wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Computer networks

Total questions: 237

Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

 The main high-bandwidth connectivity methods used by medium and large enterprises:

a)

T1

b)

PointToPoint

c)

bus

d)

DSL

e)

cable modem

2.

The main high-bandwidth connectivity methods used by medium and large enterprises

a)

T3

b)

PointToPoint

c)

bus

d)

DSL

e)

cable modem

3.

Using the ping command, you can determine:

a)

 number of routers between source and destination devices

b)

default gateway address

c)

the average time it takes for a packet to reach its destination and for the response to return to its origin

d)

IP address of the router closest to the end device

e)

the average time each router takes to respond between source and destination devices

4.

 Command Line Utilities for Diagnosing Problems at Layer 3

a)

CLI

b)

ping

c)

DNS

d)

packet sniffer

e)

Telnet

5.

 Command Line Utilities for Diagnosing Problems at Layer 3

a)

 packet sniffer

b)

DHCP

c)

DNS

d)

ipconfig

e)

Telnet

6.

Command Line Utilities for Diagnosing Problems at Layer 3

a)

Telnet

b)

packet sniffer

c)

GUI

d)

TeraTerm

e)

ping

7.

 Physical layer functions of the OSI model

a)

signal generation

b)

data sharing

c)

adding a hardware address

d)

data encapsulation in frames

e)

packet routing

8.

Physical layer functions of the OSI model

a)

 data encapsulation in frames

b)

signal generation

c)

 data sharing

d)

adding a hardware address

e)

 packet routing

9.

What is included in a logical topology map?

a)

location of the wiring closet and access point

b)

wireless signal coverage area

c)

network data path

d)

physical location of intermediate devices

e)

 location of cable lines

10.

What is included in a logical topology map?

a)

 location of the wiring closet and access point

b)

wireless signal coverage area

c)

 location of cable lines

d)

device names and Layer 3 addressing information

e)

physical location of intermediate devices

11.

A type of network topology that allows you to see which end devices are connected to which intermediate devices and which media is being used:

a)

star

b)

ring

c)

bus

d)

physical

e)

 logical

12.

By placing network equipment in the telecommunications bay, rather than at the user's workplace, the following advantages can be achieved:

a)

enhanced physical security

b)

centralized node management

c)

higher transmission speed

d)

greater resistance against hacking attempts

e)

 less electricity consumption.

13.

A common name for all computers connected to a network that are directly involved in network communication:

a)

server

b)

host

c)

 intermediate device

d)

router

e)

client

14.

Carriers that are used in the transmission of data by light pulses

a)

 twisted pair

b)

coaxial cable

c)

copper cable

d)

wireless connection

15.

Classful IP addresses describe the following statements:

a)

3 out of 5 address classes are reserved for multicast and experimental use.

b)

Reading the first bit allows you to determine the class to which the address belongs.

c)

Only class A addresses have high bits of 100.

d)

 The number of bits used to identify nodes depends on the class of the network.

e)

The host portion of a class C address can be up to 24 bits.

16.

Classful IP addresses describe the following statements:

a)

3 out of 5 address classes are reserved for multicast and experimental use.

b)

The host portion of a class C address can be up to 24 bits.

c)

Only class A addresses have high bits of 100.

d)

 Reading the first bit allows you to determine the class to which the address belongs.

e)

All subnets on a network have the same size..

17.

Cisco Non-Volatile Memory (NVRAM):

a)

 used to store data in the absence of power

b)

 used to store the password encryption key.

c)

used to store the routing table

d)

 contains the current configuration file

e)

 used to store the ARP table

18.

User EXEC mode:

a)

All aspects of the router configuration are available in this mode.

b)

It is the default mode when you first start an unconfigured router..

c)

All router commands are available.

d)

The global configuration mode can be accessed using the enable command.

e)

 In this mode, you can configure the interfaces and protocols of the router.

19.

 A network attack that slows down or crashes hardware and software:

a)

Zero Day or Zero Hour

b)

Virus, worm or trojan virus

c)

Denial of service attack.

d)

 Firewall

e)

Spyware

20.

A way to create a secure connection for remote workers

a)

 Zero Day or Zero Hour

b)

 Virus, worm or trojan virus

c)

Denial of service attack.

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Firewall

21.

What is used to block unauthorized access to the network..

a)

Zero Day or Zero Hour

b)

Virus, worm or trojan virus

c)

Denial of service attack

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Firewall

22.

 A network attack that occurs on the first day a vulnerability is known

a)

Virus, worm or trojan virus

b)

Denial of service attack

c)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

d)

Firewall

e)

Zero Day or Zero Hour

23.

Malicious code running on user devices

a)

Virus, worm or trojan virus

b)

Zero Day or Zero Hour

c)

Firewall

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

 Denial of service attack

24.

A type of software installed on a computer that secretly collects information about websites visited by computer users.

a)

Firewall

b)

Zero Day or Zero Hour

c)

Spyware

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Denial of service attack.

25.

A type of network that provides secure access to corporate systems for vendors, customers, and employees.

a)

 Extended network

b)

 Virtual Private Network (VPN)

c)

Internet

d)

 Extranet

e)

 intranet

26.

A network trend that allows users to access company network resources from their personal laptops and smartphones.

a)

intranet

b)

VPN

c)

 Extranet

d)

Cloud computing

e)

BYOD

27.

A network trend that allows users to access company network resources from their personal laptops and smartphones.

a)

BYOD

b)

Cloud computing

c)

Extranet

d)

VPN

e)

intranet

28.

ISP

a)

a protocol that defines the method of interaction between computers on a local network.

b)

An organization that provides an opportunity for individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

c)

 an organization that develops standards for cables and wires in networking.

d)

 a network device that combines the functionality of several different network devices into one.

e)

A protocol that defines network security requirements.

29.

 A network characteristic that allows a network to rapidly expand to support new users and applications without compromising the efficiency of serving existing ones.

a)

 availability

b)

 quality of service

c)

scalability

d)

reliability

e)

 consistency

30.

A device that performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks.

a)

 firewall

b)

web serverv

c)

router

d)

DSL - modem

e)

IPS

31.

Command log functions

a)

 Save command lines in a log for future reference.

b)

Save router settings.

c)

Calling up to 15 command lines by default.

d)

View a list of commands entered during the previous session.

e)

Calling previously entered commands.

32.

 Modes and interfaces that can be password protected to restrict access to the Cisco IOS or its segments.

a)

Virtual Terminals (VTY)

b)

 ip address configuration mode

c)

user EXEC configuration save mode

d)

Ethernet interface

e)

user EXEC mode

33.

 Static routes describe

a)

They are automatically updated when the interface is reconfigured or disabled.

b)

 They require manual reconfiguration to implement network changes.

c)

They are defined in the routing table with the prefix C

d)

They are created in interface customization mode.

e)

They automatically become the default gateway on the router.

34.

The local DNS server is responsible for the following tasks

a)

 dynamic IP address assignment

b)

 support for a large number of cached DNS records

c)

 converting names to IP addresses for internal hosts.

d)

Internet service provider server support

e)

forwarding all name conversion requests to root servers on the internet

35.

