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GP 1 - Q2 - Reviewer

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When would a force applied to a rigid body lead to zero torque?

a)

When the force is directed towards or away from the axis of rotation.

b)

When the force is applied perpendicular to the lever arm

c)

When the force is a gravitational force

d)

When the force is a normal force

2.

If an object is moving in a circle of radius r with a constant speed v, what is its angular velocity?

Hint: v = rω

a)

v2 / r

b)

vr

c)

v / r

d)

r / v

3.

A disk rotates with an angular speed (ω). What is the magnitude of the tangential velocity (v) of a point on the disk located a distance (r) away from the axis of rotation?

a)

ωr\omega r  

b)

ωr\frac{\omega}{r}  

c)

rω\frac{r}{\omega}  

d)

ω2r\omega^2r  

4.

What is happening to the ice skater as she brings her leg closer to her torso?

Hint: α = τ / I

and

I = Σmiri2

a)

Decreased angular velocity, decreased moment of inertia

b)

Decreased angular velocity, increased moment of inertia

c)

Increased angular velocity, increased moment of inertia

d)

Increased angular velocity, decreased moment of inertia

5.

The graph above shows the angular velocity (ω) of an object with respect to time.

During which time intervals is there a net torque (τnet) on the object? Select all that apply.

a)

0-2s

b)

2-6s

c)

6-8s

d)

8-10s

6.

A force (F) is applied to a wrench to turn a bolt. The moment of inertia (I) is given for the different bolts.

Which of the following bolts has the greatest angular acceleration (α)?

Hint: α = τ / I = Fr / I

a)

F

b)

A

c)

B

d)

E

e)

C

7.

A force (F) is applied to a wrench to turn a bolt. The moment of inertia is given for each bolt.

Which of the following bolts has the greatest torque? Select all that apply.

Hint: τ = Fr

a)

E

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

F

8.

What happens to his moment of inertia (I) when the figure skater brings in his arms?

Hint: I = Σmiri2

a)

His moment of inertia increases

b)

His moment of inertia decreases

c)

He has no effect on his own moment of inertia

9.

The gravitational attraction between an object near the Earth's surface and the Earth.

a)

normal force

b)

weight

c)

friction

d)

tension

10.

Formula for getting the weight, or gravitational force, of objects near the Earth's surface.

a)

w = m/g

b)

w =mg2

c)

w = mg/2

d)

w = mg

11.

As the Earth pulls on the ball with force magnitude mg,

a)

The ball also pulls on the Earth with force magnitude mg

b)

The ball also pulls on the Earth with a much lesser force magnitude

c)

The ball doesn't pull on the Earth at all.

d)

The ball pulls with a much greater force on the Earth

12.

Who discovered the Law of Gravitation?

a)

Thomas Edison

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

Isaac Newton

d)

Galileo Galilei

13.

Which of the following statements is most true about Newton's law of gravitation?

a)

It is a force that objects with big mass apply on objects with much smaller masses.

b)

It is a force that exists between any two bodies with mass

c)

It is a force that exists between planets, stars and other heavenly bodies.

d)

It is a force that pushes objects around a circle in orbit.

14.

The gravitational force

a)

can be attractive or repulsive

b)

is tangential to the orbital path

c)

is always repulsive

d)

Is always attractive

15.

The gravitational force between the Sun and the Earth

a)

points away from each other

b)

points toward each other

c)

for the sun, pointing upwards; for the earth, pointing downwards

d)

only the sun exerts a gravitational force on the Earth

16.

What happens when the gravitational Force between the Earth and the Sun is suddenly removed?

a)

The Earth will crash towards the sun

b)

The Earth will follow a linear path directed South in this picture

c)

The Earth will continue to follow a circular path

d)

The Earth will follow a linear path directed West in this picture

17.

Why is the gravitational force between Earth-moon different from the gravitational force between Sun-Earth

a)

because the combined mass of moon and Earth is smaller

b)

because the distance between mass and moon is smaller

c)

both statements above are correct

d)

because the Earth is not radiating energy

18.

