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Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 3570secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Actual costing method calculates product costs using:

a)

Actual costs on direct raw materials, direct labor, and overhead

b)

Estimated costs on direct raw materials and direct labor, and actual costs on overhead

c)

Actual costs on direct raw materials and direct labor, and estimated costs on overhead

d)

Estimated costs on direct raw materials, direct labor, and overhead

2.

For compilation, an accountant does the following?

a)

1. Obtain an understanding of internal controls (yes) 2. Perform control testing (yes) 3. Perform transaction testing (no)

b)

1. Obtain an understanding of internal controls (no) 2. Perform control testing (yes) 3. Perform transaction testing (yes)

c)

1. Obtain an understanding of internal controls (no) 2. Perform control testing (no) 3. Perform transaction testing (no)

d)

1. Obtain an understanding of internal controls (yes) 2. Perform control testing (no) 3.

3.

Which of the following cycles does not affect cash in the bank?

a)

Acquisition and payment.

b)

Inventory and warehousing

c)

Payroll and personnel cycles

d)

Capital cycle

4.

Which of the following is an effective internal control used to verify that production department employees actually punch time cards on the time clock?

a)

Internal auditors must perform random payroll distribution observations

b)

There is one person responsible for maintaining attendance records for non-salaried employees

c)

Time cards must be carefully examined by individuals distributing payroll envelopes to employees

d)

Daily reports showing time charged to jobs must be approved by supervisors and compared to the hours recorded on employees' time cards

5.

Auditors should be aware of the client's capitalization policy to determine if the purchase:
I. Is recorded in accordance with accounting standards
II. Is treated consistently with previous years
III. Is necessary

a)

II only

b)

I only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

6.

When reporting cash on the balance sheet, a company:

a)

Shows each separate bank account.

b)

Includes all restricted cash amounts.

c)

Combines cash and cash equivalents.

d)

Combines cash with accounts receivable

7.

A common stock repurchase:

a)

Decreases the number of issued common shares and reduces the common stock balance.

b)

Decreases the number of issued common shares.

c)

Generates a gain or loss to be reported on the income statement.

d)

Reduces the common stock balance.

8.

Which of the following intangible assets has an indefinite useful life?

a)

Franchise

b)

Copyright

c)

Patent

d)

Goodwill

9.

Which of the following options does not apply to non-statistical sampling?

a)

often referred to as judgmental sampling

b)

mathematical rules apply that allow auditors to measure sampling risk

c)

reaching conclusions about the population in judgmental samples

d)

auditors select items for sampling that they believe will provide a lot of information

10.

auditors select items for sampling that they believe will provide a lot of information

a)

Prime costs cannot be easily allocated to products and services

b)

Accurate actual cost information cannot be obtained in a timely manner

c)

Difficult to obtain actual cost information for conversion costs

d)

Difficult to obtain actual cost information for prime costs

11.

One concept of costs is ____ which is the result of past decisions and cannot be changed by current or future actions.

a)

Opportunity costs

b)

Differential costs

c)

Sunk costs

d)

Avoidable costs

12.

In divisional work reports, segment margin is equal to:

a)

sales minus variable costs

b)

sales minus cost of goods sold

c)

sales minus variable costs and direct fixed costs

d)

sales minus variable costs and indirect fixed costs

13.

Cost Volume Profit (CVP) analysis can be used for all of the following, except:

a)

CVP analysis can show the impact of new competitors on the profitability of the company's products

b)

CVP analysis allows management to test the impact of price increases on profitability

c)

CVP analysis can tell management how many units must be sold to achieve the break-even point.

d)

All answers can be achieved with CVP analysis.

14.

In the classification of quality costs, the costs of departments receiving customer complaints are included in

a)

Internal failure costs

b)

Prevention costs

c)

Appraisal costs

d)

External failure costs

15.

Value stream reflects

a)

a set of activities performed to create added value for customers

b)

all activities performed

c)

only non-value-added activities

d)

only activities directly related to specific products

16.