OSI and TCP/IP models:

a)

The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model, and the OSI model is based on real protocols.

b)

 The two lower layers of the TCP/IP model form the lower layer of the OSI model.

c)

The TCP/IP model is based on eight layers, and the OSI model is based on four layers.

d)

The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.

e)

The TCP/IP model defines protocols for connecting physical networks.

36.

OSI and TCP/IP models:

a)

The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model, and the OSI model is based on real protocols.

b)

 The two lower layers of the TCP/IP model form the lower layer of the OSI model.

c)

The TCP/IP model is based on eight layers, and the OSI model is based on four layers.

d)

The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.

e)

The TCP/IP model defines protocols for connecting physical networks.

37.

 OSI and TCP/IP models:

a)

The TCP/IP model defines protocols for connecting physical networks.

b)

The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model, and the OSI model is based on real protocols.

c)

The two lower layers of the TCP/IP model form the lower layer of the OSI model.

d)

The OSI session layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.

e)

The TCP/IP model is based on four layers, and the OSI model is based on seven layers.

38.

The package parameters will be the same for each session when a node interacts with multiple applications on the same server

a)

 IP address and MAC address

b)

 MAC address and session number

c)

IP address and session number

d)

 IP address and port number

e)

MAC address and port number

39.

Network Reliability Characteristics

a)

The higher the MTTR (Mean Time to Repair), the higher the reliability.

b)

Redundant hardware provides increased reliability.

c)

Reliability is measured by the number of applications used on the network.

d)

Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.

e)

The ISP guarantees the same level of reliability to all subscribers.

40.

 Description of the FTP protocol

a)

It uses the well-known port 23.

b)

The FTP client starts the data transfer using the active connection.

c)

The protocol interpreter performs the data transfer function.

d)

The protocol requires two connections between the client and the server.

e)

FTP servers open a well-known port on the client computer.

41.

Default subnet mask for address 172.32.18.222

a)

255.255.255.254

b)

255.255.255.0

c)

255.0.0.0

d)

255.255.0.0

e)

255.255.255.255

42.

Default subnet mask for address 192.152.18.222

a)

255.255.255.255

b)

255.255.255.254

c)

255.255.0.0

d)

255.0.0.0

e)

255.255.255.0

43.

 A class C network address can start with a high order binary number:

a)

110

b)

000

c)

001

d)

010

e)

011

44.

 Subnet mask for network address 172.16.4.8/18

a)

255.255.0.0

b)

255.255.192.0

c)

255.255.240.0

d)

255.255.248.0

e)

255.255.255.0

45.

 The number of IP addresses that can be assigned to end devices on a network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248.

a)

30

b)

126

c)

6

d)

254

e)

510

46.

 For a subnet with at least 20 host addresses, use the subnet mask.

a)

255.255.255.240

b)

255.255.255.192

c)

55.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.224

e)

255.255.255.248

47.

 Feature that provides scalability of network devices

a)

low cost

b)

 low maintenance requirements

c)

simplicity of repair

d)

fixed number of interfaces

e)

 modularity

48.

 Internet bandwidth speed units.

a)

bits per second

b)

bytes per second

c)

Hertz

d)

 megabyte per second

e)

packets per second

49.
a)

The server has no return path to the node.

b)

Server is disabled.

c)

Some packets reach their destination.

d)

 Two routers on the path are not responding to pings.

e)

 Echo request services are not supported on the destination.

50.
a)

 Router В

b)

Router F

c)

 Router А

d)

Router С

e)

 Router D

51.

A network utility that helps determine the location of network problems and the routers through which the packet passes

a)

netstat

b)

ipconfing

c)

ping

d)

tracert

e)

nslookup

52.

Function of the transport layer of the OSI model

a)

transferring data to the next device with a direct connection

b)

 formatting and encoding data for transmission

c)

converting data into bits for transmission

d)

 routing data between networks

e)

 Ensuring reliable data transmission over the network using TCP

53.

Level 1 issue causing loss of Internet connection

a)

 interruption of the network cable connection

b)

 invalid subnet mask

c)

wrong default gateway

d)

invalid MAC address

e)

 faulty printer cable

54.
a)

A= straight through, B= straight through, C= straight through, D= crossover, E= console

b)

A= console, B= straight through, C= crossover, D= crossover, E= straight through

c)

A= console, B=straight through, C= straight through, D=crossover, E= crossover

d)

A= crossover, B= straight through, C= straight through, D= crossover, E= crossover

e)

A= console, B= crossover, C= crossover, D= straight through, E= straight through

55.
a)

A= straight through, B= straight through, C= straight through, D= crossover, E= console

b)

A= console, B= straight through, C= crossover, D= crossover, E= straight through

c)

A= console, B=straight through, C= straight through, D=crossover, E= crossover

d)

A= crossover, B= straight through, C= straight through, D= crossover, E= crossover

e)

A= console, B= crossover, C= crossover, D= straight through, E= straight through

56.

Meaning of the statement: “The goal of communication system availability is five-9k.”

a)

The optimal time for network maintenance is from 17:00 to 09:00 five days a week.

b)

 The most critical time in terms of network availability is from 9:00 am to 5:00 pm five days a week.

c)

Five percent of all network costs cover 99% of user requirements.

d)

The network must be available 99.999% of the time.

e)

An idle time of .00001% is invalid.

57.

The total number of combinations of eight bits in an 8-bit binary number

a)

1024

b)

255

c)

254

d)

128

e)

256

58.

Convert decimal number 231 to its binary equivalent.

a)

11100111

b)

11110010

c)

11011011

d)

11110110

e)

11100101

59.

Given a class C IP address and a default subnet mask, select the number of usable ports?

a)

255

b)

254

c)

256

d)

510

e)

512

60.

Broadcast network address for class C address 192.168.32.0 with default subnet mask

a)

192.168.0.255

b)

192.168.0.0

c)

192.168.32.255

d)

192.168.32.0

e)

192.168.32.254

61.

Company XYZ uses the network address 192.168.4.0 and the mask 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. The maximum number of usable hosts per subnet is:

a)

24

b)

14

c)

6

d)

30

e)

8

62.

The maximum number of host addresses per network provided by the IPv4 class:

a)

 Class E

b)

Class D

c)

 Class C

d)

 Class B

e)

 Class A

63.

 Which IPv4 class provides the largest number of networks?

a)

  Class C

b)

Class A

c)

Class B

d)

 Class D

e)

Class E

64.

The statement that provides a shared IP address

a)

Shared addresses cannot be used on a private network.

b)

Shared IP addresses must be unique throughout the Internet.

c)

Shared addresses can only be duplicated on the local network.

d)

 Shared IP addresses should only be unique within the local network.

e)

Network administrators are free to choose any public address to use on network devices that have access to the Internet.

65.

The statement that provides a shared IP address

a)

Shared addresses cannot be used on a private network.

b)

Shared IP addresses must be unique throughout the Internet.

c)

Shared addresses can only be duplicated on the local network.

d)

 Shared IP addresses should only be unique within the local network.

e)

Network administrators are free to choose any public address to use on network devices that have access to the Internet.

66.

