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Assurence

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 23hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1.      Which THREE of the following describe aspects of the expectation gap with respect to the external audit?

a)

Users do not understand the meaning of the audit opinion.

b)

Users are not aware of the limitations of the audit process.

c)

Users do not appreciate that reasonable assurance is a low level of assurances.

d)

Users do not understand what the audit process involves.

2.

  The level of assurances given by an assurance engagement will depend on the type of engagement. Select the level of assurance you would expect to be given in the statutory audit.

a)

Absolute

b)

Reasonable

c)

  Limited

d)

Unlimited

3.

If type of engagement is report on prospective financial information

a)

Absolute

b)

Reasonable

c)

Limited

d)

Unlimited

4.

Which THREE of the following are benefits of an assurances report on financial information?

a)

An assurance report enhances the credibility of the information being reported on

b)

An assurance report reduces the risk of management bias in the information being reported on

c)

An assurance report draws the attention of the user to the deficiencies in the information being reported on

d)

An assurance report attests to the correctness of the information being reported on

5.

Which TWO of the following are elements of a general assurance engagement?

a)

A.     a three-party relationship

b)

B.     sufficient appropriate evidence

c)

C.      determination of materiality

d)

D.     an engagement letter

6.

In respect of a given subject matter state, which ONE of the following party must determine the suitable criteria?

a)

Intended user

b)

Responsible party

c)

Shareholder

d)

Practitioner

7.

Which ONE of the following statements is false?

a)

A positive assurance conclusion gives a reasonable level of assurance

b)

Reasonable assurance is a high level of assurance, which allows a conclusion to be expressed positively and negatively

c)

A statutory audit gives reasonable assurance that the financial statements give a true and fair view in all material respects

d)

A negative assurance conclusions given a limited level of assurance

8.

Which THREE of the following are benefits of assurance work?

a)

Assurance may act as a deterrent to error of fraud

b)

An independent, professional opinion

c)

Testing as a result of sampling is cheaper for the responsible party

d)

Additional confidence given to other related parties

9.

Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of the external audit

a)

The external audit is performed by management to identify areas of deficiency within a company and to make recommendation to mitigate those deficiencies

b)

The external audit is an exercise carried out by auditors in order to give an opinion on whether the financial statement of a company are materially misstated

c)

The external audit is an exercise carried out in order to give an opinion on the effectiveness of a company’s internal control system

d)

The external audit provides negative assurance on the truth and fairness of a company’s financial statements

10.

According to the Companies Act 2006 in the UK, which THREE of the following criteria can be used to decide the audit exemption?

a)

Turnover < £10.2 millions

b)

Total assets <£5.2 millions

c)

Total assets. <£5.1 millions

d)

Number of employees < 50

11.

Which THREE of the following are limitations of the provision of assurance?

a)

The client’s staffs may collude in fraud that can be deliberately hidden from the auditor

b)

Most audit evidence is persuasive rather than conclusive

c)

Assurance work is carried out by people independent of the entity

d)

Assurance providers would not test every item in the subject matter

12.

According to the Companies Act 2006 in the UK, which THREE of the following statements are true?

a)

In UK, Financial Reporting Council (FRC) is responsible for issuing auditing standards and guidance for auditing

b)

An individual of firm is eligible for appointment as statutory auditor if the individual or firm is a member of a recognized supervisory body and is eligible for appointment under the rules of that body

c)

Auditors in the UK are subject to both legal and professional requirements

d)

A person who is an officer may act as a statutory auditor of a company

13.

ATCLLP, an assurance firm, has the following 4 clients among its client porfolio. For

below clients, select the client which has low inherent risk

a)

Blue Ltd has lack of finance director

b)

White Ltd has few unusual transaction

c)

Grey Ltd is planning to list on the local stock exchange within the next two years

d)

Green Ltd is currently facing financial difficulties and is seeking alternative forms of finance

14.

Which THREE of the following are benefits of an engagement letter in respect of assurance services?

a)

Clearly defines the extent of the assurance provider’s responsibilities

b)

Confirms the scope of the engagement

c)

Providers written confirmation of the acceptance of the engagement

d)

Certifies the assurance provider’s opinion

15.

