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Oracle Cloud Quiz

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following virtualizations move storage and network IO out of the hypervisor and enable lower overhead and bare metal instances?

a)

Hypervisor-based Virtualization

b)

Off-box Network Virtualization

c)

Container-based Virtualization

d)

In-box Storage Virtualization

2.

What is the maximum number of availability domains in an Oracle Cloud region?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

3

d)

7

3.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Fault domains span across multiple availability domains

b)

Fault domains are not part of the Oracle Cloud infrastructure

c)

Each availability domain consists of three fault domains

d)

Availability domains are not divided into fault domains

4.

A company has developed a web application in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. What should they do to ensure that the application has the highest level of resilience?

a)

Deploy the application across multiple Availability Domains and Fault Domains

b)

Use a single availability domain and replicate data locally

c)

Rely on Oracle's default backup system

d)

Host the application in a single fault domain

5.

Which of the following protocols does FastConnect use for the exchange of routing information?

a)

OSPF

b)

RIP

c)

BGP

d)

EIGRP

6.

Which of the following represents the IP address range within the network 192.168.2.0/25?

a)

192.168.2.0 - 192.168.2.255

b)

192.168.2.1 - 192.168.2.126

c)

192.168.2.128 - 192.168.2.255

d)

192.168.2.0 - 192.168.2.127

7.

True or False: Local Peering Gateway is required to connect two VCNs within a region.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Which gateway can be used to provide internet access to the workloads deployed in a private subnet of a VCN?

a)

NAT Gateway

b)

Service Gateway

c)

Internet Gateway

d)

Dynamic Routing Gateway

9.

Which of the following represents the amount of free outbound data transfer in an OCI tenancy?

a)

1TB

b)

50GB

c)

10TB

d)

Unlimited

10.

State whether the statement is True or False: BGP is a Static routing protocol.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which of the following can be used to connect a customer on-premise network to Oracle Cloud?

a)

VPN

b)

NAT Gateway

c)

Service Gateway

d)

Internet Gateway

12.

Which of the following is the default username created on a compute instance created from Oracle Linux/CentOS?

a)

admin

b)

root

c)

opc

d)

user

13.

State whether the statement is True or False: Bare Metal Servers are used for performance-intensive workloads.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

State whether the following statement is True or False: Object storage supports private access from Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources in a VCN through an Internet Gateway.

a)

False

b)

True

15.

State whether the statement is True or False: By default, block volumes are read-only.

a)

False

b)

True

16.

Which of the following OCI storage services is used to store unstructured data?

a)

Object Storage

b)

Block Storage

c)

File Storage

d)

Archive Storage

17.

Which of the following OCI storage services is used for storing data that is seldom accessed, but requires long retention periods?

a)

Archive Storage

b)

Block Storage

c)

Object Storage

d)

File Storage

18.

Which of the following doesn't represent the default NFS export options while creating a File System?

a)

Require Privileged Source Port: True

b)

Read-only access

c)

Root squashing enabled

d)

Async writes disabled

19.

Which of the following is not a use case for File Storage Service?

a)

High Performance Workloads

b)

Shared file storage

c)

Large-scale file systems

d)

Application data storage

20.

State whether the statement is True or False: The File Storage service encrypts all file system and snapshot data at rest.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Which of the following represents the features supported by Object Storage?

a)

All of the above

b)

Object versioning only

c)

Lifecycle management only

d)

Archive retrieval only

22.

Which one of the following statements is false about Object Storage?

a)

Object Storage is suitable for high-performance transactional data

b)

Objects can be accessed via REST APIs

c)

Object replication is available across regions

d)

Minimum retention requirement for Archive Storage is 30 days

23.

State whether the following statement is True or False: Object Storage supports private access from Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources in a VCN through an Internet Gateway.

a)

False

b)

True

24.

Which among the following is not a protocol supported in the OCI Load Balancer?

a)

UDP

b)

HTTP

c)

TCP

d)

HTTPS

25.

Which among the following are common load balancing policies in OCI?

a)

All of the above

b)

Round Robin only

c)

Least Connections only

d)

IP Hash only

26.

Which among the following is not a supported Load Balancer shape in OCI?

a)

1000 Mbps

b)

400 Mbps

c)

100 Mbps

d)

10 Mbps

27.

State whether the following statement is True or False: Storage Gateway can be used as a general-purpose Network Attached Storage server.

a)

False

b)

True

28.

Which among the following is not a way to transfer data from customer on-premise to Oracle Cloud?

a)

Service Gateway

b)

Data Transfer Appliance

c)

VPN Connect

d)

FastConnect

29.

Which among the following protocols is used by application servers for connecting to the OCI Object Storage through Storage Gateway?

a)

NFSv4

b)

SMB

c)

HTTP

d)

FTP

30.

