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Biology II Midterm Review 2024

Total questions: 220

Worksheet time: 55hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What two elements make up water?
a)
Helium and oxygen
b)
Hydrogen and oxygen
c)
helium and carbon
d)
oxygen and carbon
2.
How does capillary action happen?
a)
water is polar
b)
it drags other water molecules up the tubes
c)
it sticks to the tubes
d)
ALL OF THESE REASONS
3.
Water droplets take a spherical shape (as pictured) because of ____________
a)
adhesion
b)
cohesion
c)
capillary action
d)
solubility
4.

Refer to the picture of water sticking to a leaf; this is occurring because of:

a)

Adhesion

b)

Cohesion

5.

What property of water allows water to flow against gravity?

a)

Polarity

b)

Cohesion

c)

Capillary Action

d)

Adhesion

6.

What do you call any substance that dissolves another substance?

a)

Solvent

b)

Height

c)

Atoms

d)

Oxygen

7.
A high specific heat means...
a)
It heats up quickly with energy added
b)
It requires more energy to change temperature
8.
Which term refers to water having partial positive and a partial negative charge?
a)
cohesion
b)
surface tension
c)
polarity
d)
adhesion
9.
A general definition of cohesion is the attraction of:
a)
particles of the same substance
b)
particles of a different substance
c)
particles of both the same and different substances
d)
particles of neither the same or different substances
10.
The fact that ice floats on liquid water is due to the fact that water's solid is ___________ than it's liquid form
a)
less polar
b)
more polar
c)
less dense
d)
more dense
11.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
12.
Why does ice float?
a)
As water freezes, it expands and its density decreases.
b)
As water freezes, it takes up more hydrogen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
c)
As water freezes, air becomes trapped between the hydrogen bonds of water molecules.
d)
As water freezes, it takes up more oxygen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
13.
molecule in which opposite ends have opposite electric charges
a)
cohesion
b)
polar molecule
c)
hydrogen bond
d)
solution
14.

When water and other liquids stick together to form drops or thin films that resist external forces is known as _________.

a)

adhesion

b)

capillary action

c)

cohesion

d)

surface tension

15.
Attractions between water molecules are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
16.
What is the reason why oil and water don't mix?
a)
Oil is too heavy to mix with water
b)
Water can only mix with polar molecules 
c)
Water can only mix with non-polar molecules
d)
Oil is too light to mix with water 
17.

What is this an example of?

a)

How light paper clips are

b)

bouyancy

c)

surface tension

d)

cohesion

18.

What is an important role of ice in aquatic habitats?

a)

Insulation

b)

Shade

c)

Plant growth

d)

Ice skating

19.
Attractions between water molecules are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
20.
What is the reason why oil and water don't mix?
a)
Oil is too heavy to mix with water
b)
Water can only mix with polar molecules 
c)
Water can only mix with non-polar molecules
d)
Oil is too light to mix with water 
21.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
22.

What is this an example of?

a)

How light paper clips are

b)

bouyancy

c)

surface tension

d)

cohesion

23.

What is an important role of ice in aquatic habitats?

a)

Insulation

b)

Shade

c)

Plant growth

d)

Ice skating

24.

Water's high boiling point is due to ___.

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

it's polarity

c)

being nonpolar

25.

A high specific heat means water ____. (select all that are true)

a)

takes a long time to change temperature.

b)

takes a lot of heat to increase temperature.

c)

holds a lot of heat.

d)

is good at regulating Earth's temperature.

26.

A water strider can skate along the top of a pond because....

a)

covalent bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)

b)

hydrogen bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)

c)

water striders have adapted to become lighter than water

d)

low surface tension of water

27.
The attraction that causes water and other liquids to form drops on thin films is called ________________. This is also water’s ability to be attraction to other water molecules.
a)
adhesion
b)
capillary action
c)
cohesion
d)
surface tension
28.
Water is polar because...
a)
The unequal sharing of electrons gives the water molecule a slight negative charge near its oxygen atom and a slight positive charge near its hydrogen atoms.
b)
The molecule has two poles, at which the it is colder than other regions of the molecule.
c)
The unequal sharing of electrons gives the water molecule a slight negative charge near its hydrogen atoms and a slight positive charge near its oxygen atom.
d)
The water molecule is neutral.
29.
The fact that ice floats on liquid water is due to the fact that ........
a)
as water freezes, it expands and its density decreases.
b)
as water freezes, it takes up more hydrogen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
c)
as water freezes, air becomes trapped between the hydrogen bonds of water molecules.
d)
as water freezes, it takes up more oxygen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
30.