Which THREE of the following are the purpose of a letter of engagement?

a)

Setting out the form of any report to be issued

b)

Providing evidence on matters where other evidence is not expected to exist

c)

Providing constructive suggestions to management concerning improvements in internal control

d)

Documenting and confirming acceptance of the appointment

16.

Which ONE of the following must be included in an audit engagement letter?

a)

Arrangement concerning the use of experts

b)

Basic on which fees are computed

c)

The reporting framework

d)

Obligations to make audit working papers available to other parties

17.

Which TWO of the following are benefits of an engagement letter in respect of assurance services?

a)

Confirms the scope of the engagement

b)

Ensure that the audit is properly organized and managed

c)

Ensure appropriate attention is devoted to important areas of the audit

d)

Provides written confirmation of the acceptance of the engagement

18.

Which ONE of the following might indicate that an assurance client could have lower than normal inherent or control risk?

a)

Lots of transactions with related parties

b)

Significant unusual transactions

c)

Conservative accounting policies

d)

Evidence of questionable integrity, doubtful accounting policies

19.

Which ONE of the following procedures should be carried out before the audit?

a)

Setup and submit a letter of engagement to the directors of the company

b)

Ensure that a resolution has been passed at the general meeting to appoint the new auditors

c)

Ensure that the outgoing auditors’ removal/ resignation has been properly conducted

d)

Communicate with the predecessor auditors to discover any reasons they

20.

Which THREE of the following statements relating to engagement letter are false?

a)

The engagement letter should be sent before acceptance of appointment

b)

The engagement letter should be sent after the appointment and after the commencement of the audit

c)

The engagement letter should be sent after the appointment but before the commencement of the audit

d)

The engagement letter should be sent after the commencement of the audit but before the signing of the auditor’s report

21.

Auditor must find the information about new client before accepting the client. Which TREE of the following are sources of information about new clients?

a)

Enquiries of other sources

b)

Review of documents

c)

Review of rules and standards

d)

Implement the analytical procedures

22.

Which THREE of the following are not the responsibilities of the external auditor?

a)

To obtain sufficient appropriate evidence regarding compliance with laws and regulations that have a direct effect on the financial statements only

b)

To obtain sufficient appropriate evidence regarding compliance with laws and regulations that have a indirect effect on the financial statements only

c)

To prevent and detect all non-compliance with laws and regulations which affect the business

d)

To obtain sufficient appropriate evidence regarding compliance with laws and regulations that have both a direct and indirect effect on the financial statements

23.

Audit risk can be split into three components: inherent risk, control risk and dectection risk. For each of the following examples, select one example which illustrated for inherent risk

a)

Management fails to meet up regularly for board meetings

b)

Directors’ pay is related to company profitability

c)

Senior management regularly override the system of controls

d)

The organization has a high turnover of staff in the accounts department

24.

Which three of the following constitute analytical procedure?

a)

Consideration of anticipated results of the entity from budgets or forecasts of the auditor

b)

Consideration of whether a balance has been classified appropriately

c)

Consideration of comparable information for prior periods

d)

Consideration of relationships between elements of financial information

25.

Which TWO of the following are true of the auditor’s objectives in relation to fraud, in line with ISA 240, The auditor’s responsibilities relating to fraud in an audit of financial statements?

a)

The auditor must identify and assets the risks of material misstatement due to fraud

b)

The auditor is not responsible for the prevention of fraud and error but is responsible for detection

c)

The auditor must obtain evidence regarding the risks of material misstatement due to fraud

d)

The auditor must only obtain evidence regarding the risks of material misstatement due to error

26.

What are the two elements of the risk of material misstatement at the assertion level?

a)

Sampling risk

b)

Inherent risk

c)

Detection risk

d)

Control risk

27.

Which TWO of the following are not the purposes of planning the audit?

a)

To identify clearly the management’s responsibility

b)

To facilitate delegation of work to audit team members

c)

To determine the scope of the engagement

d)

To ensure appropriate attention is devoted to different areas of the audit

28.