If a vertical analysis of the balance sheet shows that current assets have increased from 42% to 56%, when total assets are the basis for analysis, it can be concluded that:

a)

the percentage of current assets to total assets has increased.

b)

the total amount of assets has increased.

c)

the total amount of assets has decreased.

d)

the total amount of current assets has increased.

17.

A business offers credit terms of 1/15, n/30. These terms indicate that:

a)

the total amount due must be paid within 15 days

b)

the buyer can take a 1% discount if the invoice is paid within 15 days or 30 days

c)

a 1% discount can be taken if the invoice is paid within 15 days

d)

there is a discount offered for early payment

18.

If a company reports a net loss, then:

a)

it may still have an increase in cash

b)

it cannot pay cash dividends

c)

it cannot obtain loans

d)

it cannot obtain loans

19.

According to Anthony and Govindarajan, companies have responsibilities to:

a)

Suppliers and Customers

b)

Stockholders

c)

Stakeholders

d)

Shareholders

20.

Hedging is used to

a)

manage all foreign currency exposures

b)

do all of the above

c)

ensure profits and losses in foreign currency exchanges

d)

manage economic risks

21.

In terms of product quality, the measure of how well a product meets specifications is an attribute of:

a)

Conformity

b)

Durability

c)

Fitness for use

d)

Reliability

22.

Which of the following accounts is not included in the acquisition transaction group?

a)

Inventory

b)

Purchase discounts

c)

Prepaid expenses

d)

Accounts payable

23.

Which of the following statements about fixed asset auditing is the least accurate?

a)

Failure to record the acquisition of fixed assets affects the profit and loss statement until the asset is fully depreciated.

b)

The primary accounting records for manufacturing equipment and other fixed assets are generally the fixed asset master file.

c)

The emphasis when auditing fixed assets is on verifying the acquisition of assets in the current period.

d)

Manufacturing equipment and current assets are usually audited in the same way regardless of the activities in those accounts.

24.

A list of balances in the accounts receivable ledger on the balance sheet date, based on the balance amounts and the length of time outstanding of the receivable components, is called:

a)

customer list

b)

schedule of accounts receivable

c)

aged trial balance

d)

accounts receivable ledger

25.

The three sections contained in the statement of cash flows are presented in the following order:

a)

financing, operations, and investment.

b)

financing, investment, and operations.

c)

operations, investment, and financing.

d)

investment, operations, and financing.

26.

A partial financial productivity measure uses _____ to measure inputs and outputs.

a)

Revenue

b)

Physical quantity

c)

Costs

d)

Monetary

27.

One dimension of quality is the length of time a product can function properly, which is an attribute of:

a)

Fitness for use

b)

Durability

c)

Reliability

d)

Conformity

28.

Variable costing income typically exceeds absorption costing income when

a)

there is no correct answer

b)

production exceeds sales

c)

production and sales are equal

d)

sales exceed production

29.

The price variance for raw materials is calculated using the formula:

a)

(actual price- standard price) x standard quantity

b)

(actual price- standard price) x actual quantity

c)

(actual quantity- standard quantity) x actual price

d)

(actual quantity- standard quantity) x standard price

30.

The increase in equity resulting from delivering goods or services to customers is:

a)

liability

b)

expense

c)

asset

d)

revenue

31.

Which of the following is not explicitly stated in the standard auditor's report?

a)

The audit is conducted in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles

b)

The financial statements are the responsibility of management

c)

The audit includes assessing the accounting estimates used by management

d)

The auditor believes that the audit provides a sufficient basis for expressing an opinion

32.

If a company capitalizes costs that should be expenses, then:

a)

assets will be overstated.

b)

assets will be overstated.

c)

expenses will be overstated in the year of the error.

d)

expenses will be overstated in the year of the error.

33.

expenses will be overstated in the year of the error.

a)

Service Revenue

b)

Common Stock

c)

Wages Payable

d)

Advertising Expense

34.