Which of the following is true about the Fg between two masses?

a)

Fg ∝ m1m2/r

b)

Fg ∝ r/m1m2

c)

Fg ∝ (m1 + m2)/r

d)

Fg ∝ m1m2/r2

19.

Assuming circular orbit, how is the Earth's velocity v related to the radius of orbit r?

a)

v = rα

b)

v = rω

c)

v = r/α

d)

v = r/ω

20.

Which type of harmonic motion refers to oscillatory motion with decreasing amplitude?

a)

critically damped

b)

overdamped

c)

simple

d)

underdamped

21.

What does a wave carry with it as it travels through a medium?

a)

particles

b)

wind

c)

energy

d)

water

22.

In the equation, 

Fs=kxF_s=-kx  , Fs means:

a)

Static Force

b)

Dynamic Force

c)

Restoring Force

d)

Normal Force

23.

At which position is the speed of a particle executing SHM greatest?

a)

It's extreme position

b)

at its equilibrium position

c)

at its maximum displacement

d)

somewhere between amplitude and equilibrium position

24.

Which diagram below does not represent a periodic wave?

a)
b)
c)
d)
25.

The wavelength of a sinusoidal wave divided by the speed of propagation refers to what quantity?

a)

angular frequency

b)

frequency

c)

period

d)

wave

26.

A/an ___________ is a wave in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of propagation.

a)

longitudinal wave

b)

transverse wave

c)

aperiodic wave

d)

seismic wave

27.

Angular frequency is commonly express in __________.

a)

meters per second

b)

radians per second squared

c)

meters per second squared

d)

radians per second

28.

The wave speed of a wave in terms of its wavelength λ and period, T is:

a)

v=λTv=\lambda T

b)

v=λT2v=\lambda T^2

c)

v=λTv=\frac{\lambda}{T}

d)

v=Tλv=\frac{T}{\lambda}

29.

Two progressive waves of the same amplitude and frequency travelling in opposite directions along the same path in the same medium produce:

a)

beats

b)

resonance

c)

standing waves

d)

interference

30.

Which property of wave motion distinguish a progressive wave from standing wave:

a)

amplitude

b)

frequency of vibration

c)

propagation of energy

d)

direction of vibration

31.
Waves are a transfer of what?
a)
Heat
b)
Light
c)
Energy
d)
Food
32.
What property of this wave is represented by the letter "A"
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
33.
The units for frequency are measured in _____________.
a)
hertz
b)
seconds
c)
m/s
d)
m
34.
When the frequency of a wave increases, what happens to the wavelength?
a)
The wavelength is not directly affected by the frequency of a wave.
b)
The wavelength increases.
c)
The wavelength decreases.
d)
More specific information is needed to form a conclusion about the wavelength.
35.

The ratio of force, acting perpendicular to the area, on which it acts known as…

a)

Friction

b)

Pressure

c)

Force

d)

Density

36.

Which term defined as the sum of forces due to fluid pressure.

a)

Buoyant force

b)

net force

c)

Resultant force

d)

Pressure

37.

Which fluid principle states that, a change in pressure at any point in a confined fluid is transmitted in all directions throughout the fluid?

a)

Archimedes’

b)

Bernoulli’s

c)

Buoyant

d)

Pascal’s

38.

Which fluid mechanics principle states that, a fluid exerts an upward buoyant force on a immersed object the same in magnitude to the weight of the volume of fluid displaced by the object?

a)

Archimedes’

b)

Bernoulli’s

c)

Buoyancy

d)

Pascal’s

39.

The vessels shown below all contain water to the same height. Rank them according to the pressure exerted by the water on the vessel bottoms, least to greatest.

a)

3, 4, 2, 1

b)

4, 3, 2, 1

c)

2, 3, 4, 1

d)

All pressures are the same

40.

