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Economics Quiz

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When the demanded goods quality is equal to supplied good's quantity, then____.

a)

when you see a shortage

b)

when you see a surplus

c)

when you see the government is investing in the market

d)

none of these

2.

The shape of the demand curve is_____.

a)

downward sloping

b)

upward-sloping

c)

vertical

d)

horizontal

3.

When the restaurant that serves fast food increases in the number, this leads to_____.

a)

An increase in fast-food meal supply

b)

the growth in fast-food meal demand

c)

a growth is seen in the demand for substitutes for such meals

d)

increase in the rate of such meals

4.

Many of the supply curve____ due to increases in marginal cost.

a)

is vertical

b)

is horizontal

c)

has a positive slope

d)

has a negative slope

5.

When one moves up with the supply curve, which one of these metrics is not a part of the constant factor?

a)

the seller numbers

b)

the commodity prices

c)

expected prices in the future

d)

the resources cost that was used for commodity production

6.

What will be the supply when the price change is by 1%, and the change in supply is by 2%?

a)

indeterminate

b)

elastic

c)

inelastic

d)

static

7.

What will happen if the rate of complementary goods has a downfall or there's an increase in consumer income?

a)

the products demand curve shifts towards the right

b)

the products supply curve shifts toward the right

c)

the products supply curve shifts toward the right

d)

the products demand curve shifts towards the right

8.

While we draw the demand curve, which of these assumptions are there?

a)

the substitute price should not change

b)

the curve for demand should be linear

c)

there should be no change in commodity price

d)

the demanded quantity does not change

9.

The relation of ______ is by the law of demand.

a)

the quantity and price of commodity

b)

the price and income of commodity

c)

demand quantity and demand-supply of commodity

d)

income and demand quantity of a commodity

10.

For the demand for durable goods, the elasticity is____.

a)

zero

b)

greater than the unity

c)

equal to the unity

d)

less than the unity

11.

The demand elasticity turns out to be _____when the product price comes down by 10% and the demand for the product goes up by 30%.

a)

3

b)

30

c)

13

d)

d.10

12.

The demand for commodity turns out to be ____ when the demanded quantity of commodity does not respond to change in its prices.

a)

inelastic

b)

unit elastic

c)

elastic

d)

perfectly inelastic

13.

Which one out of the mentioned options is not a cause of change or shift in demand for any product?

a)

when the substitute price is changed

b)

when there is a change in product price

c)

when a change in consumer income is seen

d)

none of these

14.

When for a commodity, the elasticity of demand is low, the product______?

a)

Is a necessity

b)

is a luxury

c)

is a little important in overall budget

d)

none of these

15.

A price increase price will result in_____ when the product demand is perfectly inelastic.

a)

a rise in total income from a certain product

b)

a downfall in the demanded quantity of product

c)

no changes in total income from a certain product

d)

a reduction in total income from a certain product

16.

When the total revenue from product and the price moves in the same direction, then the demand is________.

a)

elastic

b)

perfectly elastic

c)

unrelated

d)

inelastic

17.

The supply curve will be_____ when the supply elasticity is greater than one.

a)

horizontal

b)

vertical

c)

touching y-axis

d)

passing through the origin

18.

Can an increase in demand for certain products make the supply curve shift in any direction?

a)

the curve will move in the right direction

b)

no effect on the supply

c)

A change in the slope of a supply curve

d)

the curve will move in the left direction

19.

We can see the upward slope of a firm supply curve due to____.

a)

consumers see a positive relationship between the quantity and price

b)

the production expansion leads to the use of inferior inputs

c)

the cost of production of extra units of output will rise beyond a point

d)

none of these

20.

Without changing the price_____ moves to a rise in commodity supply.

a)

fall in the supply

b)

decrease in the supply

c)

the rise in the supply

d)

expansion in the supply

21.

In a certain year, the workers experienced bad weather. If the rest of the factors remain the same, the supply curve of that product will move in which direction?

a)

leftward

b)

upward

c)

rightward

d)

none of these

22.

If the supply curve of the market moves to the right side, which of these will explain the shift at best?

a)

making a commodity production at low cost by introducing a new technique

b)

increase in the raw material rate

c)

government introducing a tax on that certain product

d)

none of the above

23.