The method that starts with net income and adjusts it for items that affect net income but do not affect cash is called:

a)

gross profit method.

b)

indirect method.

c)

direct method.

d)

market or lower of cost method

35.

The statement "We have nothing to draw attention to that would indicate that this statement is not fairly presented" represents what type of opinion?

a)

negative confirmation

b)

negative assurance

c)

no opinion given

d)

shared opinion

36.

The following are parts of internal analysis, except:

a)

Technology know-how

b)

Logistics know-how

c)

Customer know-how

d)

Distribution know-how

37.

If the perpetual inventory master file shows a lower inventory amount than the physical count, a possible explanation for the difference may be the omission of:

a)

purchase discounts

b)

purchases

c)

sales discounts

d)

sales

38.

Sales should be recorded as soon as possible, if:

a)

credit is approved and verified that there is enough inventory to fulfill the order.

b)

orders are received and credit is approved.

c)

orders are received.

d)

shipment is made.

39.

The following is an example of strategic formulation, except:

a)

Changing the debt to equity ratio

b)

Entering a new business.

c)

Acquiring unrelated businesses

d)

Expanding factories

40.

Companies need to consider environmental costs. Activity costs used to determine whether products, processes, and other activities in the company have met environmental standards are called:

a)

External environmental failure costs

b)

Environmental detection costs

c)

Environmental prevention costs

d)

Internal environmental failure costs

41.

In a manufacturing company, which department is often responsible for reviewing production reports?

a)

accounts payable

b)

production

c)

purchasing

d)

accounting

42.

What should management accountants do in a global business environment?

a)

Obtain good training and education and keep up with changes in the accounting field

b)

Familiarize themselves with the accounting rules of the country where the company operates

c)

Continuously monitor current trends in various business areas

d)

Continuously monitor current trends in various business areas

43.

Continuously monitor current trends in various business areas

a)

(Fixed costs + Desired profit) / Contribution margin per unit

b)

(Fixed costs + Desired profit) / Sales

c)

(Fixed costs + Variable costs) / Contribution margin per unit

d)

(Fixed costs + Variable costs) / Sales

44.

Handling the receipt of ordered equipment is part of the cycle.

a)

acquisition and payment

b)

purchasing

c)

inventory and warehousing

d)

inventory

45.

You are auditing the inventory account and are concerned about the possibility of overstated inventory. What is the most appropriate audit procedure to detect damaged inventory?

a)

Observing the condition of inventory during physical counting.

b)

Reconciling the physical inventory amount to the accounting records.

c)

Reconciling the physical inventory amount to the accounting records.

d)

Comparing the condition of inventory since the previous year's count to the current year's count.

46.

The report on agreed-upon procedures is intended to be distributed to:

a)

only involved parties, who will have the necessary knowledge about the procedures and the level of assurance generated from them.

b)

only shareholders of the client

c)

to parties desired by the client

d)

only involved parties, who have knowledge about the procedures but not the level of assurance generated from them.

47.

In bank reconciliation, items recorded by the bank but not yet recorded by the company include

a)

outstanding checks.

b)

deposits in transit.

c)

accounts receivable collections by the bank.

d)

both deposits in transit and outstanding checks.

48.

The equity of an entity consists of two accounts, Joko's Equity and Budi's Equity. This indicates that the entity is in the form of?

a)

sole proprietorship

b)

corporation

c)

partnership

d)

non-profit organization

49.

In completing an audit, management is asked to make a written statement that they are not aware of any undisclosed contingent liabilities. This statement will appear in:

a)

management letter of representation

b)

letter of inquiry

c)

management letter.

d)

letters testamentary

50.

Which of the following audit evidence collection procedures would the auditor perform to obtain some assurance about the existence of inventory?

a)

Confirmation of inventory in the general warehouse.

b)

Written representation about inventory from management.

c)

Observation of the physical inventory count.

d)

Recalculation of the inventory extensions.

51.

If one company owns more than 50% of the common stock of another company

a)

the company whose stock is owned must be liquidated

b)

there will be a parent-subsidiary relationship

c)

there will be a partnership relationship

d)

the equity method must be used to account for the investment

52.

