined

b)
  • whenever high network use is detected, so that how the network performs under stress can be monitored

c)
  • at the same time each day across a set period of average working days, so that typical traffic patterns can be established

d)
  • at random times during a 10 week period, so that abnormal traffic levels can be detected

11.

facilitates understanding the role of each device at every tier, simplifies deployment, operation, management, and reduces fault domains at every tier

a)

hierarchical

b)

resiliency

c)

modularity

d)

flexibility

12.

satisfies user expectations for keeping the network always on

a)

hierarchical

b)

resiliency

c)

modularity

d)

flexibility

13.

allows seamless network expansion and integrated service enablement on an on-demand basis

a)

hierarchical

b)

resiliency

c)

modularity

d)

flexibility

14.

allows intelligent traffic load sharing by using all network resources

a)

hierarchical

b)

resiliency

c)

modularity

d)

flexibility

15.

What are the three layers of the switch hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)

a)
  • distribution

b)
  • network access

c)
  • access

d)
  • core

e)
  • data link

16.

A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

a)

A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.

b)
  • The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.

c)
  • This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.

d)
  • This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.

17.

Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?

a)
  • knowledge base

b)
  • protocol analyzer

c)
  • baselining tool

d)
  • CiscoView

18.

A user is unable to reach the website when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161 . What is the issue?

a)

DNS

b)
  • DHCP

c)
  • TCP/IP Protocol stack

d)
  • Default Gateway

19.

What is the principle that is applied when a network technician is troubleshooting a network fault by using the divide-and-conquer method?

a)
  • Once it is verified that components in a particular layer are functioning properly, it can then be assumed that components in the layers below it are also functional.

b)
  • Testing is performed at Layer 7 and at Layer 1, then at Layers 6 and 2, and so on, working towards the middle of the stack until all layers are verified as operational.

c)
  • Testing is performed at all layers of the OSI model until a non-functioning component is found.

d)
  • Once it is verified that a component in a particular layer is functioning properly, testing can then be performed on any other layer.

20.

A company uses a cloud-based payroll system. Which cloud computing technology is this company using?

a)
  • browser as a service (BaaS)

b)
  • software as a service (SaaS)

c)
  • wireless as a service (WaaS)

d)
  • infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

21.

For a data center, what is the difference in the server virtualization data traffic compared with the traditional client-server model?

a)
  • Data traffic from clients will be routed to multiple virtual servers.

b)
  • More network control traffic is generated between virtual servers and clients.

c)
  • There is more data traffic flowing from virtual servers to clients.

d)
  • There are significant data exchanges between virtual servers.

22.

Which component in a traditional infrastructure device provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 functions to create data paths within a network?

a)
  • data plane

b)
  • control plane

c)
  • adjacency table

d)
  • forwarding information base

23.

Which network traffic management technology is a basic element in SDN implementations?

a)
  • OpenFlow

b)
  • OpenStack

c)
  • IEEE 802.1aq

d)
  • Interface to the Routing System

24.

Which type of hypervisor would most likely be used in a data center?

a)

Type 1

b)
  • Nexus

c)
  • Hadoop

d)
  • Type 2

25.

Which is a characteristic of a Type 1 hypervisor?​

a)
  • installed directly on a server​

b)
  • best suited for consumers and not for an enterprise environment

c)
  • does not require management console software

d)
  • installed on an existing operating system​

26.

Which two layers of the OSI model are associated with SDN network control plane functions that make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)​

a)
  • Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

e)

Layer 5

27.

What pre-populates the FIB on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets?

a)
  • the routing table

b)
  • the adjacency table

c)
  • the ARP table

d)
  • the DSP

28.

What is a function of the data plane of a network device?

a)
  • sending information to the CPU for processing

b)
  • building the routing table

c)
  • resolving MAC addresses

d)
  • forwarding traffic flows

29.

provides high speed backbone connectivity

a)

core layer

b)

distribution layer

c)

access layer

30.

functions as an aggregator for all the campus blocks

a)

core layer

b)

distribution layer

c)

access layer

31.

provides network access to the user

a)

core layer

b)

distribution layer

c)

access layer

32.

represents the network adge

a)

core layer

b)

distribution layer

c)

access layer

33.

implements network access policy

a)

core layer

b)

distribution layer

c)

access layer

34.

establishes layer 3 routing boundaries

a)

core layer

b)

distribution layer

c)

access layer

35.

Which statement describes the concept of cloud computing?

a)
  • separation of application from hardware

b)
  • separation of management plane from control plane

c)
  • separation of operating system from hardware

d)
  • separation of control plane from data plane

36.

Which cloud model provides services for a specific organization or entity?

a)
  • a public cloud

b)
  • a community cloud

c)
  • a private cloud

d)
  • a hybrid cloud

37.

What two benefits are gained when an organization adopts cloud computing and virtualization? (Choose two.)

a)
  • provides a “pay-as-you-go” model, allowing organizations to treat computing and storage expenses as a utility

b)
  • enables rapid responses to increasing data volume requirements

c)
  • distributed processing of large data sets in the size of terabytes

d)
  • elimination of vulnerabilities to cyber attacks

e)
  • increases the dependance on onsite IT resources

38.

