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ESK FINAL QUIZ

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which Regulation governs the use of a bench mounted Grinder?

a)

Control of substances hazardous to health (COSHH)

b)

Provision and use of Work Equipment Regs (PUWER)

c)

Personal Protection Equipment Regs (2002)

2.

Which Regulation from the list below is Section 7 of the HASAW 74?

a)

Ensure in so far as is reasonably practicable the health safety and welfare of employees whilst at work

b)

Employee duty not to interfere with anything provided by the employer in the interests of health and safety

c)

Duty to take reasonable care of themselves and others

3.

What is the maximum permissible gap between the tool rest edge and the grinding wheel?

a)

3mm

b)

2mm

c)

4mm

4.

What does HSS mean if stamped on the side of a drill?

a)

High Speed Steel

b)

Heat source steel

5.

Please write down the Three primary Geometric considerations you would have in mind prior to grinding a drill.

a)

Land, heel, Flute

b)

Clearance, chisel edge, lip length

c)

Lip length, Lip Clearance, Point Angle

d)

Point Angle, helix, land

6.

Which shapes are best formed by the use of a Half Round File?

a)

Used for filing ‘tight’ corners and angles of less than 90 degrees.

b)

Used for filing irregular shaped work or large radii.

c)

Used for filing corners, angles of greater than 90°.

7.

Which shapes are best formed by the use of a Tri/Three square file?

a)

Used for filing ‘tight’ corners and angles of less than 90 degrees.

b)

Used for filing irregular shaped work or large radii.

c)

Used for filing corners, angles of greater than 90°.

8.

When using a Hacksaw, on what metal should you use a high TPI blade?

a)

soft metals (because there is space for the chips).

b)

hard metals (to get more teeth doing the work).

c)

thick metals (because there is space for the chips).

9.

What would be the first option when trying to practically lower the risk presented by the use of Vibrating tools?

a)

Wear PPE in the form of Gloves to keep the hands warm and improve circulation.

b)

Eliminate the source of the vibration, do the job another way.

c)

Monitor all the employees' level of exposure.

d)

Reduce the vibration through Engineering controls.

10.

What, in metres per second squared, is the Exposure Action Value (EAV)?

a)

5

b)

12.5

c)

2.5

11.

What do we mean by the term TRIGGER TIME?

a)

The period of time that passes from when the vibrating tool is switched on

b)

The period of time that passes from when the vibrating tool is switched on and applied to the workpiece

c)

The period of time that passes from when the vibrating tool is switched on to when it is switched off

12.

From the list below, which one regulates the manufacture and supply of safe machinery?

a)

The Personal Protection Equipment Regulations 2002

b)

Supply of Machinery(Safety) Regulations 2008

c)

Supply of Machinery(Safety) Regulations 2005

13.

Indicate which scenario could lead to a temporary threshold shift in your hearing.

a)

Watching a fishing match for 8 hours

b)

Attending a rock concert measured at 105Db for 2 hours

c)

Listening to the radio at 70 Db for 4 hours

14.

What is the general term applied to age-related hearing loss called?

a)

Reception

b)

Attenuation

c)

Presbycusis

d)

Tinnitus

15.

What are the three bones in the middle ear called?

a)

Drum, Cochlea & Pinna

b)

Radius, Ulna & Humerus

c)

Hammer, anvil & Stirrup

16.

How is noise measured?

a)

In decibels using a linear scale

b)

Using an ear trumpet

17.

How do thick framed safety glasses affect the attenuation levels of hearing protectors?

a)

Improves it

b)

Reduces it

18.

Where would you typically see a Buttress thread being used?

a)

Lead screw on a lathe

b)

On a component that requires fine adjustment

c)

In vertical lifting applications

19.

Where would you typically see an Acme thread being used?

a)

Lead screw on a lathe

b)

On a component that requires fine adjustment

c)

In vertical lifting applications

20.

Which statement best describes the pitch of a thread?

a)

The angle between the thread flanks

b)

The diameter of the imaginary co-axial cylinder that just touches the crest of an external thread or the root of an internal thread

c)

The distance measured along an axial plane, between a point on one thread and a corresponding point on the adjacent thread

21.