Which THREE of the following statements are true with respect to analytical procedures?

a)

Analytical procedures are compulsory procedures in the planning phase of the financial statement audit

b)

Analytical procedures can be used throughout the audit

c)

Analytical procedures must be used at the review stage the audit

d)

Analytical procedures can be used in testing of controls

29.

Which THREE of the following would be found in the overall audit strategy document?

a)

Consequent, nature, timing and extent of procedures

b)

Detailed plan of audit procedures

c)

Calculation of preliminary materiality thresholds

d)

The accounting policies adopted by the entity and changes in those policies

30.

The auditor of AAT Co wishes to bring audit risk to acceptable risk. Which TWO of the following actions could the auditor take to archive this?

a)

Reduce control risk

b)

Reduce risk of material misstatement

c)

Assign more experienced staff to the engagement team

d)

Increase sample sizes

31.

Which TWO of the following statements in respect of risk are true?

a)

Identifying business risks is part of the company’s risk assessment processes

b)

Inherent and control risks are components of audit risk

c)

Auditors can impact on inherent risk to bring audit risk to an acceptable audit risk

d)

Auditors can impact on control risk to bring audit risk to an acceptable audit risk

32.

During the planning stages of the final audit, the auditor believes that the probability of giving an inappropriate audit opinion is too high. Which ONE of the following should the auditor amend the audit plan to resolve this issue?

a)

Decrease the inherent risk

b)

Decrease the control risk

c)

Increase the sample size

d)

Increase the materiality level

33.

When gaining an understanding of the specific business operations of an audit client, which ONE of the following matters would an auditor need to consider?

a)

Products of services and markets of the client’s business

b)

Accounting principles and industry specific practices relevant to the client’s business

c)

Acquisitions of disposal of the client’s business activities

d)

Leasing of property, plant of equipment for use in the client’s business

34.

Which TWO of the following procedures must be used by the auditor to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment in accordance with ISA 315 Identifying. And assessing the risks of material misstatement through understanding the entity and its environment?

a)

Reperformance

b)

Analytical procedures

c)

Inquiry

d)

Confirmation

35.

The auditor of Grey Co has set the overall materiality level at $200,000. Which ONE of the following could be the performance materiality set for the financial statements for Grey Co?

a)

$220,000

b)

$250,000

c)

$250,000

d)

$100,000

36.

White Ltd’s quick ratio has fallen from 1.8:1 to 1.6:1. Which TWO of the following might help to explain this decline?

a)

Credit control has been poor

b)

Current liabilities have increased

c)

The allowance for receivables has been reduced

d)

The entity has purchased a number of inventories for cash

37.

Which TWO of the following statements correctly describe the auditors' responsibilities in accordance with ISA 240 The auditors' responsibilities relating to fraud in an audit of financial statements?

a)

The auditor performs the audit with the aim of deterring fraud

b)

The auditor must only obtain evidence regarding the risks of material misstatement due to error

c)

The auditor is responsible for obtaining assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement whether caused by fraud or error

d)

The auditor is not responsible for the prevention and detection of fraud and error

38.

Linda has obtained a list of items which make up the cash and cash equivalents balance (£3,556) in the financial statements of Baker LtD. Materiality has been set at £3,800. Which ONE of the following items should not be tested by Linda?

a)

Current account balance (overdrawn) £5,600

b)

Petty cash float £750

c)

Special directors’ cash account £794

d)

Special managers’ cash account £500

39.

Which THREE of the following are assertions used by the auditor about account balances at the period end?

a)

Occurrence

b)

Existence

c)

Accuracy, valuation and allocation

d)

Completeness

40.

Which TWO of the following are valid comments about the quality of assurance evidence?

a)

Evidence in the form of documents of written representation are more reliable than oral representations

b)

Evidence from external sources is more reliable than evidence obtained from the entity’s records

c)

Evidence from internal sources is more reliable when related internal controls operate ineffectively

d)

Evidence from internal sources is more reliable than evidence created by the assurance provider

41.