The exception rate for a sample is equal to:

a)

the number of items in the population multiplied by the number of exceptions in the sample.

b)

the number of exceptions in the population divided by the size of the population.

c)

the number of exceptions in the population divided by the size of the sample.

d)

the number of exceptions in the sample divided by the size of the sample.

53.

Which of the following options is NOT a stage of the life-cycle cost commitment curve?

a)

production

b)

product planning

c)

logistics

d)

purchasing

54.

Given the following data:
Current liabilities Rp450,000,000
Non-current liabilities Rp650,000,000
Shareholders' equity Rp500,000,000 In vertical analysis, current liabilities can be expressed as:

a)

28%

b)

356%

c)

111%

d)

356%

55.

Asset misappropriation is usually committed by:

a)

lower-level employees

b)

company management

c)

internal auditors

d)

board members

56.

In most manufacturing companies, the inventory and warehousing cycle begins with

a)

receiving orders from customers

b)

purchasing raw materials for customer orders

c)

initiating production for customer orders

d)

completing production for customer orders

57.

Improving product and service quality will

a)

Increase customer demand and reduce costs

b)

Increase customer demand and increase costs

c)

Decrease customer demand and increase costs

d)

Decrease customer demand and reduce costs

58.

Analyzing cash flow statements can help analysts determine the financial health of a company. Which of the signs below is NOT an indicator of a financially healthy company?

a)

Company operations are the primary source of cash

b)

Company operations are the main activities using cash

c)

Company financing activities are not dominated by borrowing

d)

Company investment activities involve more purchases than sales of long-term assets

59.

If the auditor determines that subsequent events affecting the financial statements occurred after fieldwork was completed but before the auditor's report was issued, then on which dates can the auditor rely in the report?

a)

1. Date of the last day of fieldwork only (no) 2. Date of the subsequent event only (yes) 3. Date on which the last day of fieldwork coincided with the date of the subsequent event (no)

b)

1. Date of the last day of fieldwork only (yes) 2. Date of the subsequent event only (no) 3. Date on which the last day of fieldwork coincided with the date of the subsequent event (yes)

c)

1. Date of the last day of fieldwork only (yes) 2. Date of the subsequent event only (yes) 3. Date on which the last day of fieldwork coincided with the date of the subsequent event (no)

d)

1. Date of the last day of fieldwork only (no) 2. Date of the subsequent event only (no) 3. Date on which the last day of fieldwork coincided with the date of the subsequent event (yes)

60.

In performance evaluation, variances indicate

a)

Who is responsible for the variances

b)

That actual performance is not in line with the plan

c)

Causes of variances

d)

Something that needs to be investigated

61.

Which of the following reports summarizes the revenue, gains, expenses, and losses of an entity?

a)

Balance sheet

b)

Statement of retained earnings and operating statement

c)

Cash flow statement and income statement

d)

Income statement

62.

The difference between total profit change and productivity-related profit change is

a)

No correct answer

b)

Price recovery component

c)

Productivity ratio component

d)

Quantity change component

63.

Management control is

a)

The process of deciding on strategy

b)

The process of implementing strategy

c)

The process of revising strategy

d)

The process of implementing tasks

64.

Sutra Bank lends Canton Furniture Company Rp100,000 on December 1. Canton Furniture Company signs a Rp100,000, 8%, 4-month note. The total cash paid at maturity is:

a)

Rp106,000

b)

Rp104,000

c)

Rp108,000.

d)

Rp104,000.

65.

In vertical analysis

a)

Determination of the base amount is required

b)

Determination of the base amount is optional

c)

Comparative financial statements are required

d)

Comparative financial statements are optional

66.

The following accounts arranged in order of liquidity are:

a)

Accounts Receivable, Inventory, Cash and Cash Equivalents

b)

Cash and Cash Equivalents, Marketable Securities, Accounts Receivable

c)

Cash and Cash Equivalents, Accounts Receivable, Marketable Securities

d)

Marketable Securities, Cash and Cash Equivalents, Accounts Receivable

67.