Capillary action is when water moves up a thin tube such as the xylem in plants or chromatography paper pulls water upwards against gravity. This phenomena is due to.....

a)

adhesion

b)

cohesion

c)

a combination of adhesion and cohesion

d)

surface tension

31.

What property of water allows for water to act as a temperature regulator for the world?

a)

Cohesive Behavior

b)

Expansion Upon Freezing

c)

High Specific Heat

d)

Universal Solvent

32.

Sweating is an example of what property of water?

a)

Ability to Moderate Temperature

b)

Expansion Upon Freezing

c)

Cohesive Behavior

d)

Universal Solvent

33.

Some fish species survive in temperatures near freezing while some bacteria and algae survive in hot springs where the temperature of water is near boiling temperature. what is the reason for this?

a)

Density of ice is lower than density of liquid

b)

Water remains liquid over a wide temperature range from 0-100 celcius degree.

c)

Water is a polar molecule

d)

Water is universal solvent

34.

Why is water considered to be a polar molecule?

a)

It has a north pole and south pole

b)

It is arranged in a straight up-and-down pattern

c)

It has a positive charge on one end and a negative charge on the other end

35.

When part of the water freezes, it _____, which acts

as a blanket and keeps the water below at a livable

temperature.

a)

sits in the middle

b)

sinks

c)

floats

36.

What are the building blocks or monomers for nucleic acids?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

amino acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

fatty acids

37.

Identify the nucleic acid:

a)
b)
c)
d)
38.
Building blocks of the body, hair , muscles etc.
a)
protein
b)
nucleic acid
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
39.

What is the key role (function) of a protein?

a)

instant energy for the cell/body

b)

hormones, buoyancy, forms cell membranes, insulation, energy storage

c)

growth, repair, and energy, immune system, enzymes

d)

store and transmit genetic information/heredity

40.
Identify the macromolecule in the picture.
* look at the R.....
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
proteins 
d)
nucleic acids
41.

Which of the following are almost always hydrophobic?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

42.

What elements (monomers) make up a protein?

a)

C, H, O

b)

C, H, O, N

c)

C, H, O, N, P

43.

What type of molecule is represented in the image?

a)

polysaccharide

b)

unsaturated fat

c)
saturated fat
d)

monosaccharide

44.
Is found in the cell membrane as a bilayer. 
a)
lipids
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
45.
Which major macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
46.

The monomer for a protein is:

a)

amino acid

b)

fatty acid

c)

monosaccharide

d)

nucleotide

47.

The monomer for a lipid is:

a)

monosaccharide

b)

fatty acid

c)

nucleotide

d)

amino acid

48.

Which of the following is NOT a macromolecule?

a)

Fiber

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Monosaccharides

49.
Identify the macromolecule in the picture
*GLUCOSE
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
50.

What is the function of carbohydrates?

a)

Short term energy

b)

Long term energy

c)

Storing genetic information

d)

Speeding up chemical reactions

51.

This macromolecule provides structural support and act as enzymes to catalyze metabolic reactions

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipids

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

52.

When reading the nutrition facts on food packaging total fats is a measure of...

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

53.

This macromolecule make up cell membranes, store energy, and provide insulation

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipids

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

54.

When reading the ingredients on a nutrition facts label carbohydrates are written as a type of

a)

Food Additive

b)

Sugar

c)

Ingredient

d)

Fat

55.

Plants build cellulose (a polysaccharide) to makeup their parts like leaves, roots, stems, etc. What monomer do plants use to build cellulose?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

disaccharides

c)

amino acids

d)

nucleotides

56.