Which of the following is not one of the versions for Exadata database?

a)

Sixteenth Rack

b)

Quarter Rack

c)

Half Rack

d)

Full Rack

31.

Which among the following represents the correct metrics used for the pricing of a VM-based Database on OCI?

a)

OCPU per Hour

b)

Storage per GB

c)

Memory per GB

d)

Concurrent connections

32.

Which of the following is the default port used by Autonomous Database?

a)

1522

b)

1521

c)

8080

d)

3306

33.

You want to leverage a managed RAC offering in OCI. Which managed DB service would you choose?

a)

2-node Virtual Machine

b)

Bare Metal

c)

Autonomous Data Warehouse

d)

Exadata Cloud@Customer

34.

Which of the below statements is false about Autonomous Database?

a)

On-demand scaling is not supported for Autonomous Database

b)

Autonomous Database automatically handles patching

c)

Autonomous Database includes built-in Machine Learning

d)

Data encryption is always enabled

35.

How many pre-defined service names are configured in tnsnames.ora for a single Autonomous Transaction Processing database instance, and what are they called?

a)

Five - They are tpurgent, tp, high, medium, and low

b)

Two - high and low

c)

Three - high, medium, and low

d)

Four - tpurgent, tp, high, and medium

36.

True or False: ATP storing data in column format is ideal for transaction processing.

a)

False

b)

True

37.

Which of the following is not one of the use cases for DataSafe?

a)

Disaster Recovery

b)

Security Assessment

c)

Data Masking

d)

Activity Auditing

38.

True or False: Data Masking is necessary to analyze what types of data are present in the database and what are the sensitive data.

a)

False

b)

True

39.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of user activity auditing?

a)

Comprehensive assessment of security parameters

b)

Monitoring privileged user activities

c)

Capturing detailed query logs

d)

Identifying unauthorized data access

40.

Which of the following is not one of the supported DNS records for OCI DNS Service?

a)

NAPTR

b)

A

c)

CNAME

d)

TXT

41.

Which of the following is not one of the supported DNS records for OCI DNS Service?

a)

NAPTR

b)

A

c)

CNAME

d)

TXT

42.

Which of the following is the DNS server that takes website names or URL requests from users and checks the records obtained from authoritative DNS servers for the associated IP address?

a)

Recursive DNS

b)

Authoritative DNS

c)

Primary DNS

d)

Secondary DNS

43.

True or False: Default NS and SOA records are automatically generated when a Zone is created.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

True or False: Conditional steering can be used for zero-rating services so that preferred ASNs can be directed to free resources while all other traffic can be directed to paid resources.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which of the following is not the common use case for DNS Traffic Management?

a)

Transaction-based Steering

b)

Load Balancing

c)

Geolocation Routing

d)

Disaster Recovery

46.

Which of the following is not one of the components of the Health Checks service?

a)

Child Zone

b)

Ping Monitor

c)

HTTP Monitor

d)

HTTPS Monitor

47.

True or False: OCI WAF uses OWASP ModSecurity Core Rule Set (CRS) to protect against the most common web vulnerabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

True, but only for certain regions.

d)

False, OCI WAF uses its own custom rules.

48.

True or False: OCI WAF cannot protect the workloads against a missing function-level access control vulnerability.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which of the following is not a common use case for OCI WAF?

a)

Protection against SYN flooding

b)

Protection against SQL injection

c)

Mitigating DDoS attacks

d)

Implementing rate limiting

50.

Which of the following is a resource manager job type?

a)

Stack

b)

Function

c)

Instance

d)

Volume

51.

Which Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) service can you use to create and manage your infrastructure?

a)

OCI Resource Manager

b)

Compute Instances

c)

Kubernetes Service

d)

Load Balancer

52.

Which of the following represents the job lifecycle state?

a)

Terminated

b)

Provisioning

c)

Pending

d)

Running

53.

Which of the following represents the maximum duration for which messages are retained in an OCI streaming service?

a)

7 Days

b)

30 Days

c)

14 Days

d)

10 Days

54.

Which of the following represents the benefit of streams?

a)

Real-time processing

b)

Scalability

c)

Fault tolerance

d)

All of the above

55.

True or False: OCI streaming service is based on Apache ActiveMQ.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

True, with some modifications

d)

False, it's based on Apache Kafka

56.

The Monitoring service uses which of the following to notify you when metrics qualify a specified rule threshold?

a)

Metrics

b)

Alerts

c)

Notifications

d)

Alarms

57.

The Monitoring service uses which service to monitor resources?

a)

Logs

b)

Events

c)

Metrics

d)

Traces

58.

The Alarms feature of the Monitoring service works with which OCI service to inform you when metrics meet alarm-specified triggers?

a)

Logs

b)

Events

c)

Notifications

d)

Metrics

59.

The Events service has a limitation of how many rules per tenancy?

a)

100

b)

25

c)

50

d)

Unlimited

60.