Which type of Hypervisor is implemented when a user with a laptop running the Mac OS installs a Windows virtual OS instance?

a)
  • type 2

b)
  • virtual machine

c)
  • type 1

d)
  • bare metal

39.

A small company is considering moving many of its data center functions to the cloud. What are three advantages of this plan? (Choose three.)

a)
  • The company only needs to pay for the amount of processing and storage capacity that it uses.

b)
  • Cloud services are billed at a fixed fee no matter how much processing and storage are used by the company.

c)
  • The company does not need to be concerned about how to handle increasing data storage and processing demands with in-house data center equipment.

d)
  • The company can increase processing and storage capacity as needed and then decrease capacity when it is no longer needed.

e)
  • Single-tenant data centers can easily grow to accommodate increasing data storage requirements.

40.
  • How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

a)

supply of consistent air flow

b)
  • support of live migration

c)
  • improvement of business practices

d)
  • guarantee of power

41.

What technology allows users to access data anywhere and at any time?

a)
  • Cloud computing

b)
  • data analytics

c)
  • micromarketing

d)
  • virtualization

42.

Because of enormous growth in web traffic, a company has planned to purchase additional servers to help handle the web traffic. What service or technology would support this requirement?

a)
  • cloud services

b)
  • data center

c)
  • dedicated servers

d)
  • virtualization

43.

A company has recently become multinational. Employees are working remotely, in different time zones, and they need access to company services from any place at any time. What service or technology would support this requirement?

a)
  • cloud services

b)
  • Cisco ACI

c)
  • dedicated servers

d)
  • virtualization

44.

ABCTech is investigating the use of automation for some of its products. In order to control and test these products, the programmers require Windows, Linux, and MAC OS on their computers. What service or technology would support this requirement?

a)
  • Cisco ACI

b)
  • software defined networking

c)
  • dedicated servers

d)
  • virtualization

45.

Following a multicontinent advertising campaign for a new product, a company finds its client database and volume of orders are overloading its on-site computer systems but the company does not have any room to expand. What service or technology would support this requirement?=

a)
  • cloud services

b)
  • data center

c)
  • dedicated servers

d)
  • virtualization

46.

A network administrator has been tasked with creating a disaster recovery plan. As part of this plan, the administrator is looking for a backup site for all of the data on the company servers. What service or technology would support this requirement?

a)
  • software defined networking

b)
  • data center

c)
  • dedicated servers

d)
  • virtualization

47.

Which action takes place in the assurance element of the IBN model?

a)
  • verification and corrective action

b)
  • configuring systems

c)
  • translation of policies

d)
  • integrity checks

48.

Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for network automation applications?

a)
  • XML

b)
  • JSON

c)
  • HTML

d)
  • YAML

49.

What is the function of the key contained in most RESTful APIs?

a)
  • It is the top-level object of the API query.

b)
  • It is used to authenticate the requesting source.

c)
  • It represents the main query components in the API request.

d)
  • It is used in the encryption of the message by an API request.

50.

Which two configuration management tools are developed using Ruby? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Puppet

b)
  • Chef

c)
  • Ansible

d)
  • SaltStack

e)
  • RESTCONF

51.

Which term is used to describe a set of instructions for execution by the configuration management tool Puppet?

a)
  • Manifest

b)
  • Pillar

c)
  • Cookbook

d)
  • Playbook

52.

Which term is used to describe a set of instructions for execution by the configuration management tool SaltStack?

a)
  • Pillar

b)
  • Playbook

c)
  • Manifest

d)
  • Cookbook

53.

Which scenario describes the use of a public API?

a)
  • It can be used with no restrictions.

b)
  • It is used between a company and its business partners.

c)
  • It is used only within an organization.

d)
  • It requires a license.

54.

What is YAML?

a)
  • It is a scripting language.

b)
  • It is a data format and superset of JSON.

c)
  • It is a compiled programming language.

d)
  • It is a web application.

55.

Which RESTFul operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

a)
  • post

b)
  • read

c)
  • update

d)
  • patch

56.

Which technology virtualizes the network control plane and moves it to a centralized controller?​

a)
  • SDN

b)
  • fog computing

c)
  • cloud computing

d)
  • IaaS

57.

What are two functions of hypervisors? (Choose two.)

a)
  • to partition the hard drive to run virtual machines

b)
  • to manage virtual machines

c)
  • to protect the host from malware infection from the virtual machines

d)
  • to allocate physical system resources to virtual machines

e)
  • to share the antivirus software across the virtual machines

58.

What is a difference between the functions of Cloud computing and virtualization?

a)
  • Cloud computing separates the application from the hardware whereas virtualization separates the OS from the underlying hardware.

b)
  • Cloud computing provides services on web-based access whereas virtualization provides services on data access through virtualized Internet connections.

c)
  • Cloud computing utilizes data center technology whereas virtualization is not used in data centers.

d)
  • Cloud computing requires hypervisor technology whereas virtualization is a fault tolerance technology.