Which macromolecule is being represented in the image?

a)

nucleic Acid

b)

lipid

c)

carbohydrate

d)

protein

57.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

58.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

59.
Which type of bond, denoted by the arrows, allows DNA to be readily replicated?
a)
ionic bond
b)
peptide bond
c)
covalent bond
d)
hydrogen bond
60.
Which explains how the second strand of DNA compares with the first strand of DNA?
a)
The second is a complement of the first strand.
b)
The second has more nucleotides than the first strand.
c)
The second strand is a double helix, and the first strand is a double helix. 
d)
The second strand is coded to produce a different protein than the first strand. 
61.
Which best describes the shape of a DNA molecule? 
a)
single helix 
b)
double helix
c)
single strand
d)
t-shaped strand
62.
What statement best describes the role of DNA in protein synthesis? 
a)
DNA carries the amino acid to the ribosomes. 
b)
DNA forms the structural parts of the ribosomes.
c)
DNA joins the chains of amino acids to form a protein. 
d)
DNA contains the information for building individual proteins. 
63.
The DNA sequence ACTCG produces which mRNA sequence during transcription? 
a)
TGAGC
b)
UGAGC
c)
ACTCG
d)
ACUCG
64.
What is a possible DNA sequence for the amino acid sequence phenylalanine-glycine-threonine? 
a)
UUU GGG ACC
b)
AAA CCC UGG
c)
TTT GGG ACC
d)
AAA CCC TGG
65.
Which of these shows the correct order for the central dogma of molecular biology?
a)
DNA to protein to RNA
b)
RNA to DNA to protein
c)
protein to DNA to RNA
d)
DNA to RNA to protein
66.
Transcription of the sequence TTAAG produces which sequence? 
a)
TTAAG 
b)
UUAAG
c)
AAUUC
d)
AATTC
67.
During protein synthesis, the RNA sequence UAC GAU CUA, is produced from then DNA sequence ATG CTA GAT. Which process is occurring? 
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transmutation
d)
transformation
68.
Which best describes the information contained in genes? 
a)
instructions for assembling pyrimidines
b)
instructions for assembling purines
c)
instructions for assembling proteins
d)
instructions for assembling plasmids
69.
Which type of RNA delivers the genetic code to the ribosome?
a)
rRNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
tmRNA
70.
Which best describes the role of mRNA in protein synthesis? 
a)
mRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome where they are connected to construct a protein.
b)
mRNA forms the peptide bonds connecting amino acids together to construct a protein 
c)
mRNA decodes the sequence of tRNA into the amino acids used to construct a protein
d)
mRNA brings the code of DNA to the ribosome where it is used to construct a protein
71.

This is the second stage of protein synthesis; in this stage, a ribosome reads mRNA codons and assists in assembling a chain of amino acids that will become a protein:

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Proteination

72.

This type of RNA molecule carries amino acids to the ribosome during translation; when its anticodon binds to a matching codon, the amino acid it carries is added to the growing protein.

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

siRNA

73.

Using the genetic code table (you may need to open your notes to find a bigger version if it does not load right in this quiz), translate this mRNA codon sequence into an amino acid sequence


AUG GCG UUU AAG UGA

a)

Met - Ala - Phe - Lys - STOP

b)

Met - Gly - Lys - Ser - STOP

c)

Lys - Phe - Arg - Met - STOP

d)

STOP - Leu - Ile - Thr - Met

74.

Which describes the functions of proteins in living things?

a)

structural, transport, signaling, catalysts, etc.

b)

stores and transmits genetic information

c)

stores energy and makes up cell membranes

d)

quick energy and forming cell structure

75.

All proteins

a)

have a unique structure that determines their unique function.

b)

are exactly the same in function but different in structure.

c)

are exactly the same in structure but different in function.

d)

are enzymes.

76.

The order of amino acids determines the ______ and ultimately the function of a protein.

a)

shape

b)

color

c)

flavor

d)

texture

77.

Enzymes are ________ that act as ________.

a)

proteins, catalysts

b)

amino acids, proteins

c)

proteins, amino acids

d)

catalysts, carbohydrates

78.

What is the function of enzymes in living things?

a)

increase the rate of chemical reactions

b)

form the basis of the plasma membrane

c)

main energy molecule for a cell

d)

insulation and protection

79.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
80.
The reaction used to digest and break the bond in red is:
a)
Hydrolysis
b)
Dehydration Synthesis
c)
Oxidation
d)
Single Displacement
81.
The diagram shows a bond forming between two amino acids. What is the name of this reaction?
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
c)
Pepysis
d)
Oxidation
82.
The bond that joins amino acids are called:
a)
Peptide Bonds
b)
Ester Bonds
c)
Glycosidic Linkages
d)
Phosphodiester Bonds
83.

In total, there are ____ building blocks of proteins.

a)

20

b)

thousands

c)

millions

d)

4

e)

8

84.

Which colored box highlights the carboxyl?

a)

Darker Blue (left)

b)

Turquoise (top)

c)

Orange (right)

d)

Red (bottom)

e)

Purple (middle)

85.