What rules allow you to deliver events to certain Oracle Cloud Infrastructure services? (Choose three)

a)

Streaming

b)

Notifications

c)

Functions

d)

Object Storage

61.

True or False: Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Events enables you to create automation based on the state changes of resources throughout your tenancy.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

True, but only for compute resources

d)

False, automation is not supported.

62.

What is the maximum memory threshold for Oracle functions?

a)

1024 MB

b)

2048 MB

c)

512 MB

d)

4096 MB

63.

When starting a container to run Oracle functions, the container runs processes as which user?

a)

Root

b)

Admin

c)

Fn User

d)

Guest

64.

What is the maximum execution timeout for Oracle functions?

a)

120 Seconds

b)

90 Seconds

c)

300 Seconds

d)

60 Seconds

65.

A DevOps engineer wants to push an image to OCIR and that image needs to be tagged appropriately so it identifies the docker registry where the image needs to be pushed. Which of the following will be added to the image tag?

a)

Object Storage Namespace

b)

Compartment ID

c)

OCID

d)

Policy Tag

66.

Which of the following docker commands is not required for saving an image to OCIR?

a)

docker push

b)

docker save

c)

docker tag

d)

docker login

67.

Which of the following is required to log in to the OCIR Container Registry?

a)

API Keys

b)

IAM Role

c)

Auth Tokens

d)

Instance Principal

68.

True or False: Kubernetes cluster worker nodes should be placed in a private subnet of the VCN.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

True, for certain workloads only

d)

False, public subnets are recommended.

69.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE)?

a)

Worker nodes in node pools can be of different shapes

b)

OKE supports auto-scaling of worker nodes.

c)

OKE integrates with OCI Load Balancer for ingress traffic.

d)

Kubernetes API endpoints can be public or private.

70.

Which of the following is not a method to create a Kubernetes cluster?

a)

OCI CLI

b)

OCI SDK

c)

Terraform

d)

OCI Console

71.

You have created a new compartment called PRODUCTION to host some Production apps. You have also created users in Your Tenancy and added them to a group called "Production_Group." Your users are still unable to access the PRODUCTION compartment. How can you resolve this situation?

a)

Write an IAM Policy for Production Group granting it access to the production compartment

b)

Recreate the compartment.

c)

Add users to the Root Compartment.

d)

Enable compartment quotas.

72.

You have an instance running in a development compartment that needs to make API calls against other OCI services, but you do not want to configure user credentials or store a configuration file on the instance. How can you meet this requirement?

a)

Use an API Gateway

b)

Configure MFA

c)

Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance and write a policy for this dynamic group

d)

Use an Admin User.

73.

You have the following compartment structure in your tenancy: Root Compartment -> Training -> Training-sub1 -> Training-sub2. You create a policy in the Root compartment to allow the default admin of the account (Administrator) to manage block volumes in compartment Training-sub2. What policy would you write to meet this requirement?

a)

Allow group Administrator to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub2

b)

Allow dynamic-group Administrator to read volume-family in compartment Training

c)

Allow group Users to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub1

d)

Allow group Admins to create volumes in compartment Training

74.

True or False: After a key vault is deleted, it cannot be recovered.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

True, but it can be recreated manually.

d)

False, recovery is possible within 30 days.

75.

Which of the following is not a Key Management (OCI Vault) capability?

a)

Rotating a key automatically re-encrypt data that was previously encrypted with the old key version

b)

Creating and managing keys

c)

Encrypting and decrypting data

d)

Providing audit logs for key usage

76.

You can Filter Costs by which of the following? (Choose two)

a)

Compartment

b)

Tags

c)

Resource Type

d)

Instance State

77.

OCI Budgets are used to achieve which of the following? Choose the two best options.

a)

Track actual and forecasted spending for the entire tenancy or per compartment

b)

Set alerts on your budgets at predefined thresholds to get notified

c)

Automatically scale resources when budgets are exceeded

d)

Predict future spending based on machine learning

78.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure SLA covers which of the following? (Choose three)

a)

Availabilit

b)

Security

c)

Manageability 

d)

Performance 

79.

True or False: You must have a Valid CSI and Support Account in order to submit a Service Request

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Where will you find your Customer Support Identifier?

a)

  • Oracle Cloud Console

b)

  • Customer Portal

c)

All of the above

d)

Documentation

81.

When Customers deploy their workload on OCI, they are responsible for which of the following? (Choose three)

a)

Setting up strong IAM policies

b)

  • Physical server maintenance

c)

Key management

d)

User credentials including strong password, password renewal, secure user access to OCI

82.

Which of the following design principles deploy, operate, and use your applications securely in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure?

a)

  • Least privilege access

b)

  • Strong encryption

c)

  • Secure configuration management

d)

All of the above

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