 Number of bits in an IPv6 address

a)

94

b)

64

c)

128

d)

192

e)

256

67.

 Number of bits in an IPv6 address

a)

94

b)

64

c)

128

d)

192

e)

256

68.

Range of first octet in class B address

a)

128 to 192

b)

127 to 192

c)

127 to 191

d)

 128 to 191

e)

128 to 255

69.

The range of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts connected to the Fa0/0 interface of Router1 with IP address 192.168.1.65/27 to access external networks.

a)

from 192.168.1.66 to 192.168.1.128

b)

from 192.168.1.0 to 192.168.1.127

c)

from 192.168.1.66 to 192.168.1.96

d)

from 192.168.1.0 to 192.168.1.95

e)

 from 192.168.1.66 to 192.168.1.94

70.

The network administrator uses a laptop to configure Switch X with a default gateway through the switch's console port. The VLAN 1 interface of the switch is assigned the IP address 192.168.5.68/26. To assign a default gateway to the switch, the administrator must run the command:

a)

X(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.5.126

b)

X(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.5.1

c)

X(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.5.190

d)

X(config)#ip route 0.0.0. 0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.192

e)

X(config)#ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.192 192.168.5.1

71.

 The SYST LED on the Catalyst 2960 switch reports a POST fault.

a)

flashes yellow rapidly.

b)

lights up permanently in yellow

c)

flashes green rapidly

d)

lights up in solid green

e)

lights constantly in red

72.

 To save time, IOS commands can be entered partially and then terminated with a key or key combination

a)

Ctrl-N

b)

Ctrl-P

c)

Tab

d)

Up Arrow

e)

Right arrow

73.

Purpose of the routing protocol.

a)

Allows the administrator to create a network addressing scheme.

b)

Provides a segmentation method and reassembles data packets.

c)

Used to create and maintain ARP tables.

d)

Allows the router to share information about known networks with other routers.

e)

Provides a procedure for encrypting and decrypting data into bits for packet forwarding.

74.

 Correct matching of protocol and port number

a)

SMTP - 80

b)

POP3 - 25

c)

FTP - 110

d)

DNS - 25

e)

HTTP - 80

75.

Correct matching of protocol and port number

a)

SMTP - 25

b)

DNS - 25

c)

FTP - 110

d)

HTTP - 25

e)

POP3 - 25

76.

Node sends ICMP echo request

a)

 to respond to a DNS name query

b)

to run the "ping" utility, which determines if the destination address is reachable

c)

 to broadcast its identifier to neighboring devices with a local connection

d)

to request the MAC address corresponding to the destination IP address

e)

to determine the route from the source computer to the destination

77.

Maximum transmission speed of T1

a)

128 kbps

b)

56 kbps

c)

1,544 Mbps

d)

2,4 Mbps

e)

44,736

78.

 Individuals and small businesses connect directly to the Internet Service Provider's network to access the Internet

a)

at IXP

b)

over the Metro Ethernet link

c)

via the Internet Service Provider's extranet

d)

on POP

e)

on the T1 communication channel

79.

 The network support group responsible for testing new subscriber connections and monitoring the current operation of the channel

a)

planning and scaling

b)

field installation

c)

customer support

d)

customer service

e)

 network management

80.

The original purpose of creating the Internet:

a)

research

b)

voice communication

c)

 marketing

d)

commerce

e)

 email

81.

 The ping command can be used to determine:

a)

the number of routers between the source and destination devices

b)

the average time it takes for the packet to reach the destination point and for the response to return to the starting point

c)

IP address of the router closest to the destination device

d)

 the route from the source computer to the destination

e)

 the average time in which each router responds on the path between the source and destination devices

82.

 The ping command can be used to determine:

a)

the minimum time needed for the packet to reach the destination point and for the response to return to the starting point

b)

 IP address of the router closest to the destination device

c)

the number of routers between the source and destination devices

d)

whether the destination device is reachable via the network or not

e)

the average time in which each router responds on the path between the source and destination devices

83.

 The ping command can be used to determine:

a)

the minimum time needed for the packet to reach the destination point and for the response to return to the starting point

b)

 IP address of the router closest to the destination device

c)

the number of routers between the source and destination devices

d)

whether the destination device is reachable via the network or not

e)

the average time in which each router responds on the path between the source and destination devices

84.

 The ping command can be used to determine:

a)

the minimum time needed for the packet to reach the destination point and for the response to return to the starting point

b)

 IP address of the router closest to the destination device

c)

the number of routers between the source and destination devices

d)

whether the destination device is reachable via the network or not

e)

the average time in which each router responds on the path between the source and destination devices

85.

 Description of classful IP addresses:

a)

3 out of 5 address classes are reserved for multicast and experimental use.

b)

 The host portion of a class C address can be up to 24 bits.

c)

Only class A addresses have high bits of 100.

d)

Reading the first bit allows you to determine the class to which the address belongs.

e)

The number of bits used to identify nodes depends on the class of the network.

86.

Command to test connectivity between host 2 and host 6 on the network.

a)

ipconfig

b)

ping

c)

netstat

d)

nslookup

e)

ipconfig /all

87.

Statement regarding ping and tracert commands

a)

the tracert command uses IP addresses; the ping command does not use them

b)

the tracert command displays each hop, while the ping command displays only the response of the destination device

c)

 both the ping and tracert commands can display the results graphically on the display

d)

 the ping command displays the result of the transmission; the tracert command does not display

e)

the ping command displays each hop, while the tracert command displays only the response of the destination device

88.

 If part of the message using TCP is not delivered to the end node:

a)

The sender sends a request to clarify the failure.

b)

The sender resends the entire message.

c)

The missing part of the message is retransmitted.

d)

Nothing happens. TCP does not check for errors or missing data.

e)

The sender sends a request to the recipient to return his message

89.

TCP protocol functions:

a)

Contains the source IP address in the TCP header.

b)

This is a connectionless protocol.

c)

It breaks the data into datagrams.

d)

 It uses a three-way handshake between the sending and receiving systems for each connection.

e)

The amount of service information is only 8 bytes.

90.

Data is transferred from the source PC to the destination server. The following statements correctly describe the TCP or UDP function in this situation:

a)

 The source port field identifies the running application or service that will process the data returned to the PC.

b)

The UDP destination port number identifies the transmitting node on the network.

c)

UDP is the preferred protocol if the function requires a minimum amount of service information.

d)

 TCP is the preferred protocol if the function requires a minimum amount of service information.

e)

The TCP source port number identifies the transmitting node on the network.

91.

 Functions of the TCP protocol:

a)

 It ensures the retransmission of data lost during transmission.

b)

 This is a connectionless protocol.

c)

 Contains the source IP address in the TCP header.

d)

 The amount of service information is only 16 bytes.

e)

The amount of service information is only 8 bytes.

92.

Parts of the cable system:

a)

Network adapters.

b)

 Connectors.

c)

 Bridges.

d)

Concentrators

e)

 Repeaters.

93.

Wireless LAN standards include:

a)

802.11x, 802.11zx, 802.11zy

b)

802.11с, 802.11g, 802.11n

c)

802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n

d)

802.11с, 802.11e, 802.11g

e)

802.11n, 802.11zx, 802.11zy

94.