Which colored box is the reason this is an organic molecule?

a)

Darker Blue (left)

b)

Turquoise (top)

c)

Orange (right)

d)

Red (bottom)

e)

Violet (middle)

86.

A protein goes through ____ stages of folding before it is finished.

a)

4

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

e)

20

87.

Which colored box is different for every amino acid?

a)

Darker Blue (left)

b)

Turquoise (top)

c)

Orange (right)

d)

Red (bottom)

e)

Purple (middle)

88.

Which colored box highlights the amino group?

a)

Darker Blue (left)

b)

Turquoise (top)

c)

Orange (right)

d)

Red (bottom)

e)

Purple (middle)

89.

What is this molecule called?

a)

nucleotide

b)

fatty acid

c)

amino acid/protein

d)

monosaccharide

e)

glycerol

90.

Pick the protein:

a)

sucrose

b)

keratin

c)

glucose

d)

starch

e)

cheese

91.

What is another name for a protein?

a)

fat

b)

sugar

c)

amino acid

d)

polypeptide

92.

Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide?

a)

starch

b)

fructose

c)

glucose

d)

galactose

93.

Which polysaccharide is used by plants to make their cell wall?

a)

starch

b)

glycogen

c)

cellulose

d)

chitin

94.
Sugars all end with what three letter ending?
a)
-ote
b)
-ate
c)
-ase
d)
-ose
95.

What makes up the disaccharide sucrose?

a)

glucose + glucose

b)

glucose + fructose

c)

glucose + galactose

d)

glucose + maltose

96.

Which of the following are structural polysaccharides?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Chitin

d)

Starch

97.

Which of the following are storage polysaccharides?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Chitin

d)

Starch

98.

Which of the following describes the process involved in metabolizing carbohydrates?

a)

During hydrolysis a water molecule is added to break the bond between the monosaccharide and polysaccharide chain

b)

During hydrolysis a water molecule is removed to break the bond between the monosaccharide and polysaccharide chain

c)

During dehydration synthesis a water molecule is removed to break the bond between the monosaccharide and polysaccharide chain

d)

During dehydration synthesis a water molecule is added to break the bond between the monosaccharide and polysaccharide chain

99.

If two glucose molecules (C6H12O6) undergo a dehydration reaction, which of the following represents the chemical formulas for the product(s)?

a)

2 C6H12O6

b)

C12H24O12

c)

C12H22O11 + H2O

d)

C12H24O12 + H2O

100.
How do the number of H atoms compare to the number of O atoms in a carbohydrate?
a)
There are TWICE as many H
b)
They are the same amount
c)
There are THREE times as many H
d)
There are TWICE as many O
101.

When animals eat a polysaccharide like starch, they digest it into individual glucose monomers through a reactions called:

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration synthesis

c)

Condensation reaction

d)

Both dehydration synthesis & condensation reaction are correct

102.

A single bond exists between Carbon and Hydrogen chains.

It tends to be solid at room temperature, like butter.

a)

Saturated Fats

b)

Unsaturated Fats

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

103.

A double bond exists between Carbon and Hydrogen chains.

It tends to be liquid at room temperature, like oils.

a)

Polysaccharides

b)

Lipids

c)

Saturated Fats

d)

Unsaturated Fats

104.

How many fatty acids, in addition to glycerol, are needed to make a triglyceride?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

105.

What part of the cell does the phospholipid bilayer comprise?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

cell membrane

c)

cytoskeleton

d)

nuclear membrane

106.

What is the common characteristic of all lipids?

a)

They are made of lots of double bonds

b)

They become acidic when mixed with water

c)

They have no high energy content

d)

They do not dissolve in water

107.

Part of a phospholipid molecule can mix with water, while the other part cannot. This means the molecule is:

a)

Hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophilic

c)

Amphipathic

d)

Ambidextrous

108.

Match the following

a)
1.

Carbohydrate structure

b)
2.

Lipid structure

c)

Monosaccharide

3.

Carbohydrate monomer

d)

Fatty acids

4.

Lipid monomer

109.

Which elements compose lipids?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Carbon

110.

Which of the following bonds cannot be found in saturated fats?

a)

C-C

b)

H-C

c)

C=C

d)

C-O

111.

What type of bond is found in lipids?

a)

Glycosydic

b)

Ester

c)

Peptide

112.

