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biology midterm

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following would best describe a hypothesis?

a)

A proven fact

b)

A question

c)

An educated prediction

d)

A random assumption

2.

A researcher wants to know if music affects concentration. They have participants solve puzzles in three conditions: silence, soft instrumental music, and loud rock music. The time taken to solve the puzzles is recorded. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?

a)

The type of music played

b)

The difficulty of the puzzles

c)

The time taken to solve the puzzles

d)

The number of participants

3.

In an experiment testing plant growth under different light conditions, what is the dependent variable?

a)

Type of light

b)

Amount of water

c)

Height of plant

d)

Soil type

4.

What is the purpose of a control group of an experiment?

a)

Change multiple variables at once

b)

Test the dependent variable

c)

Serve as a comparison for the experimental group

d)

Prove the hypothesis is correct

5.

Experiments must contain factors that do not change. These factors are known as _____________.

a)

Control groups

b)

Dependent variables

c)

Independent variables

d)

Constants

6.

While writing the conclusion of an experiment, which of the following should be included?

a)

Summarizing whether the hypothesis was supported or rejected.

b)

Summary of your procedures.

c)

Analysis of your data.

d)

Both A and C.

7.

What would be the best way to collect data for an experiment?

a)

Anecdotes

b)

Tables and graphs

c)

Essays

d)

Abstract drawings

8.

Which of the following statements is an observation?

a)

Plants need sunlight to grow.

b)

The plant grew 5 cm in one week.

c)

If I water the plant more, it will grow faster.

d)

Plants with larger leaves grow better in shade.

9.

A scientist wants to know if caffeine affects reaction time. They divide participants into two groups: one group drinks a cup of caffeinated coffee, and the other drinks decaffeinated coffee. Both groups then complete a reaction time test, and their results are compared. Which is the experimental group in this experiment?

a)

The group drinking decaffeinated coffee

b)

The group drinking caffeinated coffee

c)

Neither group, this experiment does not contain an experimental group.

d)

Both groups

10.

What is the primary function of carbohydrates?

a)

Store genetic information

b)

Provide energy

c)

Build muscle

d)

Transport oxygen

11.

Which of the following is the monomer unit of a protein?

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Amino acids

d)

Simple sugars

12.

Which macromolecule is responsible for storing genetic information?

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

13.

Which of the following is true about enzymes?

a)

They are consumed during the reaction.

b)

They slow down chemical reactions.

c)

They are lipids.

d)

They lower the activation energy of a reaction.

14.

Lipids are primarily used by organisms for _____________________________.

a)

Long-term energy storage.

b)

Building muscle tissue.

c)

Transporting oxygen in the blood.

d)

Conducting nerve impulses.

15.

What happens when a protein is denatured?

a)

It gains energy.

b)

Its shape and function are altered.

c)

It becomes a lipid.

d)

It stops being a macromolecule.

16.

In the chemical structure of water, 2 hydrogen atoms and an oxygen atom share electrons creating a(n) __________ bond that forms a(n) __________.

a)

covalent; molecule

b)

ionic; molecule

c)

metallic; compound

d)

ionic; ion

e)

covalent; ion

17.

What is the name of the property of water that allows it to stick to other substances?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Surface tension

d)

Polarity

18.

Take a look at the image below and identify label 1.

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Water bonds

19.

The image below displays the use of enzymes. Identify label Y.

a)

Product

b)

Enzyme-substrate complex

c)

Lactase

d)

Substrate

20.

Which organelle is responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

21.

Which of the following describes the composition of the cell membrane?

a)

Proteins and carbohydrates

b)

Nucleic acids and lipids

c)

Phospholipid bilayer

d)

Nucleic acid bilayer

22.

Which organelle contains the cell's genetic material?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Nucleus

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Lysosomes

23.

What is the primary function of ribosomes?

a)

Synthesize proteins

b)

Store energy

c)

Transport materials

d)

Break down waste

24.

Plant cells differ from animal cells due to the presence of which organelle(s)?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

A nucleus

c)

A cell wall and chloroplasts

d)

A cell membrane

25.

If you were to draw and label a diagram of a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell, which of the following would you add to the eukaryotic cell that you would NOT add to the prokaryotic cell?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

DNA

d)

Nucleus

26.

Which structure of a cell regulates what enters and exits the cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Vacuole

27.

Which of the following describes passive transport?

a)

Movement of substances against a concentration gradient using energy.

b)

Movement of substances down a concentration gradient without using energy.

c)

Movement of large molecules out of the cell via vesicles.

d)

Movement of substances only into the cell using ATP.

28.

Which type of transport requires energy in the form of ATP?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active transport

c)

Diffusion

d)

Facilitated diffusion

29.

What happens to an animal cell placed in a hypotonic solution?

a)

It shrinks as water leaves the cell.

b)

It swells and may burst as water enters the cell.

c)

It remains the same size as water moves in and out equally.

d)

It divides to balance water levels.

30.

Identify label X.

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

31.

Identify label S (the free space).

a)

Cytoskeleton

b)

Cell membrane

c)

Vacuole

d)

Cytoplasm

32.