Wireless LAN standards include:

a)

802.11x, 802.11zx, 802.11zy

b)

802.11с, 802.11g, 802.11n

c)

802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n

d)

802.11с, 802.11e, 802.11g

e)

802.11n, 802.11zx, 802.11zy

95.

Valid public addresses include:

a)

10.15.250.5, 192.15.301.240, 192.168.1.245

b)

64.104.78.227, 128.107.12.117, 172.16.0.4

c)

10.0.0.1, 64.104.78.227, 128.107.12.117

d)

64.104.78.227, 128.107.12.117, 198.133.219.17

e)

10.15.250.5, 192.15.301.240, 198.133.219.17

96.

Valid public addresses include:

a)

10.15.250.5, 192.15.301.240, 192.168.1.245

b)

64.104.78.227, 128.107.12.117, 172.16.0.4

c)

10.0.0.1, 64.104.78.227, 128.107.12.117

d)

64.104.78.227, 128.107.12.117, 198.133.219.17

e)

10.15.250.5, 192.15.301.240, 198.133.219.17

97.

Of the addresses listed below, the private IP addresses are:

a)

10.1.1.1, 172.32.5.2, 192.164.8.15

b)

192.167.10.10, 172.16.4.4, 10.1.1.1

c)

172.32.5.2, 192.167.10.10, 224.6.6.6

d)

192.164.8.15, 172.32.8.1, 224.6.6.6

e)

192.168.5.5, 172.16.4.4, 10.1.1.1

98.

The following addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses:

a)

198.133.2.9, 128.106.12.32, 64.102.64.224

b)

10.0.0.1, 192.168.31.19, 172.16.0.1

c)

128.106.12.32, 172.16.0.1, 10.0.0.16

d)

172.16.0.1, 172.27.0.4, 64.102.64.224

e)

172.27.0.4, 10.0.0.16, 192.168.31.19

99.

Router functions and characteristics:

a)

 Used to connect networks and access the Internet.

b)

 Uses IP addresses. Implements network layer functions. Connects networks.

c)

 Uses MAC addresses. Unable to make decisions about the best route for data movement on the network.

d)

 Implements link layer functions.

e)

Use MAC addresses. Implements network layer functions.

100.

Acting as a DHCP server, the built-in router can provide the client with the following types of information:

a)

 Physical address. Dynamic IP address. Default gateway.

b)

 ACL data. FTP server address. FTP server address.

c)

Default gateway. Dynamic IP address. DNS server address.

d)

MAC address. FTP server address. Default gateway.

e)

tatic IP address. DNS server address. FTP server address.

101.

Transport layer services

a)

connection setup

b)

pathfinding

c)

data encryption

d)

 flow control

e)

 troubleshooting

102.

The layer of the OSI model responsible for detecting and rejecting corrupted frames:

a)

network

b)

Transport

c)

session

d)

presentation

e)

data link

103.

Valid public IP addresses:

a)

198.133.219.17

b)

172.16.12.117

c)

10.10.78.227

d)

192.168.1.245

e)

10.15.250.5

104.

Valid public IP addresses:

a)

198.133.219.17

b)

172.16.12.117

c)

10.10.78.227

d)

192.168.1.245

e)

10.15.250.5

105.

Valid public IP addresses:

a)

198.133.219.17

b)

172.16.12.117

c)

10.10.78.227

d)

192.168.1.245

e)

10.15.250.5

106.
a)

172.16.113.55

b)

172.16.112.255

c)

172.16.127.255

d)

172.16.112.89

e)

172.16.120.96

107.

Based on IP address 192.168.65.54 and subnet mask 255.255.255.240, determine which network the node belongs to.

a)

192.168.65.64

b)

192.168.65.32

c)

192.168.65.16

d)

192.168.65.48

e)

192.168.65.0

108.

Based on IP address 192.168.65.54 and subnet mask 255.255.255.240, determine which network the node belongs to.

a)

192.168.65.64

b)

192.168.65.32

c)

192.168.65.16

d)

192.168.65.48

e)

192.168.65.0

109.

Addresses that are valid node addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.254.0

a)

128.107.62.0

b)

10.165.55.255

c)

172.55.33.255

d)

64.104.128.0

e)

64.100.2.255

110.

Addresses that are valid node addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.254.0

a)

128.107.62.0

b)

10.165.55.255

c)

172.55.33.255

d)

64.104.128.0

e)

64.100.2.255

111.
a)

0008.a3b6.ce05

b)

0009.1281.18a8

c)

000a.8a47.e612

d)

172.16.14.129

e)

172.16.14.243

112.

 There are requirements for setting up a console session between the computer and the router:

a)

 It is enough to have the CLI on the computer to access the terminal configuration mode.

b)

ou need to connect the console port of the router and the serial port of the computer with an inverted cable.

c)

You need to connect the console port of the router and the network adapter of the computer with a console cable.

d)

The computer must be configured with a default gateway.

e)

The IP addresses assigned to the router and the computer must be on the same subnet.

113.

 Technology used in WAN

a)

ARP

b)

CDP

c)

PPP

d)

WEP

e)

CSMA/CD

114.

 Layer of the OSI model that defines logical addressing

a)

Transport

b)

Session

c)

Presentation

d)

 network

e)

application

115.

 With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248, the following IP addresses are valid:

a)

200.152.2.160

b)

194.10.10.104

c)

192.168.200.87

d)

220.100.100.113

e)

223.168.210.100

116.

The router receives a packet with the destination address 172.16.30.79/22. Select the subnet to which this packet belongs.

a)

172.16.28.0/22

b)

172.16.30.0/22

c)

172.16.30.64/22

d)

172.16.30.76/22

e)

172.16.28.56/22

117.

The broadcast address of the subnet where host A with the address 10.149.177.147/12 is located:

a)

10.255.255.255

b)

10.159.255.255

c)

10.144.255.255

d)

10.149.255.255

e)

10.149.191.255

118.

To initially configure Cisco routers using the IOS CLI, you need:

a)

straight through cable

b)

crossover cable

c)

inverted cable

d)

RJ-15 to DB-9 adapter

e)

VTY port of the router

119.

 The command to create an encrypted password that restricts access to privileged EXEC mode on a Cisco router:

a)

RouterA(config)# encrypted password cisco

b)

RouterA(config)# password encrypted cisco

c)

RouterA(config)# enable password cisco

d)

RouterA(config)# enable secret cisco

e)

RouterA(config)# service-password encryption cisco

120.

 Application layer protocols of the OSI model:

a)

ARP, SMTP.

b)

RARP, TCP

c)

DSL, POP3.

d)

NOC, UDP.

e)

SMTP, POP3.

121.

Wireless technology used on smartphones to transfer data to another device in close proximity:

a)

NFC

b)

Wi-Fi

c)

3G/4G

d)

Bluetooth

e)

POP3

122.

 Characteristics of peer-to-peer networks:

a)

Difficult to organize and maintain.

b)

The network operating system provides all computers on the network with potentially equal opportunities.

c)

These networks use two network operating systems that have fundamental functional differences.

d)

They are called centrally managed networks.

e)

These are large networks with numerous subnets.