The following are items that might be included in an auditor’s report. Which TWO of the following are reported on by exception only?

a)

Whether the financial statements are in agreement with the accounting records and returns

b)

Whether details of directors’ emoluments and other benefits have been correctly disclosed in the financial statements

c)

Whether the financial statements give a true and fair view of the state of the company’s affairs at the end of financial year

d)

Information in the strategic report and the directors’ report is consistent with the financial statements

42.

The auditor of Grey Co has concluded that Grey Co is not a going concern. The financial statements have been prepared on a going concern basis and management has refused to change them. What form of audit opinion will be issued by the auditor?

a)

A qualified ‘except for’ opinion due to material misstatement

b)

A qualified ‘except for opinion due to in sufficient appropriate audit evidence

c)

An adverse opinion

d)

A disclaimer

43.

ISA 705 Modification to the opinion in the independent auditor’s report identifies three possible types of modification. In which of the following circumstances would a disclaimer of opinion be issued?

a)

The auditor has not been able to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base an opinion but has concluded that the possible effects of any undetected misstatement could be material but not pervasive

b)

The auditor concludes that the financial statements include misstatements which are both material and pervasive to the financial statements

c)

The auditor concludes that the financial statements include misstatements which are material but not pervasive to the financial statements

d)

The auditor has not been able to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base an opinion and has concluded that the possible effects of any undetected misstatement could be both material and pervasive

44.

The financial statements of Green Co include a receivables balance of $30,000 which the auditor does not believe will be recovered. Materiality has been set at $90,000. There are no other unadjusted misstatements. What form of audit opinion would be issued by the auditor?

a)

Qualified opinion due to overstatement of receivables

b)

Adverse opinion

c)

Disclaimer of opinion

d)

Unmodified opinion

45.

ISA 700 Forming an opinion and reporting of financial statements sets out the basic elements of an auditor’s report. Which THREE of the following must be included in an unmodified auditor’s report?

a)

Addressee

b)

Introductory paragraph

c)

Auditor’s responsibilities

d)

Deficiencies of internal controls

46.

Which ONE of the following statements regarding test of controls is true?

a)

Tests of controls are designed to detect material misstatement in the financial statements

b)

Tests of controls are used to collect audit evidence about effectiveness of internal control

c)

Tests of controls are implemented after implementing the substantive procedures

d)

Tests of controls must be used in auditing financial statements of all clients

47.

Which TWO of the following describe manifestations of the expectation gap?

a)

Users discovering that the directors refuse to cooperate in providing the auditor with evidence he requests

b)

Users blaming the auditors for a fraud discovered in a company subsequent to an audit

c)

Users believing that the amounts in the financial statements are stated precisely

d)

Users believing that the audit firm must not sell ether services to the audited entity

48.

The majority of the books and records of Green Co have been destroyed by a flood and the

auditors have no other realistic means of obtaining sufficient, appropriate audit evidence.

Which form of opinion will the auditor issue?

a)

Qualified opinion on the basic that sufficient appropriate evidence is not available

b)

A disclaimer of opinion

c)

An adverse opinion

d)

Unmodified opinion with an emphasis of matter paragraph explaining the circumstances of the flood

49.

Two types of procedures used in gathering evidence are tests of controls and substantive procedures. Sometimes, a specific procedure can serve as both a test of control and substantive procedure. If sales for the year are compared to the budget, which ONE of the type of procedures is issued to illustrate?

a)

Test of control

b)

Substantive procedure

c)

Both a test of control and substantive procedure

d)

Neither a test of control nor a substantive procedure

50.

Green plc is required to apply ISA 701, Communicating Key Audit Matters in the Independent Auditor’s report. Which ONE of the following could be key audit matters?

a)

Significant transactions or events

b)

Areas of significant auditor judgement

c)

Areas in relation to which the auditor expressed a separate opinion

d)

Areas of low audit risk

51.

Which two of the following are reasons why segregation of duties is important in an internal control system?

a)

It improves efficiency

b)

It improves the rate of detection errors

c)

It is a way of assigning roles within a large organisation

d)

It helps to prevent fraud

52.

