WorksheetsED1 revision
Total questions: 71
Worksheet time: 36mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The Montreal Protocol Is an international agreement aimed at reducing the impact of human activity on?
a)
Major accidents
b)
Ozone depletion
c)
Transportation
d)
Global warming
2.
Nitrogen fixation can occur by which of the following?
a)
Evaporation
b)
Photosynthesis
c)
All of the above
d)
Acid rain
e)
The action of lighting
3.
Which of the following could be statutory nuisances? (Select 2 options)
a)
Animals
b)
Policy commitments
c)
Road blockages
d)
Light
4.
The ‘A’ in BAT in the context of environmental permitting stands for?
a)
Allowable
b)
Average
c)
Available
5.
Which of the following are included within the definition of sustainable development? (Select 2)
a)
Social
b)
Environmental
c)
Risk Management
d)
Resources
e)
Economic
6.
Which of the following is a type of cost-benefit analysis?
a)
Contingent ranking
b)
Expensive haggling
c)
Contingent tracking
d)
Cost variation
7.
In an environmental Impact Assessment which of the following represents the second stage in the production of Environmental statement?
a)
Selection
b)
Scoping
c)
Screen
d)
Assessing
8.
The data collection phase of a life cycle analysis is known as:
a)
Life cycle race
b)
life cycle Impact Assessment
c)
Live
d)
Life Cycle inventory analysis
9.
Which of the following is defined as a substance which has a lethal effect of 50% of the test population?
a)
LE50
b)
EC50
c)
LC50
d)
EE50
10.
Which of the following is defined as the concentration which has an effect on 50% of a test population of organisms
a)
AC50
b)
DC50
c)
LC50
d)
EC50
11.
Which of the following legislation required emergency plans to be developed
a)
Comah regulations
b)
Access to the environmental information regulations
c)
The environmental emergency plan regulations
d)
Duty of care regulations
12.
Which of the following constitute planning in the context of an environmental management system? (select 2)
a)
Internal auditing
b)
Providing environmental awareness training
c)
Developing Environmental objectives
d)
Contaminating land
e)
Developing a legal register
13.
What is the first item on the environmental risk hierarchy control?
a)
Elucidation
b)
Elimination
c)
Elevation
d)
Education
14.
Which of the following is a requirement of an environmental policy in ISO 14001?
a)
Commitment to reduce the release of hazardous substances
b)
Commitment to fulfill compliance obligations
c)
Commit commitment
d)
Commitment to pollute the air
15.
Exercises to test emergency plans might take the form on which of the following? 2 marks
a)
Incidents
b)
Walk by
c)
Drills
d)
Desktop
16.
Which of the following are points to consider about the style of report writing? (select 2)
a)
Clarity
b)
Complete
c)
Common sense
d)
Control
17.
Which of the following are examples of active monitoring criteria (select2)?
a)
Recording water consumption
b)
Number of Environmental accidents
c)
Checking integrity of a Bund wall
d)
Internal Environmental audits
18.
Which European directive requires appropriate environmental performance indicators are reported?
a)
Accounts environmental directed
b)
Accounts reporting directive
c)
Account display directive
d)
Account modernisation directive
19.
An audit that assesses environmental liabilities is known as a:
a)
Due diligence review
b)
Due process audit
c)
Initial environmental review
d)
Lawyer audit
20.
Which of the following is an example of audit criteria?
a)
Air abatement device
b)
Risk assessment
c)
Management systems standard
d)
Operators performance
21.
In lawmaking what colour is the paper that is a statement of government intent with it's contents being of a consultative nature?
a)
Purple with blue stripes
b)
White
c)
Blue
d)
Green
22.
Which of the following regulations are made under the Environmental Protection Act 1990? (select 2)
a)
Groundwater Regulations 1998
b)
The hazardous waste (England and Wales) regulations 2005
c)
Control of pollution (boil storage) (England) regulations 2001
d)
Contaminated land (England) regulations 2006
23.
Fill in the gap in the following statement: “ A **** is a formally concluded and rectified agreement between EU member states”
a)
Regulation
b)
Act of Parliament
c)
Treaty
d)
Directive
24.
Which of the following are examples of framework acts? (select 2)
a)
Water Resources Act 1991
b)
Environmental Permit Regulations 2007
c)
Environmental Protection Act 1990
d)
Clean Air Act 1956
25.
Which of the following terms was introduced by the alki, etc. Works regulation at 1906 and is still included in environmental legislation today?
a)
Best Polluting Policy
b)
Best Practical Means
c)
Best Available Technique
d)
Best Practicable Environmental Option
26.
Which of the following are not UK environmental regulatory bodies? (select 2)
a)
Fire Service
b)
Local authorities
c)
Ambulance service
d)
Water authorities
27.