123.

 Characteristics of peer-to-peer networks:

a)

Difficult to organize and maintain.

b)

They are called decentralized networks.

c)

 These networks use two network operating systems that have fundamental functional differences.

d)

They are called centrally managed networks.

e)

The network operating system includes components for centralized network administration.

124.

Functions of the TCP protocol:

a)

This is a connectionless protocol.

b)

 Contains the source IP address in the TCP header.

c)

ensures the retransmission of data lost during transmission.

d)

The amount of service information is only 16 bytes.

e)

The amount of service information is only 8 bytes.

125.

Functions of the TCP protocol:

a)

Contains the source IP address in the TCP header.

b)

This is a connectionless protocol.

c)

It breaks down the data into datagrams.

d)

It uses a three-step negotiation between the transmitting and receiving systems to establish each connection.

e)

 The amount of service information is only 8 bytes.

126.

 Functions of the TCP protocol:

a)

This is a connectionless protocol.

b)

The amount of service information is only 8 bytes.

c)

 It breaks down the data into datagrams.

d)

The amount of service information is only 16 bytes.

e)

It defines the way messages are assembled at the destination node.

127.

 The configuration components needed to enable a host to exchange data with other hosts on remote networks:

a)

 IP address, subnet mask, default gateway

b)

subnet mask, DNS server, domain name

c)

 default gateway, DNS-server, domain name

d)

DNS server, domain name

e)

domain name, DHCP server address, default gateway

128.

The following interference can affect the data rate of UTP cables:

a)

number of nodes in the network

b)

electromagnetic interference.

c)

noise

d)

 humidity

e)

temperature.

129.

 Description of the router's ARP table and routing table.

a)

 The ARP table contains information about networks and about individual devices.

b)

The ARP table contains information about networks, not about individual devices.

c)

The ARP table contains information about individual devices, not about networks

d)

Routing tables contain information about individual devices, not networks.

e)

Routing tables contain information about networks and about individual devices.

130.

 Decimal value corresponding to the binary number 11001010:

a)

240

b)

212

c)

196

d)

202

e)

203

131.

Private IP addresses include:

a)

198.168.6.18

b)

172.68.83.35

c)

128.37.255.6

d)

209.168.5.29

e)

10.234.2.1

132.

 A protocol that allows you to enter https://mail.ru instead of an IP address to open a web page:

a)

DNS

b)

FTP

c)

HTML

d)

HTTP

e)

IM

133.

The default subnet mask for the IP address is 198.133.219.4:

a)

255.255.0.0

b)

255.0.0.0

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.254

e)

255.255.255.255

134.

The characteristics of a group mailing list:

a)

routers will route group addresses between 224.0.0.0 and 224.0.0.255.

b)

one packet can be sent to a group of nodes.

c)

 the group mailing source address ranges from 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

d)

computers use multicast to request IPv4 addresses.

e)

group mailing messages convert low-level addresses to high-level addresses.

135.

 CSMA/CA is an access method, ...

a)

used in any technology with an excessive number of collisions.

b)

used in wireless technology to avoid duplicate SSIDs.

c)

 used in wireless technology to prevent collisions.

d)

 used in wired Ethernet technology to prevent collisions.

e)

used at the central level.

136.

The transport layer ports in the range from 1 to 1023 are called:

a)

source

b)

reserved

c)

 private

d)

public

e)

recipient

137.

Benefits of using fiber optic cable to connect devices:

a)

Fiber optic cable is typically used in small corporate and home networks.

b)

Fiber optic cable is easy to install.

c)

Fiber optic cable uses additional shielding to protect the copper wires.

d)

The fiber optic cable uses an RJ-45 connector.

e)

 Fiber optic cable is resistant to electromagnetic and high frequency interference.

138.

The user wants to test the connection between node 3 and node 8 on the network. To check the connection, you can use the command:

a)

ping

b)

ipconfig

c)

netstat

d)

nslookup

e)

ipconfig /all

139.

Functions of the upper layers of the OSI model

a)

placement of electrical signals on a carrier for transmission

b)

initiating the process of transferring data over the network

c)

 encapsulating a data packet into a frame

d)

segmentation and identification of data for reassembly at destination

e)

selection of the appropriate route for data transmission over the network

140.

Functions of the upper layers of the OSI model

a)

 encapsulating a data packet into a frame

b)

placement of electrical signals on a carrier for transmission

c)

encryption and compression of data for transmission

d)

segmentation and identification of data for reassembly at destination

e)

selection of the appropriate route for data transmission over the network

141.

The main switchboard usually contains elements

a)

fax machines

b)

equipment for teleconferencing

c)

copier

d)

user workstations

e)

racks with network equipment

142.

The main switchboard usually contains the following items:

a)

point of presence

b)

user workstations

c)

equipment for teleconferencing

d)

fax machines

e)

copier

143.

Reasons for doing NAT

a)

so that public Internet users have access to local networks

b)

 to store registered public IP addresses

c)

to reduce load and CPU usage in gateway routers

d)

to improve the efficiency of routing protocols

e)

 to route private addresses on the public Internet

144.

 Reasons for doing NAT

a)

to improve the efficiency of routing protocols

b)

so that public Internet users have access to local networks

c)

 to allow LANs with private addresses to participate in the Internet

d)

to route private addresses on the public Internet

e)

 to reduce load and CPU usage in gateway routers

145.

Using the show cdp neighbors command, you can get the following information about a neighbor device

a)

password to access configuration mode

b)

password to access privileged mode

c)

routing protocol.

d)

platform

e)

IP addresses of all interfaces

146.

Using the show cdp neighbors command, you can get the following information about a neighbor device

a)

password to access privileged mode

b)

IP addresses of all interfaces

c)

password to access configuration mode

d)

routing protocol.

e)

connected neighbor interface

147.

Using the show cdp neighbors command, you can get the following information about a neighbor device

a)

 device ID

b)

password to access configuration mode

c)

routing protocol.

d)

IP addresses of all interfaces

e)

password to access privileged mode

148.

 HTTPS Specifications

a)

Defines additional rules for passing data between the application layer and the data link layer.

b)

Supports authentication.

c)

Allows more concurrent connections than HTTP .

d)

Open data transfer protocol.

e)

Uses a different client request-server response process than the process used by HTTP .

149.

 HTTPS Specifications

a)

Defines additional rules for passing data between the application layer and the data link layer.

b)

Allows more concurrent connections than HTTP .

c)

Encrypts SSL packets .

d)

Open communication protocol

e)

Uses a different client request-server response process than the process used by HTTP .

150.

HTTPS Specifications

a)

Open communication protocol

b)

Allows more concurrent connections than HTTP .

c)

Defines additional rules for passing data between the application layer and the data link layer.

d)

 Requires additional processing time on the server.

e)

Uses a different client request-server response process than the process used by HTTP .

151.

Coincident TCP and UDP header fields

a)

 priority indicator

b)

confirmation number

c)

sequence number

d)

dialog box

e)

source port

152.

Coincident TCP and UDP header fields

a)

 checksum

b)

priority indicator

c)

dialog box

d)

sequence number

e)

confirmation number

153.