Productivity is related to

a)

Producing output efficiently

b)

There is no correct answer

c)

Producing output quickly

d)

Producing the maximum possible output

68.

All of the following accounts are reported as current liabilities, EXCEPT:

a)

Sales tax payable

b)

Accounts payable

c)

Bonds payable

d)

Unearned revenue

69.

Events that have financial impacts on a business and can be reliably measured are called:

a)

Expenses

b)

Transactions

c)

Assets

d)

Journals

70.

A multinational corporation is a company that

a)

Manufactures goods in foreign trade zones

b)

Exports finished goods to other countries

c)

All of the above

d)

Imports raw materials from other countries

71.

The accounting method that records revenue when cash is received and records expenses when cash is paid is:

a)

Accrual method

b)

Cash method

c)

Hybrid method

d)

Accrual method

72.

The standard cost of PT Luna is Rp200,000 and the allowable deviation is Rp20,000. The upper and lower control limits are

a)

Rp220,000 and Rp180,000

b)

Rp200,000 and Rp180,000

c)

Rp220,000 and Rp200,000

d)

Rp210,000 and Rp190,000

73.

Output controls are not designed to ensure that the data generated by the computer is:

a)

Complete

b)

Accurate

c)

Shared only with authorized personnel

d)

Appropriately used by management

74.

The cost incurred to determine whether the quality of products and services meets requirements is called

a)

External failure cost

b)

Appraisal cost

c)

Prevention cost

d)

Internal failure cost

75.

Which of the following options describes the sequence of the continuous improvement cycle?

a)

Act-plan-check-maintain

b)

Plan-maintain-check-act

c)

Plan-do-check-act

d)

Plan-check-maintain-act

76.

In the statement of cash flows, which of the following is NOT considered a financing activity?

a)

Deferred income tax

b)

Foreign currency effects on cash value

c)

Payment of interest on long-term debt

d)

Repayment of long-term debt

77.

Environmental costs in environmental cost reports are presented as a total percentage of

a)

Product costs

b)

Sales

c)

Operating costs

d)

Total Environmental Costs

78.

Petty cash funds are unlikely to be used to pay for which of the following items?

a)

Small donations to local charities

b)

Postage for mail

c)

Monthly interest expenses

d)

Office supplies

79.

Operational productivity measurement uses _____ to measure input and output.

a)

Dollars

b)

Physical quantities

c)

Revenue

d)

Costs

80.

Gross profit margin is calculated by dividing gross profit by:

a)

Net sales

b)

Net income

c)

Cost of goods sold

d)

Operating expenses

81.

Company profitability is calculated by

a)

Summing the profit of each value stream

b)

Summing the profit of each value stream and then subtracting sustaining costs to obtain gross factory/company profit

c)

Summing the profit of each value stream, subtracting sustaining costs, and then adjusting for changes in inventory to obtain gross factory/company profit

d)

Summing the profit of each value stream and then adjusting for changes in inventory to obtain gross factory/company profit

82.

Possible misstatements can arise from:

a)

1) Calculation of sampling errors for cash account (No) 2) Differences in judgment between management and auditor regarding account balances (Yes) 3) Misstatement

b)

1) Calculation of sampling errors for cash accounts (Yes) 2) Differences in considerations between management and auditors regarding account balances (No) 3) Projection of misstatement based on auditor tests on samples from a population (No)

c)

1) Calculation of sampling errors for cash accounts (Yes) 2) Differences in considerations between management and auditors regarding account balances (Yes) 3) Projection of misstatement based on auditor tests on samples from a population (No)

d)

1) Calculation of sampling errors for cash accounts (No) 2) Differences in considerations between management and auditors regarding account balances (No) 3) Projection of misstatement based on auditor tests on samples from a population (No)

83.

