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ME 527 Tutorial 2

Total questions: 10

Worksheet time: 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a severe headache, fever, and neck stiffness. She has a non-blanching rash on her legs. Her temperature is 39.2°C. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

a)

Wait for blood culture results

b)

Administer oral amoxicillin

c)

Give IV benzylpenicillin immediately

d)

Start oral ciprofloxacin

e)

Begin with paracetamol only

2.

A 45-year-old man is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis in the hospital. He has no known allergies. Which empirical antibiotic regimen is most appropriate?

a)

Cefotaxime alone

b)

Vancomycin alone

c)

Amoxicillin with gentamicin

d)

Chloramphenicol alone

e)

Ciprofloxacin with metronidazole

3.

A 62-year-old diabetic patient presents with signs of meningitis. Which initial antibiotic combination is most appropriate?

a)

Cefotaxime alone

b)

Cefotaxime plus amoxicillin

c)

Vancomycin plus rifampicin

d)

Chloramphenicol alone

e)

Ciprofloxacin plus metronidazole

4.

A 55-year-old man presents with a brain abscess after dental surgery. What is the most appropriate empirical antibiotic combination?

a)

Amoxicillin alone

b)

Cefotaxime plus metronidazole

c)

Vancomycin alone

d)

Ciprofloxacin plus gentamicin

e)

Meropenem alone

5.

A 28-year-old woman presents with foul-smelling vaginal discharge and genital itching. Her symptoms have persisted for 2 weeks. Microscopy confirms Trichomonas vaginalis infection. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

a)

Metronidazole 2g single dose

b)

Metronidazole 400mg BD for 7 days

c)

Clindamycin cream for 7 days

d)

Fluconazole 150mg single dose

e)

Metronidazole 2g daily for 5 days

6.

A patient with HIV presents with chronic diarrhea. Stool examination reveals Cryptosporidium parvum. What is the most appropriate treatment?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Nitazoxanide

c)

Praziquantel

d)

Mebendazole

e)

Diloxanide furoate

7.

A 35-year-old presents with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. Fresh stool microscopy shows motile trophozoites with phagocytosed red blood cells. What is the most appropriate treatment regimen?

a)

Diloxanide furoate alone

b)

Metronidazole followed by diloxanide furoate

c)

Praziquantel

d)

Albendazole

e)

Ivermectin

8.

A 32-year-old immunocompromised patient presents with chronic diarrhea. Stool examination reveals Strongyloides stercoralis. What is the most appropriate treatment?

a)

Mebendazole

b)

Praziquantel

c)

Ivermectin

d)

Metronidazole

e)

Diloxanide furoate

9.

A 25-year-old patient presents with symptoms of visceral leishmaniasis that are unresponsive to initial treatment with sodium stibogluconate. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

a)

Increase the dose of sodium stibogluconate

b)

Switch to amphotericin B

c)

Add pentamidine

d)

Switch to metronidazole

e)

Add primaquine

10.

A 40-year-old man presents with abdominal pain and jaundice. Imaging reveals liver cysts consistent with hydatid disease. What is the most appropriate treatment approach?

a)

Praziquantel alone

b)

Surgical removal alone

c)

Albendazole with surgery

d)

Metronidazole

e)

Ivermectin