Coincident TCP and UDP header fields

a)

priority pointer

b)

destination port

c)

dialog box

d)

sequence number

e)

confirmation number

154.

 An update type that allows client computers to register and update resource records with the DNS server in case of any changes

a)

zonal transmission

b)

local recursive query

c)

 dynamic

d)

 query root domain

e)

TLD query

155.

Description of classful IP addresses

a)

Reading the first bit allows you to determine the class to which the address belongs.

b)

3 of the 5 address classes is reserved for multicast and experimental use.

c)

Only Class A addresses have high bits of 100.

d)

All subnets in a network are the same size.

e)

The host portion of a class C address can be up to 24 bits.

156.

 Only MAC address filtering is enabled on the access point. The "authenticity" of the client is considered established when

a)

The client receives the MAC address from the access point, checks its correspondence in the routing-table, and sends an acknowledgment message to the access point

b)

The access point sends the MAC address to the server and receives confirmation of the validity of this MAC address

c)

client sends MAC address to access point

d)

Client provides the correct private key to the access point

e)

The access point checks if the given MAC address is in the MAC address table and sends an acknowledgment message to the client

157.

The reason why IEEE 802.11 wireless technology allows data transmission over a longer distance than Bluetooth technology

a)

 has a higher power output

b)

 transmission is carried out at much lower frequencies

c)

transmission is carried out at much higher frequencies

d)

more advanced encryption methods are used

e)

has a lower output power

158.

A protocol that allows you to type “https :// mail. ru” into the address bar instead of an IP address to open a web page

a)

FTP

b)

DNS

c)

HTML

d)

 HTTP

e)

IM

159.

Abbreviation related to the use of telephone communication over the Internet

a)

IM

b)

HTML

c)

VoIP

d)

HTTP

e)

SNMP

160.

An area of the network where traffic from other hosts can cause the sending host to stop sending data, after which the sending host waits an arbitrary amount of time before resending the message

a)

distribution level

b)

broadcast domain

c)

 access level

d)

collision area

e)

peer-to-peer network

161.

The following types of encapsulations can be set by the administrator on the integrated router's serial interface:

a)

HDLC, DHCP, PAP

b)

CHAP, ATM, PPP

c)

ATM, ICMP, DHCP

d)

Frame Relay, PPP, HDLC

e)

PAP , PPP , ICMP

162.

 Data is being transferred from the source PC to the destination server. The following statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation:

a)

TCP is the preferred protocol if the function requires minimal overhead.

b)

UDP is the protocol of choice if the function requires minimal overhead.

c)

The UDP destination port number identifies the transmitting node on the network.

d)

The TCP process running on the PC randomly chooses a destination port when establishing a session with the server.

e)

The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server that will process the data.

163.

 Composite link properties in circuit-switched networks:

a)

The composite channel is created temporarily for the period of a communication session of two subscribers.

b)

Throughout its length it consists of a different number of elementary channels.

c)

The number of elementary channels changes throughout its length.

d)

Has a different non-fixed throughput throughout its entire length.

e)

Data is delivered to the subscriber with delays, but at a constant rate.

164.

 Composite link properties in circuit-switched networks:

a)

 Throughout its length it consists of a different number of elementary channels.

b)

Data is guaranteed to be delivered to the subscriber without delays, losses and at the same speed.

c)

The number of elementary channels changes throughout its length.

d)

Has a different non-fixed throughput throughout its entire length.

e)

Data is delivered to the subscriber with delays, but at a constant rate.

165.

Application layer protocol of the OSI model :

a)

ARP.

b)

RARP

c)

HTTP.

d)

TCP.

e)

DSL.

166.

 Protocols applied level OSI Models :

a)

RARP, TCP

b)

DSL, POP3.

c)

ARP, SMTP.

d)

SMTP, POP3.

e)

NOC , UDP .

167.

 The following three methods are used in social engineering:

a)

Fishing, Vishing, Teleporting

b)

Vishing, Teleporting, Refreshing

c)

Spaming, Televoting, Freshing

d)

Pretexting, Televoting, Phishing

e)

Phishing, Vishing, Pretexting

168.

The following command line utilities are most commonly used to diagnose problems at Layer 3 (central level):

a)

ping, ipconfig, traceroute

b)

tftp, ipconfig, ping

c)

route, Telnet, Packet sniffer

d)

arp - a, Telnet, ping

e)

Packet sniffer, traceroute

169.

Protocols describing methods that are used to protect user data in transit over the Internet:

a)

ICMP, HTTPS, DNS

b)

IPSEC, SSL, HTTPS

c)

SMTP, DNS, FTP

d)

SSL, HTTPS, ICMP

e)

 TFTP , FTP , IPSEC

170.

 The following applications can be used for in-band management:

a)

FTP, SNMP, NAT

b)

DNS, DHCP, TFTP

c)

Telnet, HTTP, SNMP

d)

HTTP, NAT, Telnet

e)

SNMP , DHCP , TFTP

171.

 Packet switched computer-wide area networks are:

a)

SLIP, Frame Relay

b)

ATM, DTE, HDLC

c)

SDH, Frame Relay, HDLC

d)

X.25, ATM, Frame Relay

e)

 Frame Relay , DTE , ISDN

172.

Characteristics of the quality of service of an Internet provider:

a)

Install special applications, additional web space.

b)

Free Windows upgrade , free hardware replacement.

c)

Free hardware replacement, free antivirus updates.

d)

Install special applications.

e)

Connection speed, additional web space, and email profiles.

173.

A manufacturing company subscribes to some ISP hosting services. Hosting services include web hosting, data transfer and email. The following protocols represent these three key applications:

a)

 HTTP, FTP, SMTP

b)

UDP, DHCP, SNMP

c)

FTP, SMTP, SNMP

d)

TCP, SMTP, HTTP

e)

DNS, HTTP, UDP

174.

In global networks with dedicated channels, the following protocols are used:

a)

X.25, SLIP, ISDN

b)

PPP, SLIP, HDLC

c)

ATM, HDLC, DCE

d)

SLIP, ISDN, DCE

e)

Frame Relay, HDLC

175.

Protocols used to process email:

a)

HTTP, IMAP4, DNS

b)

FTP, IMAP4, POP3

c)

POP3, SMTP, IMAP4

d)

DHCP SMTP, DNS

e)

HTML SMTP, FTP

176.

Application layer protocol using UDP as transport protocol:

a)

HTTP, SMTP, SNMP

b)

ICMP, IP, TFTP

c)

DNS, SMTP, IP

d)

SNMP, DNS, TFTP

e)

ARP, IP, TFTP

177.

Modification Ethernet technologies:

a)

 FDDI technology.

b)

PPP technology.

c)

CSMA/CD technology.

d)

Token Ring technology.

e)

A 10 Mbit variant of the IEEE 802.3 standard.

178.

Unique characteristics of the UDP protocol

a)

low overhead

b)

connection protocol

c)

full duplex operation

d)

flow control

e)

reliable data transmission

179.

Unique characteristics of the UDP protocol

a)

connection protocol

b)

no flow control

c)

 full duplex operation

d)

reliable data transmission

e)

high overhead

180.