________ is recorded as a long-term asset when purchased or developed, and its cost is allocated to expense through a process called depletion.

a)

Franchise

b)

Intangible asset

c)

Trademark

d)

Natural resource

84.

Which of the following is most reliable for verifying accounts payable balances?

a)

Bill of lading

b)

Vendor statement

c)

Confirmation

d)

Invoice from the vendor

85.

The following are ratios that assess a company's liquidity, EXCEPT:

a)

Debt-to-asset ratio

b)

Current ratio

c)

Inventory turnover ratio

d)

Acid-test ratio

86.

There must be periodic physical counts by the client of inventory on hand

a)

regardless of the client's inventory valuation method

b)

when the client uses the lower cost or market method

c)

when the client uses the LIFO method

d)

when the client uses both the LIFO and FIFO methods

87.

PT Tanah owns 500 common shares of PT Rumput. PT Rumput has 100,000 common shares outstanding. PT Rumput is a:

a)

Investor

b)

Parent company

c)

Controlling company

d)

Investee

88.

Productivity ratio is used as a partial measure of operational productivity, calculated by the formula:

a)

Input/Cost

b)

Input/Output

c)

Input/Sales

d)

Output/Input

89.

Which of the following statements is true about application controls?

a)

Application controls relate to various aspects of the IT function including physical security and transaction processing across various cycles

b)

Application controls relate to all aspects of the IT function

c)

Application controls relate to various aspects of the IT function including software acquisition and transaction processing

d)

Application controls relate to individual transaction processes

90.

Corporations, as one form of business entity, provide the following benefits, except:

a)

separation between ownership and management

b)

sustainable existence

c)

protection through government regulation

d)

limited liability for owners

91.

The costs associated with activities that occur after the disposal of contaminants and waste into the environment are referred to as

a)

Environmental external failure costs

b)

Environmental detection costs

c)

Environmental internal failure costs

d)

Environmental prevention costs

92.

Based on the audit evidence collected and evaluated, the auditor decides to increase the level of control risk from the originally planned. To achieve an overall audit risk level substantially the same as the planned audit risk level, the auditor will:

a)

increase the materiality level

b)

reduce substantive testing

c)

reduce detection risk

d)

increase inherent risk

93.

If ABC Corporation has net sales of Rp600,000 and cost of goods sold of Rp390,000, the gross profit percentage is

a)

54%

b)

25%

c)

35%

d)

65%

94.

What is the method to calculate cost per unit?

a)

By dividing total production costs by the number of units produced

b)

By adding variable costs per unit to total fixed costs

c)

By adding all variable costs per unit associated with the units produced

d)

By dividing total fixed costs by the number of units produced

95.

Short-term promissory notes payable are:

a)

one of the accounts shown after long-term liabilities

b)

one of the accounts shown in current liabilities

c)

the result of subtracting notes receivable on the balance sheet

d)

generally for a period of 6 to 8 months.

96.

Audit standards ________ that the basis used to determine preliminary judgments about materiality is documented in the audit file.

a)

allow

b)

require

c)

encourage

d)

do not allow

97.

In the balanced scorecard, ____ measures the outcomes of efforts in the past.

a)

Objective measures

b)

Lag measures

c)

Financial measures

d)

External measures

98.

The process of allocating the cost of fixed assets as expenses during the period in which the assets are used is called:

a)

amortization

b)

allocation

c)

disclosure

d)

depreciation

99.

PT Mobil Indonesia sells new cars. PT Mobil Indonesia is likely to use the ________ method for its ending inventory cost.

a)

LIFO

b)

weighted average

c)

FIFO

d)

specific identification/unit cost

100.

When expressing an unqualified opinion, an auditor evaluating audit findings must be confident that:

a)

Known misstatements are documented in management representation letters

b)

Known misstatements are recognized and recorded by the client

c)

Estimates of likely misstatements include sample errors

d)

Estimates of known and likely misstatements are less than the materiality level

101.