What is the main purpose of photosynthesis?

a)

To break down glucose into energy.

b)

To convert solar energy into chemical energy.

c)

To release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

d)

To create proteins.

33.

Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosome

34.

The primary pigment involved in photosynthesis is _____________.

a)

Chlorophyll

b)

Carotenoid

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Melanin

35.

What are the 2 stages of photosynthesis?

a)

Light-independent reactions & Calvin cycle

b)

Light-dependent reactions & Calvin cycle

c)

Light-independent reactions & Krebs cycle

d)

Light-dependent reactions & Krebs cycle

36.

During photosynthesis, water is split to release which gas?

a)

Glucose

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

ATP

37.

The energy used to drive the Calvin cycle comes from which of the following molecules?

a)

Carbon and oxygen

b)

ATP and NADPH

c)

Glucose and oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide and water

38.

What is the main product of the Calvin cycle?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Glucose

c)

ATP

d)

NADP+

39.

What is the main purpose of cellular respiration?

a)

To produce glucose

b)

To generate ATP

c)

To store energy as fat

d)

To create oxygen

40.

In what area of the cell does glycolysis occur?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Cell membrane

41.

What are the main products of glycolysis?

a)

ATP and water

b)

Pyruvate and ATP

c)

Carbon dioxide and water

d)

Oxygen and glucose

42.

The Krebs cycle takes place in the ____________________.

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Thylakoid membranes

43.

What is the final stage of cellular respiration and where the most ATP is produced?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

The Calvin cycle

c)

The Krebs cycle

d)

The electron transport chain

44.

In the absence of oxygen, cells undergo _______________.

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Fermentation

c)

The electron transport chain

d)

The Calvin cycle

45.

What is the result of mitosis?

a)

Four genetically unique cells

b)

Two identical daughter cells

c)

Gametes

d)

Zygotes

46.

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes align at the cell's equator?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

47.

What is the purpose of meiosis?

a)

To produce identical cells

b)

To repair damaged cells

c)

To produce gametes

d)

To create energy

48.

How many chromosomes are present in human gametes?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

12

49.

Which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

S phase of interphase

d)

G1 of interphase

50.

Who is considered the father of genetics?

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Louis Pasteur

d)

James Watson

51.

If a trait is controlled by a recessive allele, an individual must have:

a)

Two recessive alleles

b)

One dominant and one recessive allele

c)

Two dominant alleles

d)

A dominant allele

52.

A homozygous dominant genotype is represented with the letters _____.

a)

Aa

b)

AA

c)

Aa

d)

AB

53.

Which of the following best describes the definition of an allele?

a)

A type of chromosome

b)

A version of a gene

c)

A trait passed to offspring

d)

The physical expression of a gene

54.

During incomplete dominance, the phenotype would be seen as…

a)

A mix of both parent phenotypes

b)

Completely dominant

c)

Completely recessive

d)

Unaffected by genetics

55.

What is the shape of a DNA molecule?

a)

Single helix

b)

Beta sheet

c)

Double helix

d)

Linear strand

56.

Which components make up the backbone of a DNA molecule?

a)

Phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases

b)

Deoxyribose sugars and phosphate groups

c)

Deoxyribose sugars and nitrogenous bases

d)

Ribose sugars and nitrogenous bases

57.

What important role did Oswald Avery play in the history of DNA?

a)

He was the first to observe the structure of DNA.

b)

He demonstrated that DNA is the material responsible for heredity.

c)

He was the first to sequence the human genome.

d)

He identified the roles of proteins in genetics.

58.

Which nitrogenous bases are found in DNA?

a)

Adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine

b)

Adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine

c)

Thymine, uracil, guanine, adenine

d)

Adenine, thymine, cytosine, ribose

59.

In DNA, adenine pairs with _______ and cytosine pairs with _______.

a)

thymine; guanine

b)

guanine; thymine

c)

cytosine; uracil

d)

thymine; uracil

e)

uracil; adenine

60.

What type of bond holds the two strands of DNA together?

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

Covalent bonds

d)

Peptide bonds

61.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

62.

What is the role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication?

a)

Breaking hydrogen bonds between base pairs

b)

Synthesizing new strands by adding complementary nucleotides

c)

Sealing gaps between fragments of DNA

d)

Removing RNA primers

63.

What was the significance of Rosalind Franklin's work in the discovery of DNA's structure?

a)

She was the first to discover the double helix structure.

b)

She provided X-ray images that helped identify the structure of DNA.

c)

She synthesized the first artificial DNA molecule.

d)

She was the first to clone a DNA molecule.

64.

Which of the following would be the correct complementary strand to the following strand of nucleotides? ATTCGGTGA

a)

TAAGCCACT

b)

CATTAGCAC

c)

ACTGCACTA

d)

TCAACCGAT

65.

What is the chemical equation for photosynthesis

(a)  

66.

What is the chemical equation for cellular respiration

(a)  

67.

"sac-like" structures name one organelle and explain the function

(a)  

68.

explain codominance and how the genotype of 2 individuals would affect the phenotype of the offspring

(a)