Unique characteristics of the UDP protocol

a)

full duplex operation

b)

connection protocol

c)

lack of error recovery procedure

d)

 reliable data transmission

e)

recovering errors after a crash

181.

Transport Layer Services

a)

transfer bits

b)

 path definition

c)

data encryption

d)

flow control

e)

packet encapsulation in a data frame

182.

In order to connect a router to an ISP network, to provide Internet access using a T1 link, a consumer company needs a device...

a)

ISDN modem

b)

NT1 device

c)

DSL router

d)

modem

e)

 CSU/DSU device

183.

A network administrator wants to configure a Cisco 2960 switch to restrict access to each port to a single MAC address. This function will help solve this problem:

a)

port security

b)

CDP protocolc

c)

ICMP protocol

d)

access lists

e)

flow control

184.

Assignment of the crypto key generate rsa command when configuring the switch to use SSH on virtual terminal connections

a)

display hosts connected via SSH

b)

Generate a public/private key pair

c)

disable hosts connected via SSH

d)

display active SSH ports on the switch

e)

access to SSH database configuration

185.

True statements about Ethernet full duplex operation

a)

Hub ports are preconfigured for full duplex operation.

b)

The device listens on the medium and transmits data only when it is free

c)

There are no collisions in full duplex mode.

d)

The host's network adapter must determine the availability of the medium before handover.

e)

Both the host network adapter and the switch port must operate in half-duplex mode.

186.

True statements about Ethernet full duplex operation

a)

The device listens on the medium and only transmits data when it is free.

b)

Hub ports are preconfigured for full duplex operation.

c)

The host's network adapter must determine the availability of the medium before handover.

d)

A dedicated switch port is required for each host.

e)

Both the host network adapter and the switch port must operate in half-duplex mode.

187.

True statements about Ethernet full duplex operation

a)

The host's network adapter must determine the availability of the medium before handover.

b)

Hub ports are preconfigured for full duplex operation.

c)

All devices on the segment receive data that is transmitted over the network.

d)

The device listens on the medium and only transmits data when it is free.

e)

 Both the host network adapter and the switch port must be in full duplex mode.

188.

CSMA/CD specifications

a)

The device listens on the medium and only transmits data when it is free.

b)

Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority

c)

The signal "Jam" indicates that the collision is allowed and the transmission medium is free

d)

After a collision, only a device with an electronic token can transmit data.

e)

Both the host network adapter and the switch port must be in full-duplex mode

189.

CSMA/CD specifications

a)

Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

b)

All devices on the segment receive data that is transmitted over the network.

c)

The signal "Jam" indicates that the collision is allowed and the transmission medium is free

d)

Both the host network adapter and the switch port must be in full duplex mode.

e)

After a collision, only a device with an electronic token can transmit data.

190.

CSMA/CD specifications

a)

After a collision, only a device with an electronic token can transmit data.

b)

The signal "Jam" indicates that the collision is allowed and the transmission medium is free

c)

Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

d)

After a collision is detected, nodes may attempt to resume transmission after a random delay period.

e)

 Both the host network adapter and the switch port must be in full duplex mode

191.

The ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9 command describes the statements:

a)

Address 192.168.7.9 represents the destination network for this route

b)

This command was issued in interface configuration mode

c)

The address 192.168.7.24 in this command is the next hop router

d)

The address 192.168.7.24 in this command is the default route

e)

A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to 192.168.7.9

192.

The ip host command , when creating host tables on Cisco routers, is used to

a)

creating static routes to specific hosts

b)

Enable communication with other IP devices using names

c)

assigning a meaningful name to the local router

d)

Detect only directly connected networks and their hosts

e)

setting the device nodes to which the router should connect

193.

A system administrator can change the following items to set the Cisco IOS boot source

a)

boot configuration file

b)

system ROM

c)

system image file

d)

password to access the console

e)

file with loader image

194.

TCP uses sequence numbers in a segment

a)

to specify the order in which segments are transmitted from source to destination

b)

defines the number of bytes of data (payload) after which the sender waits for confirmation from the recipient

c)

to detect missing segments at destination

d)

to limit the number of segments that can be sent from the interface at the same time

e)

to determine if the packet was modified during transmission

195.

TCP uses sequence numbers in segment

a)

to limit the number of segments that can be sent from the interface at the same time

b)

to specify the order in which segments are transmitted from source to destination

c)

defines the number of bytes of data (payload) after which the sender waits for confirmation from the recipient

d)

to collect segments at a remote site

e)

to determine if the packet was modified during transmission

196.

The UDP protocol is characterized by assertions

a)

UDP provides fast Layer 3 data transfer with connection establishment

b)

UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.

c)

UDP uses the IP protocol to detect and resolve errors.

d)

UDP defines the number of bytes of data (payload) after which the sender waits for confirmation from the recipient

e)

UDP provides fast, connectionless Layer 4 data transfer.

197.

The UDP protocol is characterized by assertions

a)

UDP uses application layer protocols to detect errors.

b)

UDP provides fast Layer 3 data transfer with connection establishment

c)

UDP defines the number of bytes of data (payload) after which the sender waits for confirmation from the recipient

d)

UDP uses the IP protocol to detect and resolve errors.

e)

UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.

198.

The UDP protocol is characterized by assertions

a)

UDP provides fast Layer 3 data transfer with connection establishment

b)

Using UDP is justified if the application does not need to guarantee data delivery.

c)

UDP defines the number of bytes of data (payload) after which the sender waits for confirmation from the recipient

d)

UDP uses the IP protocol to detect and resolve errors.

e)

UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.

199.

The router can boot the Cisco IOS at startup from:

a)

module RAM

b)

NVRAM

c)

TFTP Server

d)

procedure settings

e)

terminal

200.

The router can boot the Cisco IOS at startup from:

a)

module RAM

b)

NVRAM

c)

flash memory

d)

procedure settings

e)

terminal

201.

Hub functions:

a)

The hub type does not depend on the architecture and characteristics of the local computer network.

b)

Enable incorrect ports.

c)

Complicates the control and operation of the network.

d)

Combining physical network segments into a single shared environment.

e)

The hub type is independent of the technology used in the network.

202.

Hub functions:

a)

Assign allowed IP addresses to ports on the concentrator.

b)

The hub type is independent of the technology used in the network.

c)

Complicates the control and operation of the network.

d)

Enable incorrect ports.

e)

Performs functions that make it easier to control and operate the network.

203.

Data is being transferred from the source PC to the destination server. The following statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation:

a)

The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server that will process the data.

b)

TCP is the preferred protocol if the function requires minimal overhead.

c)

 UDP is the protocol of choice if the function requires minimal overhead.

d)

The UDP destination port number identifies the transmitting node on the network.

e)

The TCP source port number identifies the transmitting node on the network.

204.

Data is being transferred from the source PC to the destination server. The following statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation:

a)

TCP is the preferred protocol if the function requires minimal overhead.

b)

UDP segments are encapsulated in an IP packet for transmission over the network.

c)

UDP is the protocol of choice if the function requires minimal overhead.

d)

The UDP destination port number identifies the transmitting node on the network.

e)

he TCP source port number identifies the transmitting node on the network.