What is the nature of the head of a phospholipid?

a)

Hydrophilic

b)

Hydrophobic

c)

Arachnophobia

d)

Non-polar

113.

The tails of a phospholipid are __________ and ___________.

a)

hydrophobic and nonpolar

b)

hydrophilic and nonpolar

c)

hydrophilic and polar

d)

hydrophobic and polar

114.

What are the building blocks of nucleic acids?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Fatty acids

d)

Monosaccharides

115.

Which of the following is a key structural component of DNA?

a)

Ribose sugar

b)

Deoxyribose sugar

c)

Phospholipid bilayer

d)

Polypeptide chain

116.

Identify the components of a nucleotide.

a)

Amino group, carboxyl group, and R group

b)

Phosphate group, sugar, and nitrogenous base

c)

Glycerol, fatty acid chains, and phosphate group

d)

Monosaccharide, disaccharide, and polysaccharide

117.

How does the structure of RNA differ from that of DNA?

a)

RNA is double-stranded, while DNA is single-stranded.

b)

RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.

c)

RNA has a deoxyribose sugar, while DNA has a ribose sugar.

d)

RNA is more stable than DNA.

118.

What is the significance of the 5' and 3' ends in a DNA strand?

a)

They determine the direction of DNA replication and transcription.

b)

They indicate the start and stop points of protein synthesis.

c)

They are involved in the formation of peptide bonds.

d)

They are used to identify the type of nucleotide present.

119.

Predict the consequence of a missing phosphate group in a nucleotide.

a)

The nucleotide will form a stronger bond with adjacent nucleotides.

b)

The nucleotide will not be able to form a phosphodiester bond.

c)

The nucleotide will become more stable.

d)

The nucleotide will be able to pair with any base.

120.

Which nitrogenous base is found in RNA but not in DNA?

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Adenine

d)

Cytosine

121.

Analyze the role of hydrogen bonds in the structure of DNA.

a)

They provide the energy needed for DNA replication.

b)

They stabilize the double helix by holding the two strands together.

c)

They catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds.

d)

They allow DNA to interact with RNA.

122.

What is the role of the sugar-phosphate backbone in a DNA molecule?

a)

It encodes genetic information.

b)

It provides structural support and stability.

c)

It catalyzes the synthesis of proteins.

d)

It transports genetic information to the ribosome.

123.
From the nucleotide on the right, which part is labeled 2?
a)
Sugar
b)
Phosphate
c)
Nitrogenous Base
d)
Phosphorous
124.
Guanine is complementary to what other nitrogenous base?
a)
Cytosine
b)
Adenine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
125.

What are 2 types of nucleic acids?

a)

Fatty Acids and Glycerol

b)

DNA and RNA

c)

Amino Acids and Enzymes

d)

Monosaccharides and Polysaccharides

126.
Which of the following is a purine?
a)
Cytosine
b)
Thymine
c)
Adenine
127.

What would most likely happen if an error occurred when RNA was receiving coding information?

a)

Proteins would be formed incorrectly

b)

The incorrect amino acid would form.

c)

DNA would form incorrectly.

d)

RNA could not form a double helix.

128.

Which statement best describes the relationship between proteins and nucleic acids?

a)

Proteins read the instructions that are contained in nucleic acids.

b)

Proteins are composed of nucleic acids.

c)

Nucleic acids provide the blueprint for the construction of proteins.

d)

Nucleic acids synthesize the amino acids for protein construction.

129.

Which statement best describes the molecular structure of protein, along with one of the functions of proteins?

a)

It is a straight chain hydrocarbon that can help fight disease.

.

b)

It is a complex, folded chain that helps regulate cell processes

c)

It is a simple carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen molecule that creates movement.

d)

It is a chain of nucleotides, and forms muscle, bone, and ligaments.

130.

Which pair of statements best describes an essential amino acid?

a)

It is an amino acid that contains peptide bonds. An example is proline.

b)

It is an amino acid that contains nitrogen. An example is aspartic acid.

c)

It is an amino acid that cannot be made by the body. It must be obtained from eating certain foods.

d)

It is an amino acid that can be produced by the body. Vitamin supplements maintain healthy levels.

131.

Which three components are common to all amino acids?

a)

an amino group, a carboxyl group, and an R group

b)

a five-carbon sugar, an amino group, and a nitrogenous base

c)

a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base

d)

an amino group, a phosphate group, and an R group

132.
This is a double layer of phospholipids that creates a barrier between the cells internal and external environments; it controls what comes in or out of the cell (selective permeable)
a)
Nucleus
b)
Cilia
c)
Cell membrane
d)
Flagella
133.