When an auditor seeks to understand the operation of an accounting system by tracing several transactions through the accounting system, the auditor is said to be:

a)

performing tests of controls

b)

conducting a walk-through

c)

tracing

d)

vouching

102.

Velocity is the number of units

a)

sold in a specific period of time

b)

examined within a specific timeframe

c)

that can be produced within a specific timeframe

d)

delivered within a specific timeframe

103.

Which of the following formulas would be used to calculate the spending variance related to variable overhead?

a)

(actual hours- standard hours) x actual variable overhead rate

b)

(actual variable overhead rate- standard variable overhead rate) x standard hours

c)

(actual hours- standard hours) x standard variable overhead rate

d)

(actual variable overhead rate- standard variable overhead rate) x actual hours

104.

Total changes in a company's equity from all sources other than business owners are:

a)

earnings per share

b)

investment capitalization

c)

comprehensive income

d)

earnings quality

105.

Non-depreciated fixed assets are:

a)

land

b)

furniture

c)

patents

d)

machinery

106.

Accounting principles dictate that a company records warranty costs in the same period as the recognition of revenue from sales. The principle referred to is:

a)

matching principle

b)

consistency principle

c)

going concern principle

d)

conservatism principle

107.

The statement of changes in equity will include all of the following transactions EXCEPT:

a)

cumulative translation adjustments

b)

gains from foreign exchange

c)

Cash dividends declared by the board of directors

d)

Treasury stock repurchased by the company

108.

Bonds that have periodic installments due over a specified period are called

a)

term bonds

b)

call option bonds

c)

serial bonds

d)

convertible bonds

109.

Which audit test involves physical examination and confirmation?

a)

tests of controls

b)

tests of balances

c)

analytical procedures

d)

tests of transactions

110.

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding internal controls involving segregation of duties?

a)

Only employees responsible for recording should authorize transactions

b)

Employees authorizing transactions should not have custody of related assets

c)

Employees are allowed to open evidence of cash receipts and record those receipts

d)

Employees should not have custody of assets either temporarily or permanently

111.

Which of the following services provides the lowest level of assurance on financial statements?

a)

Services that do not provide assurance on financial statements

b)

Any service that provides a level of assurance on financial statements

c)

Review

d)

Audit

112.

In the context of WebTrust attestation engagements, what assurance do public accountants provide that a company's website complies with Trust Services principles?

a)

moderate

b)

absolute

c)

limited

d)

reasonable

113.

Audit and accounting issues are resolved by the "proof of cash" procedure through

a)

reconciling book and bank balances

b)

identifying cash transfers

c)

adjusting account balances

d)

determining month-end balances

114.

The cost of the value stream product is calculated by

a)

finding the sum of the unit costs of each product

b)

dividing the total value stream cost in one period by the number of units shipped during that period

c)

calculating the total cost of each product

d)

calculating the total cost of each product and multiplying by the number of products

115.

Financial statements that report cash receipts and cash payments classified according to the company's main activities in operations, investing, and financing are:

a)

cash flow statements

b)

balance sheets

c)

statements of operations

d)

profit and loss statements

116.

Which of the following audit tests forms the basis for the auditor's report on internal controls over financial reporting?

a)

Analytical procedures

b)

Tests of controls

c)

Tests of detail balances

d)

Tests of transactions

117.

Which of the following options is typically prepared prior to the preparation of the direct materials purchase budget?

a)

Pro forma balance sheet

b)

Cash budget

c)

Pro forma income statement

d)

Production budget

118.

The proper segregation of duties for one function is illustrated by the following segregation of duties:

a)

authorization, payment, and recording

b)

authorization, execution, and payment

c)

custody, execution, and reporting

d)

authorization, recording, and custody

119.

Equipment is acquired by issuing a promissory note of Rp57,000 and a down payment of Rp30,000. The cash flow statement will present:

a)

Rp57,000 cash inflow in the financing activities section

b)

Rp30,000 cash inflow in the operating activities section

c)

Rp57,000 cash inflow in the investing activities section

d)

Rp30,000 cash outflow in the investing activities section