Out of these scenarios, which one will not change the curve of demand for a certain product?

a)

when we see a reduction in the amount of raw material of that thing or product

b)

when a study says, the product is not good for health

c)

when we see another campaign for goods

d)

change in consumers' income

24.

Out of these scenarios, which won't lead to a demand change for the product?

a)

a switch in consumer taste

b)

increase in consumer income

c)

changes in the price

d)

none of these

25.

In July 2012, a company was giving 6000kgs of flour at the market value of rupee 40 per kg. But in august 2012, the flour supply was reduced to 5500 kg at the market value of rupee 30kg. This change in flour supply is_____.

a)

less elastic

b)

more elastic

c)

perfectly elastic

d)

perfectly inelastic

26.

The demand curve that's horizontal and parallel to the x-axis shows the elasticity of demand to be____.

a)

infinite

b)

zero

c)

greater than zero

d)

equals to one

27.

Which of these doesn't lead to a change in the demand curve?

a)

advertisement

b)

price of product

c)

income

d)

related product price

28.

An increase in income in the countries that are developing leads the curve of demand shift to _____.

a)

up

b)

down

c)

left

d)

right

29.

Coffee and tea are ____ types of goods.

a)

complimentary

b)

substitute

c)

normal

d)

inferior

30.

Tell the marginal revenue of a company that sells an item at a rate of rupee 20 and the elasticity rate of demand for that item is (-) 4.

a)

15

b)

19

c)

5

d)

30

31.

Mention the responsible factor in demand for any natural resource?

a)

increase in human population

b)

scientific advancement

c)

environmental pollution

d)

use of biodegradable resources

32.

Name a phenomenon in which the consumer tends to be exclusive and different by asking for less commodity as many of the people consume the same.

a)

substitution effect

b)

price effect

c)

bandwagon effect

d)

snob effect

33.

Which of the following factors can lead to a rightward shift in the demand curve?

a)

none of these

b)

improvement in consumer preferences

c)

increase in the price of substitutes

d)

decrease in consumer income

34.

What happens to the demand for a product when consumer preferences shift towards it?

a)

it decreases

b)

it becomes perfectly elastic

c)

it remains unchanged

d)

it increases

35.

When the price of a complementary good rises, the demand for the related good will_____.

a)

remain unchanged

b)

decrease

c)

increase

d)

become elastic

36.

This is a pricing strategy recommended for products that have become obsolete:

a)

Survival pricing

b)

Geographic pricing

c)

Price skimming

37.

A competitive pricing strategy is good when the price objectives are status quo oriented.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Coffee pods for Dolce Gusto coffee machine are relatively inexpensive, considering the price of the machine. The pricing strategy used for the pods as auxiliary products is:

a)

Product bundle

b)

Captive product pricing

c)

Creative pricing

d)

All of the options

39.

An appliance store reduces the price of its products when customers pay in cash, instead of in monthly payments. This is an example of:

a)

Volume payment

b)

Prompt payment

c)

Promotions

40.

A movie theater sells its tickets at lower prices to students and seniors. This is an example of:

a)

Prompt payment

b)

Price discrimination

c)

Price skimming

d)

Stability pricing

41.

This strategy usually occurs between intermediaries and consists of reductions in the list price offered to buyers in payment for marketing functions that these buyers will perform, such as storing, promoting and selling the products.

a)

Trade discounts

b)

Survival pricing

c)

Supply and demand pricing

d)

Discounts

42.

Fast food restaurants such as McDonalds use this pricing strategy for selling combos of burgers, fries and a beverage at a lower price than the total price of the items sold individually. This is an example of:

a)

Discounts

b)

Stability pricing

c)

Price discrimination

d)

Product-bundle pricing

43.

In this strategy, all competitors respond to supply and demand, in order to set a market price that reduces shortages and surpluses.

a)

Competitive pricing

b)

Survival pricing

c)

Supply and demand pricing

d)

None of the options

44.

A clothing store puts all its products at 50% discount, due to the change of season. This is an example of:

a)

Survival pricing

b)

Price discrimination

c)

Block pricing

d)

Promotion

45.

The price skimming consists of setting high prices and reducing them over time to maximize the long-term profit.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Price varies by attribute such as a location or by Customer Segment is ________ degree of Price Discrimination

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth

47.