The organelle that is the control center of the cell and contains nearly all of the cell’s DNA:

a)

Ribosome

b)

Centriole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

134.

The organelle that assembles proteins in the cytoplasm:

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

135.

The organelle where lipids are synthesized along with proteins and other materials that are exported from the cell:

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Vacuoles & vesicles

d)

Nucleus

136.

The organelle that modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and other materials from the ER for storage in the cell or release from the cell:

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Vacuoles and Vesicles

d)

Ribosome

137.

The organelles that store materials like water, salts, proteins, and carbohydrates, and the other one that stores and moves materials between cell organelles, as well as to and from the cell surface:

a)

Cytoskeleton

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Vacuoles and Vesicles

138.

The organelle that breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins into small molecules that can be used by the rest of the cell:

a)

Lysosome

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Chloroplast

139.

The organelle that helps the cell maintain its shape and is also involved in movement:

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Lysosome

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Cell Membrane

140.

The organelle that captures the energy from sunlight and converts it into chemical energy stored in food during photosynthesis:

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Nucleus

141.

The organelle that converts the chemical energy stored in food molecules into compounds that are more convenient for the cell to use:

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Centrioles

142.

The organelle that acts as a strong supportive wall that shapes and protects the cell:

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Centrioles

143.

The organelle that regulates materials entering and leaving the cell, as well as supporting and protecting it:

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Centrioles

d)

Cytoskeleton

144.

The organelle that organizes cell division:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Centrioles

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Ribosome

145.

Which cell parts are not present in animal cells?

a)

cell membrane & cytoplasm

b)

nucleus & chloroplasts

c)

cell wall & chloroplasts

d)

ribosomes & mitochondria

146.

What type of cell has a nucleus?

a)

eukaryotic

b)

prokaryotic

c)

neither

d)

both

147.

Which type of cells has a chloroplast?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Plant Cell

c)

Animal Cell

d)

Bacteria

148.

Bacteria are considered what?

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Prokaryotes

149.

Prokaryotes do NOT have....

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

DNA or RNA

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Life

150.
This is a picture of:
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
151.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
152.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Prokaryotic cell?

a)

unicellular

b)

floating DNA

c)

very small

d)

complex

153.
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic points of Cell Theory?
a)
All living things are made of cells.
b)
The cell is the smallest living thing that can perform all the functions of life.
c)
Cells are too small to see without a microscope.  
d)
All cells must come from pre-existing cells.
154.
Robert Hooke, Anton van Leeuwenhoek, Theodor Schwann, Rudolf Virchow, and Matthias Schliden were all responsible for what theory?
a)
The Theory of Gravity
b)
The Theory of Relativity
c)
The Cell Theory
d)
The Theory of Continental Drift
155.
The Cell Theory states...
a)
atoms create all matter
b)
living things evolve
c)
the cell is the backbone of all matter
d)
cells are the basic unit of structure and organization of organisms
156.
Who looked at cork and named the cell?
a)
Robert Hooke
b)
Van Leeuwenhoek
c)
Robert Brown
d)
Francesco Redi
157.

Which statement is a part of the cell theory AND was first discovered by Virchow?

a)

all cells come from pre-existing cells

b)

bacteria are prokaryotic cells

c)

eukaryotic cells are complex

d)

humans are multicellular

158.
The ___ is the basic unit of sturucture and function of organisms
a)
atom
b)
cell
c)
matter
d)
all other answers are correct
159.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the cell theory

a)

All living things are made of cells

b)

All cells come from pre-existing cells

c)

All cells are made of atoms

d)

Cells are the basic structure and function of life

160.

Animal cells can be distinguished from plant cells easily because of which of the following?

(Select all the apply)

a)

Animal cells have lysosomes and plant cells do not.

b)

Plant cells have mitochondria and animal cells do not.

c)

Only plant cells have centrioles around their nucleus.

d)

Only plant cells have large central vacuoles, cell walls and chloroplasts.

161.

What is the function of an organelle?

a)

to take up space

b)

to carry out a specific function in the cell

c)

to carry out all the functions of a cell

d)

to create new cells

162.