What is the name of a notice that can be issued to owner or occupier of contaminated land to ensure that the land is cleaned up?
a)
Prohibition notice
b)
Enforcement notice
c)
Revocation notice
d)
Remediation notice
28.
Which of the following are certain organisations required to apply to obtain an installation permit and the environmental permit regulations?
a)
BPEO
b)
BATNEEC
c)
BAT
d)
RIDDOR
29.
Which of the following has to be prepared to satisfy the requirement for site Restorations and decommissioning under the Environmental Permit Regulations 2007?
a)
Sites report
b)
Site review
c)
Restoration plan
d)
All of the above
30.
Which of the following are not offences under the PPC act? (select 2)
a)
To operate an installation in lieu of a permit
b)
To make entries into register
c)
To operate insulation with a permit
d)
To falsify documents
31.
Which of the following are non-governmental organisations question marks (select 2)
a)
RSBP
b)
DEFRA
c)
Greenpeace
d)
Environment Agency
32.
Identify the external environmental stakeholders from the list below? select to close (Select 2)
a)
Environmental manager
b)
Regulators
c)
Employees
d)
Residence surrounding the site
33.
Which of the following pieces of legislation recently altered the environmental reporting requirements for organisations?
a)
Environmental Permitting Regulations 2007
b)
Companies Act 2006
c)
Substance at 200
d)
Environmental Protection Act 1990
34.
Which of the following is an environmental label?
a)
EU notalabel
b)
EU Ecolabel
c)
EU Suslabel
d)
EU Envlabel
35.
Which of the following organisations set good-practice guidelines for producing sustainability reports?
a)
GER
b)
GBR
c)
GDR
d)
GRI
36.
Which of the following are not defences under the tort of negligence?
a)
Stick welding
b)
Foreseeability
c)
Volenti Non Fit Injuria
d)
No Breach of Duty
37.
Which of the following cases is the following extract taken from? “..contracted mesothelioma, and the company admitted that the cause was the asbestos from their factory. Actions for negligence, nuisance and the rule of Rylands v. Fletcher were brought against the company”.
a)
Alphacell v. Woodward (1972)
b)
Margereson and Hancock v. J. W. Robert Ltd (1996)
c)
Ballard v. Tomlinson (1885)
d)
Cambridge Water Co. Ltd v. Eastern Counties Leather plc (1994)
38.
Which of the following identifies the gap in the following statement? “ A ****** in English law is a civil wrong, a breach of civil Duty imposed by law”
a)
Nuisance
b)
Neighbour
c)
Delict
d)
Tort
39.
In which of the following cases was the “ neighbour principle” established?
a)
Margereson and Hancock v. J. W. Robert Ltd (1996)
b)
Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932)
c)
Binns v. Burnley Football Club (1999)
d)
Lamb v. London Borough of Camden
40.
Which of the following apply to criminal law? (Select 2)
a)
Cases are heard in a magistrates court
b)
The burden of Proof is on the balance of probabilities
c)
Acts of Parliament are an example
d)
Primary aim is compensation for being paid
41.
Which of the following is the last item in the waste hierarchy of control?
a)
Reduction
b)
Composting
c)
Disposal
d)
Recycling
42.
Which of the following are examples of physical methods which can be used to treat waste? (select 2)
a)
Anaerobic digestion
b)
Screening
c)
Ion exchange
d)
Oxidation ponds
43.
A written description of hazardous waste that must be completed when has this waste is removed from a premises is known:
a)
As a consignment note
b)
A transfer note
c)
A waste note
d)
A collection note
44.
Fill in the gaps in the following States. “***** ***** is when measurements are taken automatically, with few if any gaps in the data produced.”
a)
Environmental auditing
b)
Extractive sampling
c)
Continuous monitoring
d)
Periodic monitoring
45.
Which of the following are a controlled waste? ( Select 3)
a)
Domestic waste
b)
Waste oil for manufacturing Industries
c)
Radioactive
d)
Paper
46.
Which of the following statement devices operate by causing the airflow to change Direction rapidly into a spiral, particles out of the air stream towards the War of the device?
a)
Peat bed
b)
Fabric filter
c)
Wet scrubber
d)
Cyclone
47.
What does CEM stand for in the context of Environmental monitoring?
a)
Continual Expression Measurement
b)
Continuous Emissions Measuring
c)
Continuous Emissions Monitoring
d)
Continual Environmental Monitor
48.
Under which of the following pieces of legislation can an Air Quality Management Area (AQMA) be designated for?
a)
Control of Substances Hazardous to Health Regulations 2002
b)
Quality Limit Values Regulations 2001
c)
Environmental Protection Act 1990
d)
Environment Act 1995 (Part IV)
49.