The following is an example of internal control which operates at Blue pIC. Select the type of control activity which is illustrated in the following example: “There are two keys to keys to the locked finance department safer one held by the finance director and the other by the managing director”.

a)

Authorisation

b)

Information processing

c)

Physical control

d)

Segregation of duties

53.

Most entities make use of IT systems for financial reporting and operational purpose. Controls operating in an IT environment can be split into general controls and application controls. Which ONE of the following is an application control?

a)

Use of passwords

b)

Testing of new systems

c)

Disaster recovery plan

d)

Authorisation of data for input

54.

Which ONE of the following statements is true regarding the audit committee?

a)

An audit committee must comprise non-executive directors and executive directors

b)

All companies are required to have and audit committee

c)

Where there is no internal audit function the audit committee should consider the need for one on an annual basic

d)

The role and responsibilities of the audit committee are set out in statute

55.

The following are examples of computer controls which operate in the payroll sytem at Hana LtD. Which TWO of the following examples are the types of computer control which illustrate for application control?

a)

Manual checks to ensure that timesheets are authorised before details are processed

b)

Approval of new applications by a sample of users and by management

c)

Range checked on payroll processing

d)

Password protection limiting access to data

56.

The following is example of internal control which operates at White plc: “The finance controller reconcilies the payables ledger with supplier statements on a monthly basis”. Select the type of control activity which is illustrated.

a)

Performance review

b)

Information processing

c)

Physical control

d)

Segregation of duties

57.

ISA 315 Identifying and assessing the risks of material misstatement through understanding the entity and its environment sets out the five components of internal control. Which THREE of the following are set out as a component of internal control within ISA 315?

a)

Monitoring of controls

b)

Control activities

c)

The information system relevant to financial reporting

d)

Human resource policies and practices

58.

An effective system of internal control requires segregation of basic functions. Which TWO of the following functions should ideally be segregated?

a)

Budgetary control

b)

Preparation of financial statements

c)

Custody of handling of assets

d)

Recording of transactions

59.

Which THREE of the following are true in respect of the limitations of any system of internal control?

a)

Standard controls may not be designed to deal with unusual transactions

b)

The effectiveness of many controls rely on the integrity of those applying them

c)

Internal controls are only applied to material items

d)

The cost of implementing controls may be more expensive than the cost of any potential risk arising

60.

Which TWO of the following statements are true regarding the controls in a small company?

a)

The external auditor will assess the attitudes, awareness and action of management

b)

The external auditor can rely on the controls in a small company

c)

Segregation of duties is often adequate in a small company

d)

Evidence of the operation of controls is more likely to be available in documentary form

61.

ICAEW qualified auditors acting in the UK are subject to which two of the following?

a)

ICAEW Code of Ethics

b)

IESBA Code of Ethics

c)

FRC’s Ethical Standard

d)

The Code of Ethics set by the Government

62.

Which TWO of the following are fundamental principles as stated in the ICAEW code of ethics?

a)

Independence

b)

Confidential

c)

Objectivity

d)

Professional skepticism

63.

Which THREE of the following are valid reasons why independence and objectivity are important to assurance profession?

a)

Public interest in financial information

b)

Credibility of published financial information

c)

The public’s expectations of accountants

d)

Tradition

64.

For each of following statements in relation to guidance on processional ethics. Which ONE of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

Principles-based guidance is more flexible than rules-based guidance

b)

Ethical guidance from ICAEW is in the form of rules rather than principles

c)

It is in the public interest for accountants to follow a professional ethics framework

d)

Rules-based codes offer a more straightforward ethical framework, as they cover specific situations

65.

There are two main approaches to a code of professional ethics; rules based ethical code and a principle-based code. Which TWO of the following statements are true?

a)

Ethical guidance from ICAEW is in the form of rules rather than principles

b)

Principles-based guidance may permit multiple correct response in a given situation

c)

Rules-based codes offer a more straightforward ethical framework, as they cover specific situations

d)

A rule-based code requires a professional accountant to identify, evaluate and address threats to compliance with fundamental ethical principles

66.