Which statement best describes the Major diameter of a thread?

a)

The diameter of an imaginary cylinder that just touches the roots of an external thread and (or) the crests of an internal thread

b)

The diameter of the imaginary co-axial cylinder that just touches the crest of an external thread or the root of an internal thread

c)

The distance measured along an axial plane, between a point on one thread and a corresponding point on the adjacent thread

22.

Identify the information which must be displayed on an abrasive wheel used on a Hand held grinder.

a)

The wheels weight

b)

Storage instructions

c)

Test Record

23.

What is the relevance of the date displayed on an Abrasive wheel fitted to a Handheld Grinder?

a)

Displays its expiry date

b)

Displays its date of Manufacture

24.

Why should we perform a ring test on a new wheel?

a)

Checking to see if the wheel is wet

b)

Checking for breaks and fractures or any imperfections on the wheel

c)

Checking to see if the wheel is glazed

25.

How tight do we tighten the locking nut when fitting an Abrasive wheel?

a)

90 Nm

b)

Nip tight

26.

Which of the following is a type of continuous improvement?

a)

Incremental

b)

Customer satisfaction

c)

Products

d)

Services

27.

Name a benefit of applying continuous improvement strategies.

a)

Your online business will grow.

b)

You will see an improvement in quality products.

c)

You will need to complete more training.

d)

Absences will increase.

28.

Which of the following are NOT a stage in the PDCA management improvement method?

a)

Plan

b)

Check

c)

Draw

d)

Act

29.

Which of the following is not a category of work?

a)

Value

b)

Non-Value added

c)

Waste

d)

Recycling

30.

How do we reduce wasteful working within business?

a)

Giving people more breaks

b)

Ordering more products

c)

Staff training

d)

Recycling offcuts

31.

Why are SOP's important?

a)

They offer a standardised approach to tasks.

b)

Everyone gets to go home early.

c)

Less employees are required on shift.

32.

State the purpose of marking out:

a)

To transfer measurements from a drawing onto a workpiece

b)

To paint the workpiece for aesthetic purposes

c)

To measure temperature during machining

d)

To estimate the weight of a workpiece

33.

What is a datum point?

a)

A tool used for drilling holes

b)

The point where the tool is first positioned before machining

c)

A reference point from which all measurements are taken

d)

A location on the surface table

34.

What are the consequences of not using a datum point?

a)

Accurate measurements and well-machined parts

b)

Inconsistent measurements and misaligned features

c)

Improved tool life

d)

Faster completion of the job

35.

A surface table is used in conjunction with measuring/marking out equipment. What is it made of?

a)

Aluminum

b)

Cast iron or granite

c)

Plastic

d)

Copper

36.

What does COSHH stand for?

a)

Control of Safety Hazardous Tools and Health

b)

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health

c)

Code of Safe Handling of Tools and Health

d)

Chemical Overview for Safe Handling and Health

37.

Why do we wear barrier creams?

a)

To prevent skin irritation from chemicals or oils

b)

To improve grip on tools

c)

To prevent overheating

d)

To protect against burns from welding

38.

What is Parallax error?

a)

An error caused by using worn tools

b)

An error caused by misreading measurements due to viewing from the wrong angle

c)

A mistake in the cutting angle

d)

A type of calculation error in CNC machines

39.

Explain what accumulative error is and how to prevent it:

a)

A buildup of dirt on a tool

b)

A buildup of small measurement errors over time

c)

A buildup of coolant in the machine

d)

None of the above

40.

What is the primary purpose of a ring test on a grinding wheel?

a)

To check the wheel's balance

b)

To ensure the wheel is not cracked or damaged

c)

To verify the wheel's size

41.

Which of the following is a key benefit of using a datum point in machining?

a)

Increases tool wear

b)

Ensures consistent measurements

c)

Speeds up the machining process

42.

What is the main function of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in a workshop?

a)

To enhance productivity

b)

To protect workers from hazards

c)

To improve communication

43.

What is the primary purpose of using a jig in machining?

a)

To hold the workpiece securely

b)

To increase the speed of the machine

c)

To reduce tool wear

44.