Price Discrimination cannot persist under the following

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Monopoly

d)

Oligopoly

48.
A firm with market power engages in price discrimination to:
a)
earn a higher profit
b)
increase consumer surplus
c)
decrease deadweight loss
d)
make its demand more elastic 
49.
In order for a firm to engage in price discrimination, it must be: 
a)
producing in the inelastic portion of its demand curve to raise its price and increase total revenue 
b)
a price taker
c)
able to separate consumers into different groups based on demand elasticities 
d)
experiencing economies of scale in the relevant range of production
50.

Unlike perfect competition, a monopolist can make abnormal profits in the long run.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Sweezy' s Model explains the concept of price rigidity relating to the following market forms

a)

Oligopolistic Market

b)

Perfect Competition Market

c)

Monopoly Market

d)

Monopolistic Competition

52.

Which of the following statements is in correct?

a)

Under monopoly there is no difference between a firm and industry

b)

A monopolist may restrict the output and raise the price

c)

Free entry and exit in a Monopoly Market

d)

Product differenciation is peculiar to monopolistic competition

53.

Pure oligopoly is based on the _____ products.

a)

Differentiated

b)

Homogeneous

c)

Unrelated

d)

none of the above

54.

A monopolist is a

a)

Price maker

b)

Price taker

c)

Price adjuster

d)

none of the above

55.

Under monopoly, the degree of control over price is:

a)

none

b)

same

c)

very considerable

d)

none of the above

56.

They are the curves that represents various combinations of two inputs that produce the same amount of output.

a)

Isoquant

b)

Long run curve

c)

Short run curve

d)

Marginal cost curve

57.

The ratio of the percentage change in quantity demanded to the percentage change in price; measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price.

a)

Elasticity of demand

b)

Price elasticity

c)

Income elasticity

d)

Cross elasticity

58.

Large No of firms with homogeneous products is a feature of

a)

Oligopoly

b)

Perfect competition

c)

Monopoly

d)

Monopolistic

59.

A single producer, without close substitute is a feature of

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect competition

60.

Many firms with real or perceived product differentiation is a feature of

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect competition

61.

Few firms with little or no product differentiation is a feature of

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect competition

62.

Manufacturing: tea, toothpastes, soaps, TV sets, shoes, refrigerators etc is the nature of product prevalent in which industry

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect competition

63.

Kinked demand curve is associated with

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect competition

64.

Long run cost curve is also called envelope curve

a)

True

b)

False

65.

The price skimming consists of setting high prices and reducing them over time to maximize the long-term profit.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Which statement best describes "Price"?

a)

The cost of producing items

b)

The amount customers are charged for items

c)

The profit earned from selling items

67.

What is price skimming?

a)

An initially high price charged to customer which will reduce over time

b)

An initially low price charged to customer which will increase over time

c)

A steady price charged to customer regardless of product age

68.

What is an advantage of price skimming?

a)

Gains market share

b)

Covers costs and breaks even

c)

Allows an organisation to make the largest profit possible

69.

What is Promotional pricing?

a)

When a business offers different prices to different customers

b)

When a business reduces price to below production cost to clear stock

c)

When a business offers a short term special offer such as buy one get one free to gain interest and increase sales

70.

What is meant by Psychological pricing strategy?

a)

Items are offered at an uneven number to appear cheaper encouraging sales (eg £9.99)

b)

Items are sold using a special promotional offer which is brightly coloured and attracts attention

c)

Items are sold at production cost price to attract customers into the store and increase purchases

71.

What sets the floor for product prices?

a)

consumer perceptions of the product's value

b)

product costs

c)

competitors' strategies

d)

advertising budgets

72.

Which of the following processes does value-based pricing reverse?

a)

high-low pricing

b)

everyday low pricing

c)

cost-based pricing

d)

good-value pricing

73.

Under oligopolistic competition the market consists of ________.

a)

a single dominant seller

b)

numerous small sellers

c)

many buyers and sellers who trade over a range of prices rather than a single market price

d)

only a few large sellers

74.

________ refers to a measure of the sensitivity of demand to changes in price.

a)

Price elasticity

b)

A demand curve

c)

Price-value equation

d)

Marginal utility

75.