A loaded ship passes from a lake (fresh water) to the ocean (saltwater). Saltwater is more dense than fresh water and as a result the ship will:

a)

ride higher in the water

b)

settle lower in the water

c)

ride at the same level in the water

d)

experience an increase in buoyant force

41.

Which fluid mechanics principle explained in terms of the law of conservation of energy?

a)

Archimedes’

b)

Bernoulli’s

c)

Pascal’s

d)

Poiseuille’s

42.

Bernoulli’s principle is widely used in our daily life. Among the choices, below what is NOT an example of Bernoulli’s principle?

a)

Aircraft

b)

Baseball

c)

Hydraulic Jack

d)

Sailing

43.

What is the purpose of using temperature in science?

a)

to make science interesting

b)

to quantify data

c)

because the word hot does not translate

d)

cold can mean hot in other countries

44.

What does temperature measure?

a)

the amount of friction in a system

b)

the amount of heat energy available for work in a system

c)

the amount of work done by a system

d)

the amount of jewels in a system

45.

Heat will flow from ________ to _________.

a)

top to bottom

b)

bottom to top

c)

hot to cool

d)

cold to hot

46.

Heat will continue to flow until a system has reached __________.

a)

Thermal equilibrium

b)

10 degrees celsius

c)

maximum volume

d)

atmospheric pressure

47.

Heat is a transfer of energy of one object to another because of a difference in temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

For an ideal gas several assumptions are made about the particles including

a)

they collide elastically with each other and the container wall

b)

they experience significant intermolecular forces

c)

the volume they occupy as individual particles is insignificant compared to the volume of the container

d)

there are a very large number of particles inside the container

49.

In the equation of state for an ideal gas pV = nRT

a)

n = number of particles in the gas

b)

p = pressure of the gas

c)

R = the molar gas constant 8.31 JK-1mol-1

d)

T = temperature in degrees celcius

50.

For an ideal gas at constant temperature and density ρ what effect would doubling the density have on the mean square speed?

a)

none

b)

mean square speed would double

c)

mean square speed would halve

d)

mean square speed would quadruple

51.

For an ideal gas at constant temperature and pressure p at volume V, what affect would halving the pressure have on the volume?

a)

volume would double

b)

volume would halve

c)

volume would triple

d)

none

52.

How many atoms are there in a mole of helium gas?

a)

6.02 × 1013

b)

6.02 × 1023

c)

1.20 × 1014

d)

1.20 × 1024

53.

The following gases are at the same temperature. Which molecule will have the slowest r.m.s. speed?

a)

hydrogen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

helium

54.

If an ideal gas is compressed isothermally, which of

the following statements is true?

a)

Energy is transferred to the gas by heat.

b)

No work is done on the gas.

c)

The temperature of the gas increases.

d)

The internal energy of the gas remains constant.

e)

None of those statements is true

55.

What is the equation for the first law of thermodynamics?

a)

ΔU=QW\Delta U=Q-W

b)

Q=ΔU+WQ=\Delta U+W

c)

W=QΔUW=Q-\Delta U

d)

W=ΔUQW=\Delta U-Q

56.

A Carnot engine operates between 200°C and 20°C. Its maximum possible efficiency is

a)

90%

b)

100%

c)

38%

d)

24%

e)

72%

57.

Which of the following would most likely lead to a spontaneous reaction.

a)

A high negative enthalpy.

b)

A low negative enthalpy.

c)

A high positive enthalpy.

d)

A low positive enthalpy.

58.

What information do we need to perform a calculation of Gibbs Free Energy?

a)

Enthalpy of the reaction.

b)

Entropy of the reaction.

c)

The temperature of the reaction in Kelvin.

d)

All of the above are needed.

59.

Entropy is a measure of

a)

accuracy

b)

precision

c)

the disorder of a system

d)

the attraction of a nucleus for an electron

60.
Entropy increases from solid, liquid to gas. Why?
a)
Molecular disorder increases
b)
Molecular randomness decreases
c)
Molecules are more energetic
d)
Molecules are more reactive