Which of the following is a common cause of tool chatter during machining?

a)

Excessive tool speed

b)

Insufficient lubrication

c)

Loose workpiece setup

45.

What is the function of a coolant in machining operations?

a)

To increase the cutting speed

b)

To reduce friction and heat

c)

To enhance the surface finish

46.

Which of the following is a common method to reduce noise pollution in a manufacturing environment?

a)

Increasing machine speed

b)

Installing sound barriers

c)

Using larger tools

d)

Reducing lighting

47.

What is the purpose of using a feeler gauge?

a)

To measure the diameter of a hole

b)

To check the gap width between two parts

c)

To determine the hardness of a material

d)

To measure the length of a component

48.

Which of the following materials is commonly used for making cutting tools?

a)

Aluminum

b)

High Carbon Steel

c)

Plastic

d)

Copper

49.

What is the primary function of a center punch in metalworking?

a)

To create a starting point for drilling

b)

To measure the thickness of metal

c)

To smooth out rough edges

50.

What is the main purpose of using a reamer in machining?

a)

To drill holes

b)

To finish holes to a precise size

c)

To cut threads

d)

To smooth surfaces

51.

What is the primary goal of Lean Manufacturing?

a)

To increase the number of employees

b)

To reduce waste and improve efficiency

c)

To maximise inventory

d)

To increase production time

52.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 principles of Lean Manufacturing?

a)

Define value

b)

Map the value stream

c)

Increase inventory

d)

Pursue perfection

53.

What does the '6S' in 6S Methodology stand for?

a)

Sort, Set in order, Shine, Standardise, Sustain, Safety

b)

Sort, Simplify, Shine, Standardise, Sustain, Safety

c)

Sort, Set in order, Shine, Standardise, Sustain, Simplify

d)

Sort, Set in order, Shine, Standardise, Simplify, Safety

54.

Which of the following is a key benefit of implementing 6S in a workplace?

a)

Increased clutter

b)

Improved safety and efficiency

c)

Higher inventory levels

d)

Longer production times

55.

What is the main objective of Total Productive Maintenance (TPM)?

a)

To increase downtime

b)

To eliminate all accidents

c)

To maximise equipment effectiveness

d)

To reduce employee training

56.

Which of the following is NOT a pillar of Total Productive Maintenance?

a)

Autonomous Maintenance

b)

Planned Maintenance

c)

Inventory Management

d)

Quality Maintenance

57.

What does SMED stand for in Lean Manufacturing?

a)

Single-Minute Exchange of Die

b)

Single-Minute Equipment Design

c)

Single-Minute Efficiency Development

d)

Single-Minute Energy Distribution

58.

What is the primary goal of SMED?

a)

To increase production time

b)

To reduce setup times

c)

To increase inventory

d)

To maximise downtime

59.

Which of the following is a key component of Visual Management?

a)

Hidden information

b)

Complex instructions

c)

Clear and visible indicators

d)

Verbal communication only

60.

What is a Kanban system primarily used for?

a)

Increasing inventory levels

b)

Managing and improving workflow

c)

Reducing employee numbers

d)

Increasing production time

61.

Which of the following is a key feature of a Kanban system?

a)

Unlimited work in progress

b)

Visual signals to control production

c)

Complex and hidden processes

d)

High inventory levels

62.

What does VSM stand for in Lean Manufacturing?

a)

Value Stream Mapping

b)

Visual Stream Management

c)

Value System Management

d)

Visual System Mapping

63.

What does the PDCA cycle stand for?

a)

Plan, Do, Check, Act

b)

Plan, Develop, Check, Act

c)

Plan, Do, Create, Act

d)

Plan, Design, Check, Act

64.

What is the primary purpose of the PDCA cycle?

a)

To increase production time

b)

To facilitate continuous improvement

c)

To increase inventory

d)

To maximise downtime

65.

Which of the following is a key benefit of using KPIs in a manufacturing setting?

a)

Increased confusion

b)

Clear performance measurement

c)

Higher inventory levels

d)

Longer production times