205.

TCP protocol functions:

a)

It breaks the data into datagrams.

b)

This is a connectionless protocol.

c)

When establishing each connection, it uses a three-way negotiation between the transmitting and receiving systems.

d)

Contains the source IP address in the TCP header.

e)

The amount of service information is only 8 bytes.

206.

TCP protocol functions:

a)

This is a connectionless protocol.

b)

Contains the source IP address in the TCP header.

c)

It provides retransmission of data lost in transit.

d)

The amount of service information is only 8 bytes.

e)

It breaks the data into datagrams.

207.

TCP protocol functions:

a)

The amount of service information is only 16 bytes.

b)

It breaks the data into datagrams.

c)

The amount of service information is only 8 bytes.

d)

This is a connectionless protocol.

e)

It defines how messages are assembled on the destination node.

208.

Application layer protocols governing the exchange of messages between a client with a web browser and a remote web server:

a)

DNS

b)

HTTP

c)

HTML

d)

DHCP

e)

 TCP

209.

A protocol that allows you to enter 94.100.180.201 in the browser's address bar instead of a URL to open a web page

a)

FTP

b)

DNS

c)

HTML

d)

HTTP

e)

SNMP

210.

The URL points to the following information

a)

Web server MAC address

b)

Server IP address

c)

protocol used

d)

Gateway IP address

e)

browser version

211.

The URL points to the following information

a)

Gateway IP address

b)

Web server MAC address

c)

name of the domain being accessed

d)

browser version

e)

Server IP address

212.

The URL points to the following information

a)

Web server MAC address

b)

Gateway IP address

c)

browser version

d)

resource location

e)

 Server IP address

213.

Commands to connect to a switch on the same LAN via Telnet for configuration and management:

a)

Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config - line)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-line)# login

b)

Switch1(config)#line con 0
Switch1(config - line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login

c)

Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1
Switch1(config)# exit

d)

Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config- if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192

e)

Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config - if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown

214.

Router ROM features or specifications

a)

 handles instructions for POST diagnostic procedures

b)

used to store routing tables

c)

Enables software updates without changing chips on the motherboard

d)

contains the ARP cache

e)

contains a table of MAC addresses

215.

Statements that correctly define the function of router memory components

a)

RAM is used to permanently store the configuration file used during boot.

b)

ROM contains diagnostic self-test routines for hardware modules.

c)

Non-Volatile Memory (NVRAM) stores a backup copy of the IOS used at boot.

d)

Flash memory content is lost when router is powered off

e)

The ROM contains the most complete and latest version of IOS.

216.

A network that provides secure access to corporate systems for vendors, customers, and employees

a)

 Intranet

b)

Internet

c)

Extranet

d)

Personal network

e)

Extended network

217.

IPv structure 4 addresses

a)

thirty-two dotted hexadecimal numbers

b)

thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by colons

c)

four binary numbers between 0 and 1 separated by colons

d)

four decimal numbers between 0 and 255 separated by dots

e)

four decimal numbers between 0 and 255 separated by colons

218.

An interface type that does not have a physical port associated with it

a)

GigabitEthernet

b)

Sequential port

c)

FastEthernet

d)

 console

e)

switch virtual interface ( SVI )

219.

Correct statement about user EXEC mode

a)

Device command line in this mode ends with “>” character

b)

in this mode, you can configure the interfaces and protocols of the router

c)

all router commands are available in this mode

d)

Global configuration mode can be accessed using the enable command

e)

all aspects of the router's configuration are viewable in this mode.

220.

Correct statement about user EXEC mode

a)

Device command line in this mode ends with “#” character

b)

only some aspects of the router's configuration are viewable in this mode.

c)

in this mode, you can configure the interfaces and protocols of the router

d)

all router commands are available in this mode

e)

Global configuration mode can be accessed using the enable command

221.

Enable command secret protects access to

a)

virtual terminal

b)

AUX port

c)

 privileged EXEC mode

d)

lines consoles

e)

Ethernet interface

222.

Operating system shell

a)

interacts with device hardware

b)

Enables dedicated firewall services

c)

Enables intrusion protection services

d)

provides interaction between users and the kernel

e)

 provides communication between the kernel and the device hardware

223.

Address of the network where the IP address is 10.1.100.50 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0

a)

10.1.100.32

b)

10.0.0.0

c)

10.1.100.0

d)

10.1.1.0

e)

10.1.0.0

224.

The type of data transfer in which the message will be sent to all devices on the local network

a)

broadcast

b)

group mailing

c)

unicast

d)

full duplex transmission

e)

full duplex transmission

225.

The OSI model layer defines data segmentation and reassembly services for individual data sessions between end devices

a)

Views

b)

Transport

c)

Network

d)

Applications

e)

Physical

226.

Number of binary bits in an IPv 6 address

a)

48

b)

32

c)

128

d)

64

e)

256

227.

The decimal-point representation of an IPv4 address represented as the binary string 00001010.01100100.00010101.00000001

a)

100.21.10.1

b)

10.100.20.1

c)

100.10.11.1

d)

10.100.21.1

e)

10.10.21.1

228.

The hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 11001010

a)

0 x 1210

b)

 0 x AC

c)

312

d)

202

e)

0 xCA

229.

Decimal equivalent of hexadecimal number 0 x 7 D

a)

125

b)

175

c)

01111101

d)

713

e)

137

230.

The command set will allow login using the cisco password

a)

R1(config)# line console 0
R1( config- line)# password cisco
R1(config-line)# exit

b)

R1(config)# line console 0
R1( config- line)# password cisco
R1(config-line)# login

c)

R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1( config- line)# password cisco
R1(config-line)# exit

d)

R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1( config- line)# password cisco
R1(config-line)# login

e)

R1(config)# line console 0
R1( config- line)# password cisco
R1(config-line)# no shutdown

231.

Command line mode that allows users to access all device commands, such as commands used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting

a)

global configuration mode

b)

custom EXEC mode

c)

 privileged EXEC mode

d)

interface configuration mode

e)

remote access mode

232.

Map the 192.168.1.32/27 subnet with a host address that can be included in the subnet

a)

192.168.1.0

b)

192.168.1.63

c)

192.168.1.64

d)

192.168.1.48

e)

192.168.1.128

233.

How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to provide a router with five connected networks

a)

5

b)

1

c)

4

d)

2

e)

3

234.

How many host addresses are available on the network with the address 192.168.10.128/26

a)

62

b)

60

c)

64

d)

32

e)

30

235.

How many host addresses are available on network 172.16.128.0 with subnet mask 255.255.252.0

a)

1024

b)

1022

c)

510

d)

512

e)

2048

236.

Command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9

a)

192.168.7.9 represents the destination network for this route

b)

introduced in interface configuration mode

c)

defines a static route

d)

192.168.7.24 in this command is the next hop router.

e)

192.168.7.24 in this command is the default route

237.

The main switchboard usually contains the elements :

a)

copier

b)

fax machines

c)

user workstations

d)

switches and routers

e)

equipment for teleconferencing

Similar Resources on Wayground

Microbiology Exam 2

237 questions

Microbiology Exam 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University