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Team 6 | Unit 5-8

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does internal recruitment refer to?

a)

Hiring candidates who are not currently working for the organization.

b)

Hiring candidates who already work for the organization.

c)

Recruiting candidates through external agencies.

d)

Using advertisements to find new employees.

2.

Why is induction training not needed in internal recruitment?

a)

The organization saves money.

b)

External candidates already know the organization.

c)

Internal applicants are familiar with the organization's culture.

d)

Induction training is unnecessary for external candidates.

3.

Which is NOT an advantage of internal recruitment?

a)

Applicants are familiar with the organization.

b)

It is cheaper than external recruitment.

c)

It increases the diversity of ideas.

d)

It helps maintain the organization's culture.

4.

What is an advantage of external recruitment?

a)

It offers opportunities for internal staff to progress.

b)

It focuses on hiring from within the organization.

c)

It provides a wider choice of potential applicants.

d)

It is always cheaper than internal recruitment.

5.

Why might external recruitment improve employee focus?

a)

Because external candidates bring fresh perspectives.

b)

Because it allows existing employees to be promoted.

c)

Because it eliminates the need for advertising.

d)

Because it is always quicker.

6.

If a vacancy is for a senior post, why might internal recruitment be preferred?

a)

It avoids resentment among employees.

b)

Workers won’t need to adjust to a new management style.

c)

It provides a wider choice of applicants.

d)

It is cheaper than external recruitment.

7.

What is one of the main purposes of training?

a)

To decrease supervision needed.

b)

To increase the workload of employees.

c)

To discourage internal promotion.

d)

To introduce more workplace accidents.

8.

Training helps improve the opportunity for:

a)

External hiring.

b)

Internal promotion.

c)

Reducing employee benefits.

d)

Increasing working hours.

9.

What type of workers does training aim to provide value to the company?

a)

Only senior workers.

b)

Skilled workers.

c)

Unskilled workers.

d)

Retired workers.

10.

What can training help to introduce?

a)

New rules and strict policies.

b)

New processes or equipment.

c)

Older systems of management.

d)

Less efficient workflows.

11.

What is a key goal of training according to the document?

a)

To decrease employee attitudes towards change.

b)

To improve employees’ skills and knowledge.

c)

To reduce customer satisfaction.

d)

To increase resistance to organizational change.

12.

Training is used to:

a)

Reduce the efficiency of the workforce.

b)

Introduce complex and redundant processes.

c)

Improve the efficiency of the workforce.

d)

Discourage teamwork.

13.

One objective of training is to improve employees' attitudes so that they:

a)

Avoid customer service tasks.

b)

Accept change and raise awareness.

c)

Refuse internal promotions.

d)

Avoid improving customer service.

14.

How does training help the company when introducing new equipment?

a)

By ensuring employees are more valuable.

b)

By reducing their ability to adapt.

c)

By limiting supervision requirements.

d)

By increasing customer complaints.

15.

Induction training is given to all new recruits to introduce them to the (a)   they will be working with most closely.

16.

On-the-job training is often conducted by (a)   or departmental training officers.

17.

Off-the-job training often takes place at a ___, such as a college or university.

4 lines
18.

Induction training helps new employees settle into their job quickly.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

On-the-job training requires employees to leave the workplace for training.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Off-the-job training often involves expert trainers with up-to-date knowledge of business practices.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Induction training is usually cheaper than off-the-job training.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

One disadvantage of on-the-job training is that the trainer might pass on bad habits to the trainee.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The sector of the economy in which organisations are owned and controlled by individuals is called (a)   .

24.

Industries that extract and exploit the natural resources of the earth belong to ________.

4 lines
25.

The type of economy where all resources are privately owned, and prices are determined by supply and demand is known as ________.

4 lines
26.

The sale of state-owned assets, such as public corporations, to the private sector is called ________.

4 lines
27.

The sale of state-owned assets, such as public corporations, to the private sector is called ________.

a)

Privatisation

b)

Nationalisation

c)

Public sector transfer

d)

Industrialisation

28.

The sector of the economy in which organisations are owned and controlled by the government is called ________.

a)

Private sector

b)

Freemarket economy

c)

Public sector

d)

Mixed economy

29.

Travel agents, banking, insurance, health services, and transport are examples of which type of production?

a)

Primary production

b)

Tertiary production

c)

Secondary production

d)

Mixed economy

30.

Mining, agriculture, forestry, and fishing are examples of which type of production?

a)

Tertiary production

b)

Secondary production

c)

Primary production

d)

Public sector

31.

Car production, computer assembly, food canning, and steel making are examples of which type of production?

a)

Tertiary production

b)

Primary production

c)

Secondary production

d)

Freemarket economy

32.

Former communist countries in Eastern Europe had economies where all resources were owned by the government. What type of economy is this?

a)

Freemarket economy

b)

Planned economy

c)

Mixed economy

d)

Public sector

33.