________ pricing uses buyers' perceptions of value as the key to pricing.

a)

Customer value-based

b)

Cost-based

c)

Time-based

d)

Markup

76.

Quantity of payment or compensation given by one party to another in return for goods and services.

a)

Revenue

b)

Price

c)

Sales

d)

Profit Margin

77.

Different markets have different level of price sensitivity. Hence, a one-price-fits all market would not be recommended.

a)

Pricing in different markets

b)

Nature of the market and demand

c)

Price elasticity Demand

d)

Break-even point

78.

Is the level of income that is desired by the company.

a)

Fixed Costs

b)

Variable Costs

c)

Profit Margin

d)

Revenue

79.

What is Loss Leader pricing?

a)

A product is sold at production cost price

b)

A product is sold at less than cost price

c)

A product is sold to make a small profit

80.

What is meant by Psychological pricing strategy?

a)

Items are offered at an uneven number to appear cheaper encouraging sales (eg £9.99)

b)

Items are sold using a special promotional offer which is brightly coloured and attracts attention

c)

Items are sold at production cost price to attract customers into the store and increase purchases

81.

_____________________ are the one you wouldn't necessarily expect to be interested in your business and could be attracted because of other reasons.

a)

Target Customers

b)

Primary Customers

c)

Secondary Customers

d)

Virtual Customers

82.

By knowing the buyers' behaviours, I can...

a)

Better project my sales target and manage inventory

b)

Know what is important for my customers and better increase customer loyalty

c)

Make improvements to the product design and function

d)

Better market my products or services to the customer

83.

Which of the following is not a factor affecting pricing?

a)

Competitors' pricing

b)

Weather

c)

Production cost & distribution cost

d)

Brand positioning (Luxury brand/ down-to-earth brand)

84.

Examples of time based pricing are...

a)

Goods with shorter shelf life will be priced cheaper to reduce wastage

b)

Cheaper food and drinks during happy hours

c)

Airline ticket pricings during peak and non peak period

d)

Hotel pricing on weekends vs weekdays

85.

Printers are usually charged at a lower price, however accompanying ink top-ups are charged a premium price. This is know as _________________

a)

Premium Pricing

b)

Bundle Pricing

c)

Passive Pricing

d)

Captive Product Pricing

86.

Mc Donald charges a premium pricing for it's outlet at Garden by the Bay. This pricing strategy is know as

a)

Premium Pricing

b)

Product Options Pricing

c)

Geographical Pricing

d)

Economy

87.

What is the definition of PRICE ?

a)

The amount of money a consumer must spend in order to get a product.

b)

A value of services determined by money

c)

Benefits of product payed

d)

The amount of product a customer gained

88.

The different terms used to reference pricing is :

a)

The charge

b)

The fare

c)

The price point

d)

The value

89.

Which of the following is NOT an internal factor that affects price ?

a)

Consumer

b)

Product differentiation

c)

Marketing-mix strategies

d)

Organization

90.

Which are EXTERNAL FACTORS ?

a)

Buyer

b)

Nature market and demand

c)

Environment factors

d)

Background market

91.

What is the general pricing approach

a)

cost-based pricing

b)

value-based pricing

c)

break-event pricing

d)

competition-based pricing

92.

What is cost-based pricing ?

a)

cost+markup + final price

b)

cost production + cost manufacturing + final price

c)

cost manufacturing + cost distribution + final price

93.

What type of agreement that competitors agree to fix a price at their advantage?

a)

Price Encouragement

b)

Price Fixing

94.

________ uses buyers' perceptions of what a product is worth, not the seller's cost, as the key to pricing.

a)

Value-based pricing

b)

Target return pricing

c)

Variable costs

d)

Price elasticity

e)

Product image

95.

When there is price competition, many companies adopt ________ rather than cutting prices to match competitors.

a)

pricing power

b)

value-added pricing strategies

c)

fixed costs

d)

price elasticity

e)

image pricing

96.

Which of the following presents the strongest reason that markup pricing generally does NOT make sense?

a)

Sellers earn a fair return on their investment.

b)

By tying the price to cost, sellers simplify pricing.

c)

When all firms in the industry use this pricing method, prices tend to be similar.

d)

This method ignores demand.

e)

With a standard markup, consumers know when they are being overcharged.