Under which of the following designations are specified actions mandatory?
a)
Nitrate certificated areas
b)
Nitrate protection zones
c)
Nitrate vulnerable zones
d)
Nitrate sensitive zones
50.
Which of the following covers legal requirements for the abstraction of water from a borehole
a)
Water Pollution act 1987
b)
Water Abstraction Act 2002
c)
Water Industry act 1991
d)
Water Resources Act 1990
51.
What colour is the list of the 23 most dangerous substances for the water environment selected for priority control under the integrated pollution control legislation?
a)
pH adjustment
b)
Coagulation
c)
Filtration
d)
Clarification
52.
Under which act are the anti-pollution works Regulations 1999 made?
a)
Water Act 1993
b)
Water Industry act 1991
c)
Water Pollution act 1965
d)
Water Resources act 1991
53.
Which of the following is the standard that is used to assess industrial noise and the potential for complaints?
a)
BS 4141
b)
BS 4142
c)
BS 4143
d)
BS 4140
54.
Which of the following is a defence for statutory nuisance?
a)
Best Available Technique
b)
Best Polluting Mechanism
c)
Best Practicable Environmental Option
d)
Best Practical Means
55.
Fill in the gap in the following. “As an approximation, if you have to shout to be heard at a distance of 1 m, then the background sound that was likely to be **** dB.”
a)
35
b)
140
c)
90
d)
60
56.
Which of the following deals with noise nuisance, particularly night-time noise from domestic properties?
a)
Control of Pollution act 1974
b)
Noise Act 1996
c)
Noise Nuisance Act 2005
d)
Control of noise at work regulations 2005
57.
Which of the following substances has the potential to cause acidification of upland lakes and rivers when released into air?
a)
PCB’s
b)
Chromium
c)
NOx
d)
CFC
58.
Which of the following restrict the use of certain hazardous substances in electrical and electronic?
a)
WEEE regulations
b)
COSHH regulations
c)
RoHS regulations
d)
COMAH regulations
59.
A discharge of sewage from a pipeline into a river would be an example of which of the following?
a)
Diffuse source
b)
Receptor
c)
Point source
d)
Pathway
60.
Notification of Cooling Towers and Evaporative Condensers Regulations 1992 is aimed at preventing health effects associated with exposure to which of the following microorganisms?
a)
Clostridium
b)
Leptospirosis
c)
Legionella
d)
Sreptococcus
61.
Which of the following organisations processes approvals for pesticides in the UK?
a)
Royal Agricultural Society
b)
Employers Medical Advisory Service (EMAS)
c)
Health and Safety Executive
d)
Environment Agency
62.
Which designation was created under the Article 4 of the European Union Council directive on the conservation of wild birds(79/409/EEC)?
a)
Special Areas of Conservation
b)
Special Protection Areas
c)
RAMSAR
d)
Sites of Special Scientific Interest
63.
Which of the following publications are prepared by local planning authorities taking into account national and regional planning policy?
a)
MPS’s
b)
LDDs
c)
PPGs
d)
RSSs
64.
Which phase of contaminated land investigation involves the clean-up of identified contamination?
a)
Phase IV
b)
Phase II
c)
Phase III
d)
Phase I
65.
Which of the following values should be used in the United Kingdom, if available, for comparing against contamination levels in samples to assess whether the land causes an unacceptable risk to human health?
a)
Kelly indices
b)
CLEA
c)
French stand
d)
ICRCL standards
66.
What is the name of a site where the degree or nature of contamination is such that the Environment Agency/ Natural resources Wales will enforce the remediation of the site?
a)
Applied site
b)
Special site
c)
Complex site
d)
Exceptional site
67.
Which of the following are included in the ‘basket’ of greenhouse gases included within the Kyoto Protocol? (Select 2)
a)
Carbon Dioxide
b)
Nitrogen Dioxide
c)
Methane
d)
HCFC
68.
Fill in the gaps in the following. Statement “ A ***** ****** project allows project specific credits to be converted from existing credits within Annex I countries under the Kyoto protocol”?
a)
Joint implementation
b)
Waste minimisation
c)
Carbon reduction
d)
Clean development
69.
Which of the following or adverse environmental impacts of the Burning of fossil fuels? (select 2)
a)
Thermal pollution
b)
Ozone depletion
c)
Reduced production
d)
Smog
70.
Which of the following are renewable sources of energy? (select 2)
a)
Nuclear
b)
Solar
c)
Coal
d)
Wind
71.
Under the EU emissions trading (EU ETS), how much is each allowance worth in carbon dioxide equivalent?
a)
3 tonnes
b)
2 tonnes
c)
1 tonnes
d)
0.5 tonnes
100 %