  1. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is a cell structure that consists of folded membranes that contain ribosomes. What is the advantage of the folded membranes?

a)

  1. increases surface area in order to produce more proteins

b)

  1. decreases surface area in order to produce more proteins

c)

  1. increases volume in order to produce more energy

d)

  1. decreases volume in order to produce more energy

163.

  1. The following chart contains information about the structure and function of cells.

Which of the following correctly completes the chart in order from A-D?

a)

  1. Chloroplast, Ribosome, Plant Cell, Golgi Apparatus

b)

  1. Mitochondria, Ribosome, Animal Cell, Golgi Apparatus

c)

  1. Chloroplast, Ribosome, Plant and Animal Cells, Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

  1. Mitochondria, Ribosome, Plant and Animal Cell, Endoplasmic Reticulum

164.

Which of these will affect the rate of diffusion?

a)

Temperature

b)

Pressure

c)

Concentration Gradient

d)

All of these affect diffusion rates.

165.

If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, which way will water flow?

a)

Net movement into the cell

b)

Net movement out of the cell

c)

No net movement into or out of the cell

166.

The sodium/potassium pump is an example of:

a)

passive transport

b)

active transport

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

exocytosis

167.

All forms of cellular pumps are similar in that they are:

a)

Not using their own energy

b)

Moving solutes from low to high concentrations

c)

Moving solutes from high to low concentrations

d)

Physically changing its shape

168.

Facilitated Diffusion is an example of (a)   transport

169.

Which of the following allows endo and exocytosis to be possible in cells?

a)

Transmembrane proteins

b)

Membrane is a bilayer

c)

Osmosis

d)

Membrane Fluidity

170.

Placing a Red Blood Cell in solutions with different concentrations results in the cell shrinking or bloating due to:

a)

active transport

b)

membrane fluidity

c)

osmosis

d)

recognition proteins

171.

A White Blood Cell engulfing a bacteria cell would be an example of ______.

a)

Exocytosis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Passive Transport

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

172.
Does A require any energy?
a)
Yes 
b)
No
173.

What type of transport is shown in the diagram?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active Transport

c)

Passive Transport

d)

Diffusion

174.

Identify a peripheral protein

a)

structure a

b)

strucure b

c)

structure g

d)

structure h

175.

A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the membane is to

a)

glue cells together to form tissues

b)

allow cells to identify each other

c)

attach membrane to cytoskeleton

d)

help retain shape

176.
How does a cell maintain homeostasis?
a)
Regulates what enters and leaves the cell
b)
Flexibility
c)
Protective barrier
d)
Structure and support
177.
Identify the part of the membrane identified as A.
a)
carbohydrate
b)
cholesterol
c)
protein
d)
phospholipid
178.
What type of transport is this?
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
179.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
180.

Passive Transport is the movement of particles across the membrane from an area of [ ___ ] to an area of [ ___ ]

a)

high to low

b)

low to high

c)

low to low

d)

high to high

181.

What forms the channels and pumps in the membrane?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

hydrophilic heads

d)

lipids

182.

In what direction do particles naturally diffuse?

a)

Up the concentration gradient

b)

Down the concentration gradient

c)

Across the concentration gradient

183.

What is the purpose of photosynthesis?

a)

To make sugar      

b)

To make oxygen

c)

To make energy

d)

To start the food chain

184.

What is the byproduct of photosynthesis?

a)

Sugar      

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Water

185.

What are the products made in the light-dependent reactions that are needed to complete photosynthesis?

a)

ATP and NADPH

b)

Light and Water

c)

Oxygen

d)

Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

186.

What are the chemical reactants need for a plant to perform photosynthesis?

a)

ATP and NADPH

b)

ATP and Water

c)

Light, Water and Carbon Dioxide

d)

Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

187.

What are the energy rich molecules made during photosynthesis that act like rechargeable batteries?

a)

ATP and NADPH

b)

Light and Water

c)

Oxygen

d)

Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

188.

What are the molecules made during photosynthesis that are like uncharged batteries that need to be energized?

a)

ATP and NADPH

b)

Light and Water

c)

ADP and NADP+

d)

C6H12O6

189.

CO2 (carbon dioxide) is a? (choose the best answer)

a)

Reactant

b)

Product 

c)

Reactant and Product

d)

Byproduct

190.

O2 (Oxygen) is a?

a)

Reactant

b)

Product 

c)

Reactant and Product

d)

Byproduct

191.