97.

With target costing, marketers will first ________ and then ________.

a)

build the marketing mix; identify the target market

b)

identify the target market; build the marketing mix

c)

design the product; determine its cost

d)

use skimming pricing; use penetrating pricing

e)

determine a selling price; target costs to ensure that the price is met

98.

Each of the following economic factors can have a strong impact on a firm's pricing strategy EXCEPT ________.

a)

an economic boom

b)

the reseller's reaction to price changes

c)

an economic recession

d)

inflation

e)

interest rates

99.

Which of the following would NOT support a market-skimming policy for a new product?

a)

The product's quality and image must support its higher price.

b)

Enough buyers must want the products at that price.

c)

Competitors are not able to undercut the high price.

d)

Competitors can enter the market easily.

e)

The cost of producing a smaller volume is not so high that it negates the advantage of charging more per unit.

100.

Companies involved in deciding which items to include in the base price and which to offer as options are engaged in ________ pricing.

a)

product bundle

b)

optional-product

c)

captive-product

d)

by-product

e)

skimming

101.

________ is the amount of money charged for a product or service.

a)

Experience curve

b)

Demand curve

c)

Price

d)

Wage

e)

Salary

102.

________ uses buyers' perceptions of what a product is worth, not the seller's cost, as the key to pricing.

a)

Value-based pricing

b)

Target return pricing

c)

Variable costs

d)

Price elasticity

e)

Product image

103.

When there is price competition, many companies adopt ________ rather than cutting prices to match competitors.

a)

pricing power

b)

value-added pricing strategies

c)

fixed costs

d)

price elasticity

e)

image pricing

104.

Which of the following presents the strongest reason that markup pricing generally does NOT make sense?

a)

Sellers earn a fair return on their investment.

b)

By tying the price to cost, sellers simplify pricing.

c)

When all firms in the industry use this pricing method, prices tend to be similar.

d)

This method ignores demand.

e)

With a standard markup, consumers know when they are being overcharged.

105.

With target costing, marketers will first ________ and then ________.

a)

build the marketing mix; identify the target market

b)

identify the target market; build the marketing mix

c)

design the product; determine its cost

d)

use skimming pricing; use penetrating pricing

e)

determine a selling price; target costs to ensure that the price is met

106.

Each of the following economic factors can have a strong impact on a firm's pricing strategy EXCEPT ________.

a)

an economic boom

b)

the reseller's reaction to price changes

c)

an economic recession

d)

inflation

e)

interest rates

107.

Which of the following would NOT support a market-skimming policy for a new product?

a)

The product's quality and image must support its higher price.

b)

Enough buyers must want the products at that price.

c)

Competitors are not able to undercut the high price.

d)

Competitors can enter the market easily.

e)

The cost of producing a smaller volume is not so high that it negates the advantage of charging more per unit.

108.

Companies involved in deciding which items to include in the base price and which to offer as options are engaged in ________ pricing.

a)

product bundle

b)

optional-product

c)

captive-product

d)

by-product

e)

skimming

109.

It is most typical for producers who use captive-product pricing to set the price of the main product ________ and set ________ on the supplies necessary to use the product.

a)

low; low markups

b)

high; low markups

c)

low; high markups

d)

high; high markups

e)

moderately; moderate markups

110.

The New Age Gallery has different admission prices for students, adults, and seniors. All three groups are entitled to the same services. This form of pricing is called ________.

a)

time-based pricing

b)

location pricing

c)

customer-segment pricing

d)

revenue management pricing

e)

generational pricing

111.

What type of pricing is being used when a company temporarily prices its product below the list price or even below cost to create buying excitement and urgency?

a)

segmented pricing

b)

psychological pricing

c)

referent pricing

d)

promotional pricing

e)

dynamic pricing

112.

The Internet offers ________, where the price can easily be adjusted to meet changes in demand.

a)

captive pricing

b)

dynamic pricing

c)

basing-point pricing

d)

price bundling

e)

cost-plus pricing

113.

Consumers perceptions of the product's value set the ceiling; demand set a floor to a product's price.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

114.

Overhead cost is another term for variable cost.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE