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Worksheets

Comptia Security+

Total questions: 136

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following accurately describes a SQL injection attack?
a)
An attacker exhaustively tries every possible combination of input to a system in order to bypass its security measures
b)
An attacker exploits vulnerabilities in a web application's authentication mechanism to gain unauthorized access
c)
An attacker injects malicious SQL code into a web application's database query to manipulate its behavior
d)
An attacker intercepts and modifies data between a client and a server
e)
An attacker analyzes network traffic to capture and replay authentication credentials
2.
What is the main purpose of a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack?
a)
To perform unauthorized actions on a web server by manipulating its user interface
b)
To inject malicious code into a web application and execute it on other users' browsers
c)
To intercept and decrypt sensitive information transmitted over a network
d)
To bypass authentication mechanisms and gain unauthorized access to a web application
e)
To gain unauthorized access to a system by exploiting vulnerabilities in its network protocols
3.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a zero-day exploit?
a)
It is a type of social engineering attack that tricks users into revealing their login credentials
b)
It targets a vulnerability that is already known and for which a patch has been released
c)
It uses cryptographic techniques to guess or reverse engineer passwords
d)
It takes advantage of a software vulnerability that has not yet been discovered or patched
e)
It exploits vulnerabilities in a network's protocols to gain unauthorized access
4.
Which of the following techniques can be used to mitigate the risk of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?
a)
Secure coding practices and input validation
b)
Traffic filtering and rate limiting at the network level
c)
Intrusion detection and prevention systems
d)
Encryption and public key infrastructure
e)
Network segmentation and access control lists
5.
Which of the following correctly defines privilege escalation?
a)
An attacker manipulates a web application's user interface to perform unauthorized actions on a web server
b)
An attacker gains unauthorized access to a system by exploiting vulnerabilities in its network protocols
c)
An attacker injects malicious SQL code into a web application's database query to manipulate its behavior
d)
An attacker intercepts and modifies data between a client and a server
e)
An attacker gains additional privileges or access rights in a system beyond what they were originally granted
6.
What is the main objective of a DNS spoofing attack?
a)
To gain unauthorized access to a system by exploiting vulnerabilities in its network protocols
b)
To redirect the traffic of a legitimate website to a malicious one
c)
To intercept and modify data between a client and a server
d)
To inject malicious code into a web application and execute it on other users' browsers
e)
To perform unauthorized actions on a web server by manipulating its user interface
7.
What is the main purpose of input validation in an application's security?
a)
To gain unauthorized access to a system by exploiting vulnerabilities in its network protocols
b)
To perform unauthorized actions on a web server by manipulating its user interface
c)
To intercept and modify data between a client and a server
d)
To prevent malicious input from being processed and executed
e)
To encrypt and decrypt sensitive information transmitted over a network
8.
Which of the following accurately describes a phishing attack?
a)
An attacker manipulates a web application's user interface to perform unauthorized actions on a web server
b)
An attacker intercepts and modifies data between a client and a server
c)
An attacker gains unauthorized access to a system by exploiting vulnerabilities in its network protocols
d)
An attacker captures network traffic to eavesdrop on sensitive information transmitted between two parties
e)
An attacker sends fraudulent emails or messages to deceive users and obtain their sensitive information
9.
Which of the following accurately describes a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack?
a)
An attacker injects malicious code into a web application and executes it on other users' browsers
b)
An attacker intercepts and modifies data between a client and a server
c)
An attacker captures network traffic to eavesdrop on sensitive information transmitted between two parties
d)
An attacker gains unauthorized access to a system by exploiting vulnerabilities in its network protocols
e)
An attacker manipulates a web application's user interface to perform unauthorized actions on a web server
10.
What is the main goal of a buffer overflow attack?
a)
To intercept and modify data between a client and a server
b)
To overwrite a computer program's memory and execute arbitrary code
c)
To perform unauthorized actions on a web server by manipulating its user interface
d)
To gain unauthorized access to a system by exploiting vulnerabilities in its network protocols
e)
To inject malicious code into a web application and execute it on other users' browsers
11.
Which of the following is NOT an example of an application attack?
a)
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
b)
Buffer overflow
c)
SQL injection
d)
None of the above
e)
Denial of Service (DoS)
12.
What is the primary goal of a remote code execution attack?
a)
None of the above
b)
To crash the targeted application
c)
To overload the network and deny service to legitimate users
d)
To gain unauthorized access to a remote system
e)
To steal sensitive information from the targeted system
13.
Which security measure can help prevent a session hijacking attack?
a)
Regularly patching and updating applications
b)
Implementing two-factor authentication
c)
None of the above
d)
Using strong encryption algorithms for data transmission
e)
Configuring a web application firewall (WAF)
14.
Which of the following is an example of a file inclusion attack?
a)
Cross-site scripting (XSS) attack
b)
SQL injection attack
c)
Local file inclusion (LFI) attack
d)
Remote code execution (RCE) attack
e)
None of the above
15.
Which security mechanism can help prevent a brute force attack?
a)
Limiting the number of login attempts
b)
None of the above
c)
Encrypting data during transmission
d)
Implementing multi-factor authentication
e)
Blocking suspicious IP addresses
16.
What is the main purpose of a buffer overflow attack?
a)
To gain unauthorized access to a remote system
b)
None of the above
c)
To steal sensitive information from the targeted system
d)
To execute malicious code on the targeted system
e)
To crash the targeted application
17.
What is the main purpose of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?
a)
None of the above
b)
To gain unauthorized access to a remote system
c)
To inject malicious code into a web application
d)
To overload the network and deny service to legitimate users
e)
To steal sensitive information from the targeted system
18.
What is the primary purpose of a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack?
a)
To overload the network and deny service to legitimate users
b)
To inject malicious scripts into a web page
c)
None of the above
d)
To gain unauthorized access to a remote system
e)
To steal sensitive information from the targeted system
19.
Which of the following is an example of a privilege escalation attack?
a)
Man-in-the-middle (MitM) attack
b)
SQL injection attack
c)
Brute force attack
d)
Local file inclusion (LFI) attack
e)
Social engineering attack
20.
Which of the following is a mitigation technique for a SQL injection attack?
a)
Using complex passwords for database accounts
b)
Input validation and sanitization
c)
None of the above
d)
Implementing a firewall to block suspicious traffic
e)
Regularly backing up the database
21.
Understanding Application Attacks is an easy topic to comprehend.
a)
True
b)
False
22.
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks exploit vulnerabilities in web applications.
a)
True
b)
False
23.
Denial of Service (DoS) attacks aim to make a system or network unavailable to its intended users.
a)
True
b)
False
24.
Input validation is not important in preventing application attacks.
a)
True
b)
False
25.
Remote Code Execution (RCE) attacks give an attacker control over a targeted system.
a)
True
b)
False
26.
Password cracking is an example of a web application attack.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
XML External Entity (XXE) attacks can only be executed on server-side applications.
a)
True
b)
False
28.
SQL Injection attacks target the database layer of an application.
a)
True
b)
False
29.
Buffer Overflow attacks occur when a program attempts to write data outside of the memory allocated for it.
a)
True
b)
False
30.
Clickjacking attacks involve tricking the user into clicking on a malicious link.
a)
True
b)
False
31.

What does the acronym 'AAA' stand for in the context of the CompTIA Security+ exam?

a)

Advanced Authentication Algorithm

b)

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting

c)

Application Access Architecture

d)

Automated Audit Analysis

32.

What is the meaning of the acronym 'BIA' as used in the CompTIA Security+ exam?

a)

Business Impact Analysis

b)

Binary Interface Application

c)

Basic Input/Output System

d)

Border Gateway Protocol

33.

The acronym 'CSRF' in the CompTIA Security+ exam refers to which of the following?

a)

Certificate Signing Request

b)

Cross-Site Request Forgery

c)

Common Security Risk Framework

d)

Cloud Service Reliability Feature

34.

What does 'CSP' stand for according to the CompTIA Security+ (SY0-601) Acronym List?

a)

Cloud Service Provider

b)

Certificate Service Protocol

c)

Common Security Procedure

d)

Channel Service Provider

35.

In the context of the CompTIA Security+ exam, what does 'DEP' stand for?

a)

Data Encryption Protocol

b)

Data Execution Prevention

c)

Distributed Enterprise Planning

d)

Digital Evidence Preservation

36.

What does the acronym DES stand for?

a)

Data Encryption Standard

b)

Dynamic Encryption Service

c)

Digital Encryption Solution

d)

Data Exchange System

37.

What is the full form of HTTPS?

a)

Hyper Transfer Protocol Secure

b)

Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure

c)

Hyperlink Transfer Protocol Service

d)

Hyper Text Translation Protocol Security

38.

Which acronym refers to 'Domain Name System Security Extensions'?

a)

DNS

b)

DNSS

c)

DNSSC

d)

DNSSEC

39.

What does the acronym IoT stand for?

a)

Internet of Things

b)

Internal Operation Technology

c)

Integrated Online Transactions

d)

Interactive Object Tracking

40.

What is the meaning of the acronym DMARC?

a)

Domain Message Authentication Reporting and Conformance

b)

Domain Mail Authentication Response Code

c)

Data Message Assessment and Routing Code

d)

Domain Message Access and Retrieval Convention

41.

What does the acronym EAP stand for?

a)

Encrypted Access Protocol

b)

Extensible Authentication Protocol

c)

Electronic Application Protocol

d)

Enterprise Application Performance

42.

Which acronym is used for 'Hypertext Markup Language'?

a)

HTML

b)

HTTP

c)

HTTPS

d)

HML

43.

What does the acronym LDAP stand for?

a)

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

b)

Local Directory Authentication Procedure

c)

Lightweight Data Allocation Program

d)

Local Data Access Protocol

44.

What does the acronym MMS stand for?

a)

Microsoft Message Service

b)

Multimedia Messaging Service

c)

Managed Messaging System

d)

Multiprotocol Messaging Standard

45.

What is the meaning of the acronym PII?

a)

Personal Identification Information

b)

Personally Identifiable Information

c)

Private Identity Information

d)

Public Identification Index

46.

Which acronym refers to 'Network Address Translation'?

a)

NAT

b)

NAC

c)

NIC

d)

NFS

47.

What does the acronym SaaS stand for?

a)

Storage as a Service

b)

Software as a Service

c)

Security as a Service

d)

System as a Service

48.

What is the full form of the acronym PKI?

a)

Public Key Infrastructure

b)

Private Key Interface

c)

Public Key Interface

d)

Private Key Infrastructure

49.

What does the acronym SCAP represent?

a)

Security Content Automation Protocol

b)

Secure Communication Access Point

c)

System Control and Protection

d)

Secure Content Access Protocol

50.

What does the acronym SIEM stand for?

a)

Simple Information Event Management

b)

Security Information and Event Management

c)

Secure Internet Email Management

d)

Service Integrated Event Monitoring

51.

What is the meaning of the acronym UTM?

a)

Unified Threat Management

b)

Universal Transfer Mode

c)

User Traffic Monitoring

d)

Unified Testing Mechanism

52.

What does the acronym SDN refer to?

a)

Software-defined Networking

b)

Secure Data Notation

c)

System Deployment Name

d)

Standard Definition Network

53.

What is the full form of the acronym XSS?

a)

Cross-site Scripting

b)

Cross-system Security

c)

Cross-secure Signaling

d)

Cross-site Surveillance

54.

What does the acronym WORM stand for?

a)

Write Once Read Multiple

b)

Write Once Read Many

c)

Wireless Operational Risk Management

d)

Web Operational Read Mode

55.

What is the definition of the acronym VDI?

a)

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

b)

Variable Data Integration

c)

Visual Display Interface

d)

Virtual Data Instance

56.

What does the acronym TOTP represent?

a)

Time-ordered Transfer Protocol

b)

Time-based One Time Password

c)

Total Operational Transfer Process

d)

Timed One Time Protocol

57.

What is the meaning of the acronym SED?

a)

Self-encrypting Drives

b)

Secure Erase Disk

c)

Software Encryption Device

d)

Systematic Encryption Drive

58.

What does the acronym 'API' stand for?

a)

Application Programming Interface

b)

Application Protocol Interface

c)

Advanced Programming Interface

d)

Automated Process Integration

59.

Which acronym is used for 'Virtual Private Network'?

a)

VPN

b)

VPNet

c)

VPRN

d)

VNP

60.

What is the full form of the acronym 'JSON'?

a)

Java Simple Object Notation

b)

JavaScript Object Notation

c)

Java Script Oriented Notation

d)

JavaScript Online Notation

61.

What does the acronym 'MFA' stand for in cybersecurity?

a)

Multi-Factor Authentication

b)

Managed File Access

c)

Multiple Firewall Access

d)

Mobile Framework Application

62.

What is the full form of the acronym 'RADIUS'?

a)

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

b)

Routing Algorithm for Data Integrity Under Security

c)

Remote Access Device Interface Using SSL

d)

Reliable Asynchronous Direct Input User System

63.

Which acronym stands for 'Content Delivery Network'?

a)

CDN

b)

CDS

c)

CDM

d)

CDF

64.

What does the acronym 'SSH' stand for?

a)

Secure Shell

b)

Secure Socket Handler

c)

Socket Secure Hash

d)

Secure Socket Hyperlink

65.

What is the full form of the acronym 'LDAP'?

a)

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

b)

Lightweight Data Access Protocol

c)

Linked Data Application Protocol

d)

Lightweight Directory Application Procedure

66.

What does the acronym 'PaaS' stand for?

a)

Platform as a Service

b)

Product as a Service

c)

Protocol as a Service

d)

Process as a Service

67.

What protocol uses port 22 for secure network administration?

a)

HTTP

b)

HTTPS

c)

SSH

d)

Telnet

68.

Which protocol is primarily used for email retrieval and uses port 110?

a)

SMTP

b)

POP3

c)

IMAP

d)

FTP

69.

What is the default port for HTTPS?

a)

80

b)

443

c)

25

d)

23

70.

Which of the following protocols operates at the Transport Layer and provides connection-oriented data management?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

ICMP

d)

ARP

71.

What wireless protocol is used for short-range communications in devices like headphones, gaming controllers, and smartphones?

a)

NFC

b)

Bluetooth

c)

Wi-Fi

d)

LTE

72.

Which protocol is used for securely transferring files over the internet?

a)

FTPS

b)

SFTP

c)

SMTP

d)

SNMP

73.

What protocol is used by web browsers to retrieve web pages from servers over the internet?

a)

HTTP

b)

HTTPS

c)

FTP

d)

SMTP

74.

Which protocol uses port 53 for translating domain names into IP addresses?

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

FTP

d)

HTTP

75.

What is the primary protocol used for sending email over the internet?

a)

POP3

b)

IMAP

c)

SMTP

d)

FTP

76.

Which protocol is used for real-time voice and video communication over the internet?

a)

SIP

b)

SNMP

c)

SSH

d)

SFTP

77.

What protocol operates at the Network Layer and is used for routing packets across network boundaries?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

IP

d)

ARP

78.

Which protocol is used for network management and monitoring?

a)

SNMP

b)

SMTP

c)

SIP

d)

SFTP

79.

What protocol is used for establishing secure tunnels over the internet?

a)

SSL

b)

TLS

c)

VPN

d)

SSH

80.

Which protocol is used for dynamic IP address assignment?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

FTP

d)

HTTP

81.

What protocol is used for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

ARP

d)

RARP

82.

Which protocol provides encryption for secure web browsing?

a)

HTTP

b)

HTTPS

c)

SSL/TLS

d)

SSH

83.

What protocol is used for automating the installation of certificates on devices and applications?

a)

SCEP

b)

PGP

c)

SSH

d)

SSL

84.

Which protocol is used for directory services and accessing distributed directory information?

a)

LDAP

b)

DNS

c)

DHCP

d)

RARP

85.

What protocol is used for secure communication between email clients and servers?

a)

SMTPS

b)

IMAPS

c)

POP3S

d)

All of the above

86.

Which protocol is used for network time synchronization?

a)

NTP

b)

SNMP

c)

SIP

d)

SMTP

87.

What protocol is used for voice over IP (VoIP) communications?

a)

SIP

b)

SNMP

c)

SSH

d)

SFTP

88.

Which protocol is used for secure remote login from one computer to another?

a)

RDP

b)

SSH

c)

Telnet

d)

VNC

89.

What protocol is used for web services and operates over TCP/IP to send and receive messages?

a)

SOAP

b)

REST

c)

JSON-RPC

d)

XML-RPC

90.

Which protocol is designed for transferring hypertext requests and information on the internet?

a)

HTTP

b)

FTP

c)

SMTP

d)

SNMP

91.

Which protocol is responsible for file transfer and management over a network?

a)

HTTP

b)

FTP

c)

SMTP

d)

SNMP

92.

What protocol is used for automating the management of network devices?

a)

NetConf

b)

SOAP

c)

REST

d)

SNMP

93.

SSL and TLS run on what port number?

a)

143

b)

443

c)

53

d)

445

94.

FTP secure (SFTP) runs on what port?

a)

20

b)

21

c)

22

d)

23

95.

What port allows for time synchronization on all network devices and services?

a)

FTP

b)

LDAP

c)

RDP

d)

NTP

96.

Which protocol allows for connection oriented communication between devices and allows for error checking and control?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

DHCP

d)

LDAP

97.

Which port number is used for LDAP secure (LDAPS)

a)

389

b)

636

c)

53

d)

22

98.

TCP port 80 is assigned to:

a)

HTTP

b)

IMAP

c)

POP3

d)

HTTPS

99.

SSH protocol runs on:

a)

TCP Port 22

b)

UDP Port 21

c)

TCP Port 21

d)

UDP Port 20

100.

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is an example of a connectionless protocol. Because UDP does not support a three-way handshake while establishing a network connection, it is referred to as an unreliable or best-effort protocol.

a)
True
b)
False
101.

What is the name of a network protocol that secures web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption?

a)
SFTP
b)
HTTPS
c)
FTPS
d)
SNMP
102.

Which of the following answers refers to a system containing mappings of domain names to various types of data, such as numerical IP addresses?

a)
TCP/IP
b)
DNS
c)
SQL
d)
DHCP
103.
What kind of attack is most likely when you’re doing sensitive work on your laptop at a coffee shop? Choose the best response
a)
Piggybacking
b)
Dumpster diving
c)
Shoulder surfing
d)
Smurfing
104.
Several coworkers in the sales department received an email claiming to be from you. Each message was personally addressed and contained a link to a “test site” and a request to log in with standard user credentials. You never sent it, and on examination, the supposed test site is a phishing scam. Just what variant of phishing is this? Choose the best response
a)
Pharming
b)
Spear phishing
c)
Vishing
d)
Whaling
105.
What security controls can protect against tailgating? Select all that apply
a)
Alarm systems
b)
Clean desk policy
c)
Mantraps
d)
Security guards
e)
Spam filters
106.
Social engineering attacks are most commonly either in person or over electronic media rather than on the phone. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
107.
What policy document generally describes mutual goals between organizations? Choose the best response
a)
BPA
b)
ISA
c)
MOU
d)
SLA
108.
Which policy is focused on preventing data loss? Choose the best response
a)
AUP
b)
Clean desk policy
c)
Mandatory vacation
d)
Separation of duties
109.
Experts agree that very demanding password policies are the best way to maintain security. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
110.
What are the benefits of a job rotation policy? Select all that apply
a)
Allows employees to discover each other’s mistakes in multi-step processes
b)
Helps detect fraudulent activity over time
c)
Minimizes permissions given to any one employee
d)
Prevents data loss
e)
Trains employees more broadly
111.
Your company has signed a BPA with a business partner. What most likely isn’t a part of it? Choose the best response
a)
How liability is shared for a loss of shared assets
b)
Technical requirements for secured data connections between the two companies
c)
What happens to informational assets when the agreement is dissolved
d)
Who is responsible for maintaining informational assets
112.
What kind of security training is most important for a company executive? Choose the best response.
a)
Identifying malware symptoms
b)
Overall awareness of the organization’s assets and threats to them
c)
Recognizing social engineering attacks
d)
Regular updates on evolving network threats
113.
What standards do you need to use when handling credit card data? Choose the best response
a)
HIPAA
b)
NIST
c)
PCI-DSS
d)
PKI
114.
Users should have both permission and need to access sensitive data, whether technically able to or not. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
115.
What kind of employee is most likely to need extra training about social engineering attacks? Choose the best response
a)
Department manager
b)
Maintenance technician
c)
Network administrator
d)
Receptionist
116.
You need to install a new fire extinguisher next to the server closet. What class would be most useful? Choose the best response
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
117.
What qualifies as both a preventative and a detective control? Choose the best response
a)
A locked door
b)
A motion detector
c)
A security guard
d)
A surveillance camera
118.
What are hot and cold aisles designed to assist? Choose the best response
a)
Air circulation in the server room
b)
Defining routes for evacuating employees and incoming emergency workers
c)
Preventing EMI
d)
Preventing the spread of fires
119.
One server closet has particularly sensitive equipment that’s suffering EMI due to a nearby electrical motor. You can’t move either the equipment or the motor, so what option might help? Choose the best response
a)
Airgap
b)
Cold aisle
c)
Faraday cage
d)
Mantrap
120.
Fail-close door locks are
a)
Good for safety and security
b)
Good for safety but bad for security
c)
Bad for safety but good for security
d)
Bad for safety and security
121.
In a building floor plan, you see lines representing a Protected Distribution System. What is it used for? Choose the best response
a)
Backup power
b)
Encrypted data
c)
HVAC Controls
d)
Unencrypted data
122.
What document specifically covers moving operations to a temporary site? Choose the best response
a)
BCP
b)
BIA
c)
COOP
d)
DRP
123.
Which document is a business most likely to have more than one of? Choose the best response
a)
BCP
b)
BIA
c)
COOP
d)
DRP
124.
What is also known as a “structured walkthrough?” Choose the best response
a)
Checklist test
b)
ISCP
c)
Simulation test
d)
Tabletop exercise
125.
Which of the following RAID levels incorporates disk striping? Select all that apply
a)
RAID 0
b)
RAID 1
c)
RAID 5
d)
RAID 10
126.
The process of rebuilding a RAID drive from parity data can cause a RAID drive to fail. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
127.
If you have a RAID implementation with data parity, you don’t need data backups. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
128.
You have a critical database server that continuously backs its files up to the cloud. Still, its software environment is so finicky that if it encountered a critical failure, it would take a long time to get it working again. How would you describe your recovery plan for that service? Choose the best response
a)
High RPO and high RTO
b)
High RPO and low RTO
c)
Low RPO and high RTO
d)
Low RPO and low RTO
129.
Clustering is similar to load balancing but tends to use tighter integration between redundant systems. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
130.
Your company rents a spare server room in a secondary location. It has all the necessary hardware, network connectivity, and production environment, so all you have to do in a data center failure is redirect incoming network traffic. What is it? Choose the best response
a)
Hot site
b)
Hot spare
c)
Cold site
d)
Cold spare
131.
In terms of time, how does a differential backup plan generally differ from an incremental backup plan? Choose the best response
a)
It’s quicker both to create backups and to restore data.
b)
It’s quicker to create backups, but slower to restore data.
c)
It’s slower to create backups, but quicker to restore data.
d)
It’s slower both to create backups and to restore data.
132.
What backup type might require specific operating system support? Choose the best response
a)
Differential
b)
Full
c)
Incremental
d)
Snapshot
133.
What is eDiscovery? Choose the best response
a)
A process for identifying security incidents
b)
A process for sharing electronic forensic data
c)
A standard for forensic backup software
d)
A software application used to track security incidents
134.
You should start choosing an incident response team as soon as you’ve identified an incident. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
135.
After a security incident, you rush to take a screenshot of a telltale running process before you leisurely take a backup of suspicious files on the hard drive. What forensic principle are you exercising? Choose the best response
a)
Audit trail
b)
Chain of custody
c)
eDiscovery
d)
Order of volatility
136.
Why is it important to record time offsets when collecting evidence? Choose the best response
a)
To compensate for logging systems that don’t record precise times
b)
To compensate for time differences between multiple systems
c)
To document the precise order of events
d)
To document the precise timing of events

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