When gaining an understanding of the investment operations of an audit client which ONE of the following matters would an auditor need to consider?

a)

Products or services and markets of the client’s business

b)

Acquisitions or disposals of the client’s business activities

c)

Leasing of property, plant or equipment for use in the client’s business

d)

Accounting principles and industry specific practices relevant to the client’s business

67.

The auditor of Blue Co has set performance materiality at $200,000. Which ONE of the following could be the materiality level set for the financial statements as a whole for Blue Co?

a)

$210,000

b)

$200,000

c)

$100,000

d)

$120,000

68.

Which TWO of the following are true in respect of related party transactions?

a)

Related party transactions must be completely disclosed in the financial statements

b)

Related party transactions tend to be low-risk to the auditor

c)

There may be a significant control risk in relation to related party transactions

d)

Disclosure of related party transactions is unlikely to be material to the financial statements

69.

Which TWO of the following statements regarding tests of controls is true?

a)

Tests of controls are designed to detect material misstatements in the financial statements

b)

When the auditor believes controls are operating effectively,

c)

Tests of controls are used to collect audit evidence about effectiveness of internal control

d)

Tests of controls must be used in auditing financial statements of all clients

70.

Auditors obtain evidence using procedures set out in ISA (UK) 500, Audit Evidence. When audit the financial statements of Blue Ltd, the auditor is present while a sales order is being processed to test if the controls are carried out. Which ONE of the following procedures is being used?

a)

Inspection

b)

Observation

c)

Inquiry

d)

Re-performance

71.

The auditor of Blue Co has concluded that the use of the going concern assumption is appropriate and that the material uncertainty has been adequately discloseD. What is the impact of this conclusion on the auditor’s report?

a)

Qualified opinion

b)

Adverse opinion

c)

Unmodified opinion without an emphasis of matter paragraph

d)

Unmodified opinion with an emphasis of matter paragraph.

72.

 

ISA 705 Modification to the opinion in the independent auditor’s report identifies three possible types of modification. In which of the following circumstances would a disclaimer of opinion be issued?

a)

The auditor has not been able to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base an opinion but has concluded that the possible effects of any undetected misstatements could be material but not pervasive.

b)

The auditor concludes that the financial statements include misstatements which are both material and pervasive to the financial statements

c)

The auditor concludes that the financial statements include misstatements which are material but not pervasive to the financial statements

d)

The auditor has not been able to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base an opinion and has concluded that the possible effects of any undetected misstatements could be both material and pervasive

73.

For each of the following statements in relation to guidance on professional ethics. Which THREE of the following statements are true?

a)

It is in the public interest for accountants to follow a professional ethics framework

b)

Rules-based codes offer a more straightforward ethical framework, as they cover specific situations

c)

Ethical guidance from ICAEW is in the form of rules rather than principles

d)

Principles-based guidance is more flexible than rules-based guidance

74.

The auditor of White Co is performing audit procedures to confirm the completeness of recording the motor vehicles. Which ONE of the following would provide the most persuasive evidence of this?

a)

Inspection of vehicle registration documents

b)

Review of vehicle insurance documentation

c)

Physical inspection of the motor vehicle

d)

Checking that the motor vehicles are recorded in the non-current asset registed

75.

The following is example of internal control which operates at Castle plc: The finance controller conducts a monthly review of authorization controls over dispatch notes". Select the type of control activity which is illustrate

a)

Performance review

b)

Information processing

c)

Physical control

d)

Segregation of duties

76.

Which TWO of the following represent weakness of a system of internal controls?

a)

Lack of controls over the purchases system

b)

Lack of understanding of the purposes of controls

c)

Lack of staff to ensure segregation of duties

d)

The nossibility that staff members will collude in fraud

77.

Which THREE of the following are areas in which a self-interest threat might arise?

a)

Where there is close business relationship between the auditor and the client

b)

Where the auditor prepares and audits the financial statements

c)

Where the auditor has a financial interest in the client

d)

Where the audit firm provides internal audit services and significant reliance is to be placed on the internal audit work for the purposes of the external audit

e)

Where there are a significant amount of overdue fees

78.