ATP and NADPH are? (choose the best answer)

a)

Reactants

b)

Products 

c)

Reactants and Products

d)

Byproducts

192.

H2O (water) is a? (choose the best answer)

a)

Reactants

b)

Products 

c)

Reactants and Products

d)

Byproducts

193.

The purpose of the light reactions is to…

a)

Make ATP and NADPH and recycle ADP and NADP+

b)

Make ADP and NADP+ and recycle ATP and NADPH 

c)

Make Oxygen and Sugar

d)

Make Oxygen and Sugar using Water and Sunlight

194.

What do the light-dependent reactions require?

a)

Carbon Dioxide, ATP and NADPH

b)

Light, Water and Carbon Dioxide

c)

Carbon Dioxide and Sugar

d)

Sugar, Glucose, C6H12O6

195.

The light-independent reactions produce?

a)

Carbon Dioxide, ATP and NADPH

b)

ADP and NADP+

c)

Carbon Dioxide and Sugar

d)

Sugar, Glucose, C6H12O6

196.

True / false  C6H12O6 is a carbohydrate

a)

True

b)

False

197.

True / false  C6H12O6 is a sugar

a)

True

b)

False

198.

True / false  C6H12O6 is a glucose molecule

a)

True

b)

False

199.

True / false  C6H12O6 is a byproduct of photosynthesis

a)

True

b)

False

200.

True / false  C6H12O6 is the final product made by photosynthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

201.

Which is the most accurate statement as to light’s role in photosynthesis?

a)

Light Energy is used to create the Sugar from Water and Carbon Dioxide.

b)

Light Energy is transformed into the Chemical Energy of a Glucose Molecule.

c)

Light Energy is stored in the Energy rich Organic Molecule Glucose.

d)

Light Energy, Water and Carbon Dioxide are combined to create the Organic Molecule Sugar.

202.

What are the three stages of cellular respiration?

a)

1- glycolysis

2- cellular respiration

3- fermentation

b)

1- glycolysis

2- krebs cycle

3- electron transport chain

c)

1- krebs cycle

2 - calvin cycle

3- electron transport chain

d)

1- electron transport chain

2- krebs cycle

3- glycolysis

203.

Where does glycolysis take place?

a)

in the mitochondria

b)

in the cell membrane

c)

in the cytoplasm

d)

in the endoplasmic reticulum

204.

During glycolysis, glucose breaks into

a)

1 pyruvate

b)

2 pyruvates

c)

3 pyruvates

d)

2 NADH

205.

The process of glycolysis requires oxygen

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

206.

The second stage of cellular respiration is

a)

the calvin cycle

b)

the carbon cycle

c)

the krebs cycle

d)

the kelvin cycle

207.

The Krebs Cycle takes place in the

a)

cytoplasm

b)

mitochondria

c)

cell membrane

d)

golgi bodies

208.

The third stage of cellular respiration is

a)

mitochondria

b)

glycolysis

c)

electron transport chain

d)

pyruvate

209.

What label should be written in spot D

a)

cytoplasm

b)

cellular respiration

c)

glycolysis

d)

krebs cycle

210.

What label should be written in spot E

a)

electron transport chain

b)

cellular respiration

c)

glycolysis

d)

krebs cycle

211.

What are the reactants of cellular respiration?

a)

CO2 + H2O

b)

H2O + O2

c)

C6H12O6 + O2

d)

C6H12O6 + H2O

212.

Cellular respiration is...

a)

the process by which cells break down glucose into energy.

b)

the process by which cells break light down into energy.

c)

the process by which cells communicate with other cells.

213.
After intense activity, your muscles feel sore because of 
a)
the accumulation of NAD+
b)
the accumulation of lactic acid 
c)
the accumulation of ATP
d)
the accumulation of carbon dioxide
214.
Fermentation enables glycolysis to continue under 
a)
anaerobic conditions
b)
aerobic conditions
c)
photosynthetic conditions
d)
hydrophobic conditions
215.

Which molecule is the reactant of Glycolysis?

a)

water

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

ATP

216.

What's the chemical formula for glucose?

a)

6C6HO6

b)

C12H6O12

c)

C6H12O6

d)

CHO

217.

Which of the following structures is where cellular respiration (Kreb's Cycle and Electron Transport Chain) occurs in the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

vacuoles

218.

What type of respiration requires oxygen?

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

219.
Which type of respiration is most efficient?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
220.

What type of respiration does not require oxygen?

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

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