In the UK and Germany, public corporations like water, telephone, and electricity industries have been transferred to private ownership. What process is this called?

a)

Privatisation

b)

Nationalisation

c)

Public transfer

d)

Industrialisation

34.

Who typically owns and operates a Sole Trader business?

a)

A single person

b)

A group of 2-20 people

c)

Shareholders who can sell shares publicly

d)

The state or government

35.

"A business controlled by the state and also referred to as a nationalised industry" best describes which organisation?

a)

Partnership

b)

Public Corporation

c)

Private Limited Company

d)

Public Limited Company

36.

Imagine you are part of a business with 10 other people. You share profits and responsibilities equally. What type of organisation is this?

a)

Sole Trader

b)

Partnership

c)

Public Corporation

d)

Private Limited Company

37.

Which type of business is privately owned by shareholders and allows shares to be sold through the Stock Exchange?

a)

Public Limited Company

b)

Private Limited Company

c)

Public Corporation

d)

Sole Trader

38.

Identify the incorrect statement about a Private Limited Company:

a)

It cannot sell shares through the Stock Exchange.

b)

It is owned by shareholders.

c)

It is controlled by the state.

d)

It is part of the private sector.

39.

Who is in charge of the decisions in a sole trader business?

a)

The government

b)

The sole trader themselves

c)

Shareholders

d)

Employees

40.

A sole trader has unlimited liability. What does this mean?

a)

They can avoid paying debts.

b)

They are personally responsible for all the business’s debts.

c)

Only their business assets can be used to cover debts.

d)

They can share liability with employees.

41.

Sole traders can find it hard to take holidays because they are responsible for day-to-day operations.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

In a partnership, why is it easier to raise capital compared to being a sole trader?

a)

Partners share resources and investments.

b)

Only one partner contributes financially.

c)

Partnerships don’t require funding.

d)

Banks refuse to lend to sole traders.

43.

What can lead to disagreements in a partnership?

a)

Profits are equally shared.

b)

Differences in opinions and management styles.

c)

Partners always have the same objectives.

d)

Lack of business responsibilities.

44.

Which of the following is an advantage of a partnership?

a)

It cannot adapt to changes in law or finances.

b)

There’s more access to capital and expertise.

c)

Partners have limited control over decisions.

d)

Conflicts between partners are guaranteed.

45.

Joint ventures are ideal for sharing expertise and accessing new markets.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

What is a major risk when forming a joint venture?

a)

Partners cannot share their resources.

b)

Goals of the venture may not align among partners.

c)

Joint ventures prevent gaining market knowledge.

d)

It limits access to technologies.

47.

What advantage does a joint venture offer to its partners?

a)

Equal sharing of expertise and resources.

b)

Complete independence from other partners.

c)

New opportunities for expansion and growth.

d)

Elimination of financial risks.

48.

Why might resources in a joint venture not always be distributed equally?

a)

Lack of clear agreements between partners.

b)

Joint ventures do not require partnerships.

c)

Markets are restricted for joint ventures.

d)

Communication is always perfect between parties.

49.

What is job production?

a)

Making a batch of identical products

b)

Continuously producing identical products

c)

Producing individual products one at a time to meet customer preferences

d)

Automating the production

50.

What is job production?

a)

Making a batch of identical products

b)

Continuously producing identical products

c)

Producing individual products one at a time to meet customer preferences

d)

Automating the production process

51.

Which of the following is an example of job production?

a)

Bakery producing 100 bread rolls in a batch

b)

Tailor-made suits for a specific customer

c)

Producing millions of identical items on an assembly line

d)

Manufacturing cars in a factory

52.

What does batch production involve?

a)

Producing millions of items simultaneously

b)

Making a set quantity of identical products called a batch

c)

Customizing each product individually

d)

Fully automating production processes

53.

Which of the following is an example of batch production?

a)

Tailoring a suit for a client

b)

Making a batch of 100 white bread rolls

c)

Producing standardized products continuously

d)

Building a custom-made home

54.

What defines flow production?

a)

Producing products only upon customer demand

b)

Producing a set quantity of products at one time

c)

Continuously making identical products

d)

Manually crafting each product

55.

Which process is heavily automated?

a)

Job production

b)

Batch production

c)

Flow production

d)

Custom production

56.

What is the key characteristic of job production?

a)

Producing in small quantities

b)

Individual customization for specific needs

c)

Automating every step of production

d)

Continuously creating identical products

57.

Which production method is suitable for creating standardized products on an assembly line?

a)

Job production

b)

Batch production

c)

Flow production

d)

Flexible production

58.

In batch production, what happens after completing one batch?

a)

The process stops indefinitely

b)

Another group of identical products is produced

c)

Products are customized for individual customers

d)

The production process is automated

59.