A private company has requested that its auditor prepare a valuation report on a prospective acquisition target in order to help it obtain finance for the acquisition from its bank. Which TWO of the following threats may arise if the auditor agrees to take on this assignment?

a)

Self-review threat

b)

Familiarity threat

c)

Advocacy threat

d)

Self-interest threat

79.

Which THREE of the following are limitations of the provision of assurance?

a)

Some items in the subject matter may be estimates

b)

Most audit evidence is persuasive rather than conclusive

c)

Assurance work is carried out by people independent of the entity

d)

Assurance providers would not test every item in the subject matter

80.

When gaining an understanding of the financing operations of an audit client which ONE of the following matters would an auditor need to consider?

a)

Accounting principles and industry specific practices relevant to the client’s business

b)

Products or services and markets of the client’s business

c)

Acquisitions or disposals of the client’s business activities

d)

Leasing of property, plant or equipment for use in the client’s business

81.

Which THREE of the following statements in respect of risk are true?

a)

Auditors can impact on inherent risk to bring audit risk to an acceptable audit risk

b)

Auditors cannot impact on inherent risk to bring audit risk to an acceptable audit risk

c)

Identifying business risks is part of the company’s risk assessment processes

d)

Inherent and control risks are components of audit risk

82.

Which ONE of the following statements regarding analytical procedures is correct?

a)

Analytical procedures are only used as risk assessment procedures

b)

Analytical procedures must be used as part of the overall review of the financial statements

c)

Analytical procedures may be used as part of the overall review of the financial statements

d)

Analytical procedures must be used at the implementing phase

83.

In the financial statement audit of independent auditor, which TWO of the following would ordinarily be contained in the overall audit strategy?

a)

The results of audit risk assessment

b)

The contract between the audit firm and the client

c)

List of staff to be involved with the audit

d)

Detailed plan of audit procedures to be carried out

84.

For each of the following statements in relation to guidance on professional ethics. Which THREE of the following statements are true?

a)

It is in the public interest for accountants to follow a professional ethics framework

b)

Rules-based codes offer a more straightforward ethical framework, as they cover specific situations

c)

Ethical guidance from ICAEW is in the form of rules rather than principle

d)

Principles-based guidance is more flexible than rules-based guidance.

 

85.

Which THREE of the following would be found in the overall audit strategy document?

a)

Timetable

b)

Calculation of preliminary materiality thresholds

c)

Detailed plan of audit procedures

d)

Budget and fee

86.

When audit inventory, auditor detected that inventory is overstate. The overstatement is material but not pervasive to the financial statements. Management has refused to make an adjustment to the financial statements. What form of modified opinion should the auditor issue?

a)

Qualified opinion due to a material misstatement

b)

Qualified opinion due to insufficient appropriate evidence on which to base an opinion

c)

Adverse opinion

d)

Disclaimer of opinion

87.

During the planning stages of the final audit, the auditor believes that the probability of giving an inappropriate audit opinion is too high. Which ONE of the following should the auditor amend the audit plan to resolve this issue?

a)

Increase the materiality level

b)

Decrease the inherent risk

c)

Decrease the control risk

d)

Decrease the detection risk

88.

Which TWO of the following are not elements of a general assurance engagement?

a)

A three-party relationship

b)

Sufficient appropriate evidence

c)

Determination of materiality

d)

An engagement letter

89.

According to the Companies Act 2006 in UK, which THREE of the following criteria can be used to decide the audit exemption?

a)

Turnover <£10.2millions

b)

Total assets <£5.1millions

c)

Turnover <£10.1millions

d)

Number of employees <50

90.

Which THREE of the following are benefits of an engagement letter in respect of assurance services?

a)

Clearly defines the extent of the assurance provider’s responsibilities

b)

Confirms the scope of the engagement

c)

Provides written confirmation of the acceptance of the engagement

d)

Certifies the assurance provider’s opinion