59.

How is the YAML data format structure different from JSON?

a)
  • It uses indentations.

b)
  • It uses end tags.

c)
  • It uses hierarchical levels of nesting.

d)
  • It uses brackets and commas.

60.

What is the most widely used API for web services?

a)
  • REST

b)
  • JSON-RPC

c)
  • SOAP

d)
  • XML-RPC

61.

What is REST?

a)
  • It is an architecture style for designing web service applications.

b)
  • It is a human readable data structure that is used by applications for storing, transforming, and reading data.

c)
  • It is a way to store and interchange data in a structured format.

d)
  • It is a protocol that allows administrators to manage nodes on an IP network.

62.

What is a difference between the XML and HTML data formats?

a)
  • XML does not use predefined tags whereas HTML does use predefined tags.

b)
  • XML encloses data within a pair of tags whereas HTML uses a pair of quotation makes to enclose data.

c)
  • XML formats data in binary whereas HTML formats data in plain text.

d)
  • XML does not require indentation for each key/value pair but HTML does require indentation.

63.

To avoid purchasing new hardware, a company wants to take advantage of idle system resources and consolidate the number of servers while allowing for multiple operating systems on a single hardware platform. What service or technology would support this requirement?

a)
  • virtualization

b)
  • Cisco ACI

c)
  • dedicated servers

d)
  • software defined networking

64.

Which cloud computing opportunity would provide the use of network hardware such as routers and switches for a particular company?

a)
  • browser as a service (BaaS)

b)
  • infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

c)
  • wireless as a service (WaaS)

d)
  • software as a service (SaaS)

65.

outFormat=json

a)

resources

b)

parameters

c)

query

d)

API server

e)

format

66.
a)

resources

b)

parameters

c)

query

d)

API server

e)

format

67.

outFormat=json&key=KEY&from=San+Jose,Ca&to=Monterey,Ca

a)

resources

b)

parameters

c)

query

d)

API server

e)

format

68.

from=San+Jose,Ca&to=Monterey,Ca

a)

resources

b)

parameters

c)

query

d)

API server

e)

format

69.

directions/v2/route

a)

resources

b)

parameters

c)

query

d)

API server

e)

format

70.

Which cloud computing opportunity would provide the use of network hardware such as routers and switches for a particular company?

a)
  • software as a service (SaaS)

b)
  • wireless as a service (WaaS)

c)
  • infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

d)
  • browser as a service (BaaS)

71.

What component is considered the brains of the ACI architecture and translates application policies​?

a)
  • the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller

b)
  • the hypervisor​

c)
  • the Nexus 9000 switch

d)
  • the Application Network Profile endpoints

72.

Which statement describes the concept of cloud computing?

a)
  • separation of operating system from hardware

b)
  • separation of application from hardware

c)
  • separation of control plane from data plane

d)
  • separation of management plane from control plane

73.

In which situation would a partner API be appropriate?

a)
  • a vacation service site interacting with hotel databases to display information from all the hotels on its web site

b)
  • someone creating an account on an external app or website by using his or her social media credentials

c)
  • company sales staff accessing internal sales data from their mobile devices

d)
  • an internet search engine allowing developers to integrate the search engine into their own software applications

74.

What are three components used in the query portion of a typical RESTful API request? (Choose three.)

a)

key

b)

parameters

c)

format

d)
  • protocol

e)
  • resources

75.

Which is a requirement of a site-to-site VPN?

a)
  • It requires a VPN gateway at each end of the tunnel to encrypt and decrypt traffic.

b)
  • It requires the placement of a VPN server at the edge of the company network.

c)
  • It requires a client/server architecture.

d)
  • It requires hosts to use VPN client software to encapsulate traffic.

76.

Which statement describes an important characteristic of a site-to-site VPN?

a)
  • It must be statically set up.

b)
  • It requires using a VPN client on the host PC.

c)
  • It is commonly implemented over dialup and cable modem networks.

d)
  • It is ideally suited for use by mobile workers.

e)
  • After the initial connection is established, it can dynamically change connection information.

77.

Which protocol is attacked when a cybercriminal provides an invalid gateway in order to create a man-in-the-middle attack?

a)
  • HTTP or HTTPS

b)
  • DNS

c)
  • ICMP

d)
  • DHCP

78.

Which statement describes a VPN?

a)
  • VPNs use virtual connections to create a private network through a public network

b)
  • VPNs use open source virtualization software to create the tunnel through the Internet.

c)
  • VPNs use dedicated physical connections to transfer data between remote users.

d)
  • VPNs use logical connections to create public networks through the Internet.

79.

In which TCP attack is the cybercriminal attempting to overwhelm a target host with half-open TCP connections?

a)
  • SYN flood attack

b)
  • port scan attack

c)
  • session hijacking attack

d)
  • reset attack