Which production method involves producing one product at a time?

a)

Flow production

b)

Batch production

c)

Job production

d)

Mass production

60.

Job production requires __________ staff, which increases costs.

a)

unskilled

b)

highly skilled

c)

temporary

d)

inexperienced

61.

A benefit of job production is that customers get __________.

a)

identical products

b)

products at the lowest cost

c)

exactly what they want

d)

products made quickly

62.

A limitation of batch production is that it is not as __________ as job production.

a)

fast

b)

flexible

c)

automated

d)

expensive

63.

Batch production can be __________ automated.

a)

fully

b)

not at all

c)

partially

d)

randomly

64.

Flow production is able to produce __________ quantities compared to job or batch production.

a)

far smaller

b)

medium-sized

c)

customized

d)

far larger

65.

A disadvantage of flow production is that it requires expensive __________.

a)

materials

b)

labor

c)

machinery

d)

designs

66.

Batch production can produce __________ than job production.

a)

fewer products

b)

lower-quality products

c)

more products

d)

less waste

67.

Flow production ensures __________ in production, meaning products are identical.

a)

variety

b)

flexibility

c)

consistency

d)

creativity

68.

In flow production, customers know exactly what they are __________.

a)

creating

b)

buying

c)

designing

d)

selling

69.

One advantage of job production is that employees may enjoy using their __________ skills.

a)

general

b)

repetitive

c)

specialist

d)

managerial

70.

Job production is flexible and often used for high-quality goods and services, which means a higher price can be charged.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Half true, half false

d)

Cannot be sure

71.

Batch production is not affected at all by machinery breakdowns.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Half true, half false

d)

Cannot be sure

72.

Flow production leads to low average costs, making prices higher for consumers.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Half true, half false

d)

Cannot be sure

73.

Skilled labor is never used in job production, as it is highly automated.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Half true, half false

d)

Cannot be sure

74.

Batch production gives workers no variety in their jobs, as they perform the same tasks repeatedly.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Half true, half false

d)

Cannot be sure

75.

What happens after a mature tree is felled by a logger?

a)

It is chipped.

b)

It is stored as logs.

c)

It is transported directly to retailers.

d)

It is used for finishing rolls of paper.

76.

What is the main input for producing wood pulp?

a)

Raw paper

b)

Logs

c)

Young trees

d)

Sheets of paper

77.

What step follows the finishing of larger rolls of paper?

4 lines
78.

What is the main input for producing wood pulp?

a)

Raw paper

b)

Logs

c)

Young trees

d)

Sheets of paper

79.

What step follows the finishing of large rolls of paper?

a)

Transport to wholesalers

b)

Cutting into sheets

c)

Recycling and waste disposal

d)

Packaging by packers

80.

Which activity ensures that products reach customers?

a)

Outward transport

b)

Order picking

c)

Stock control

d)

Warehousing

81.

What is an example of reverse logistics?

a)

Warehousing finished products

b)

Recycling and returns

c)

Delivering products to customers

d)

Setting inventory policies

82.

Which logistics activity is responsible for removing materials from stores for orders?

a)

Warehousing

b)

Order picking

c)

Communication

d)

Receiving

83.

What can cause resentment among workers in quality control?

a)

Positive reinforcement

b)

Over-reliance on inspections

c)

Focus on teamwork

d)

Improved job efficiency

84.

What does stock control manage?

a)

Transport routes

b)

Quality inspections

c)

Inventory policies

d)

Packaging processes

85.

Who plants young trees in the paper production process?

a)

Loggers

b)

Foresters

c)

Gardeners

d)

Packers

86.

What do packers transport in the supply chain?

a)

Wood pulp

b)

Sheets of paper

c)

Finished rolls of paper

d)

Young trees

87.

Logs are chipped and processed into (a)   .

88.

Larger rolls of paper are (a)   to create sheets of paper.

89.

Recycling, returns, and waste disposal are part of (a)   logistics.

90.

(a)   is the term for managing inventory and ensuring stock is available.

91.

In logistics, ________ ensures products are delivered from warehouses to customers.

4 lines
92.

Quality control often relies on (a)   to check the output of workers.

93.

The process begins with seedlings grown by (a)   .

94.

Materials are moved within the organization through (a)   handling.

95.

The logs are transported after being (a)   by loggers.

96.

(a)   transports sheets of paper to wholesalers or retailers.

97.

Larger rolls of paper are used directly by the final customer.

(a)  

98.

Inspectors in quality control are always successful in maintaining worker morale.

(a)  

99.

Reverse logistics includes recycling and waste disposal.

(a)  

100.

Stock control is unrelated to inventory policies.

(a)  

101.

Logs are processed into wood pulp before being turned into paper.

(a)  

102.

What happens after a mature tree is felled by a logger?

(a)