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IS 385 Final

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

System sequence diagrams (SSDs) show the inputs and outputs for each use case as ______

a)

messages

b)

details

c)

sequences

d)

models

2.

A UML sequence diagram usually used for _____ use cases

a)

Simple

b)

Complex

c)

Normal

3.

In the SSD diagram,

[true/false condition] return-value := message-name (parameter-list)

an asterisk (*) indicates _____

a)

repeating or looping of the message

b)

true/false condition

c)

description of the requested service written as a verb-noun

d)

show the data that are passed with the message

4.

In the SSD diagram,

[true/false condition] return-value := message-name (parameter-list)

Brackets [] indicates _____

a)

repeating or looping of the message

b)

true/false condition

c)

description of the requested service written as a verb-noun

d)

show the data that are passed with the message

5.

In the SSD diagram,

[true/false condition] return-value := message-name (parameter-list)

"message-name" indicates _____

a)

repeating or looping of the message

b)

true/false condition

c)

description of the requested service written as a verb-noun

d)

show the data that are passed with the message

6.

In the SSD diagram,

[true/false condition] return-value := message-name (parameter-list)

"parameter-list" indicates _____

a)

repeating or looping of the message

b)

true/false condition

c)

description of the requested service written as a verb-noun

d)

show the data that are passed with the message

7.

In the SSD diagram,

[true/false condition] return-value := message-name (parameter-list)

"return-value" indicates _____

a)

repeating or looping of the message

b)

true/false condition

c)

description of the requested service written as a verb-noun

d)

describe data being returned from the destination object to the source object in response to the message

8.

First step for developing SSD

a)

Identify input message

b)

Describe the message from the external actor to the system using the message notation

c)

Identify any special conditions on input messages

d)

Identify and add output return values

9.

Second step for developing SSD

a)

Identify input message

b)

Describe the message from the external actor to the system using the message notation

c)

Identify any special conditions on input messages

d)

Identify and add output return values

10.

The third step for developing SSD

a)

Identify input message

b)

Describe the message from the external actor to the system using the message notation

c)

Identify any special conditions on input messages

d)

Identify and add output return values

11.

The fourth step for developing SSD

a)

Identify input message

b)

Describe the message from the external actor to the system using the message notation

c)

Identify any special conditions on input messages

d)

Identify and add output return values

12.

CRUD technique stands for

a)

Create

b)

Read/report

c)

Update

d)

Delete

13.

The first step of CRUD Analysis

a)
  1. Identify all domain classes

b)

Verify use cases

c)

Add new use cases as required. Identify responsible stakeholders

d)

Identify which application has responsibility for each action: which to create, which to update, which to use

14.

The second step of CRUD Analysis is to verify that use cases exist to:

a)
  1. Create a new instance

b)

Update existing instances

c)

Reads or reports on information in the class

d)

Deletes or archives inactive instances

15.

The third step of CRUD Analysis

a)
  1. Identify all domain classes

b)

Verify use cases

c)

Add new use cases as required. Identify responsible stakeholders

d)

Identify which application has responsibility for each action: which to create, which to update, which to use

16.

The fourth step of CRUD Analysis

a)
  1. Identify all domain classes

b)

Verify use cases

c)

Add new use cases as required. Identify responsible stakeholders

d)

Identify which application has responsibility for each action: which to create, which to update, which to use

17.

Inputs and outputs that directly involve a human user/actor.

A dialog goes on between actor and system

a)

User interface

b)

User diagram

c)

User-centered design

d)

Usability

18.

Refers to how easy a system is to learn and use

a)

Usability

b)

Visibility

c)

Affordance

d)

Feedback

19.

2 main factors in Technology Adoption Model (TAM)

a)

Perceived usefulness

b)

Perceived ease of use

c)

Performance expectancy

d)

Effort expectancy

20.

Unified Theory of Acceptance and Use of Technology (UTAUT) focus on

a)

Performance expectancy

b)

Effort expectancy

c)

Perceived usefulness

d)

Perceived ease of use

21.

The appearance of the object suggests its function

a)

Affordance

b)

Visibility

c)

Easy to use

d)

Consistency

22.

Define visibility in the principles of user-interface design

a)

Visible on the display

b)

Provides a response to a user action (feedback)

c)

The appearance of the object suggests its function

d)

Consistency across releases over time

23.

Consistency needs to be:

a)

Across platforms

b)

Within a suite of applications

c)

Within a particular application

d)

On check boxes

24.

Consistency across releases over time

a)

Continuity

b)

Consistency

c)

Visibility

d)

Appearance

25.

What does closure do in principles of User-Interface Design

a)

Closure on Dialogues: end of a series of actions

b)

Protect user's work - at end and for partially complete work

c)

Provide undo to reverse actions

26.

Shortcut keys for experienced users and meaningful error messages represent which type of principles of User-Interface Design?

a)

Usability and Efficiency

b)

Readability and Navigation

c)

Visibility and Closure

27.

In developing a website or app, a ______ could be used to show the differences between screens

a)

Storyboard

b)

Chart

c)

Display button

d)

Error message

28.

What is the process of designing basics using no color, no type style; graphics are shown as a simple box with an X drawn in?

a)

Wireframing

b)

Page design

c)

Prototype

d)

Testing

29.

Wireframing allows the designer to plan:

a)

The overall design, showing what element appears at each position on the page

b)

The navigational design, showing how to move from one page to the next using buttons, tabs, links, and pull-down menus

c)

The interface design, showing how to interact with the Website by inputting data or responding to questions

30.

The term wireframe has largely been replaced with ___ which show what the output and input will look like

a)

Mockups

b)

Prototype

c)

Testing design

31.

What are the considerations when designing web-based applications?

a)

Layout and formatting

b)

Data entry and user actions- client side programming

c)

Navigation and visibility - complete yet simple

d)

Web design trends moved away from skeuomorphic design to flat Web design

32.

What are some strategies when determine pricing the app

a)

Choose a low-cost strategy

b)

Introduce an app as a "premium" app

c)

Adopt a "freemium" model that allow in-app purchases for premium features

d)

Promote app by reducing its price

e)

Offer app for free and accept advertising

33.

Design activities correspond to components of the new system

a)

The environment

b)

Application components

c)

User interface

d)

Database

e)

Software classes and methods

34.

Two key elements in the environment

a)

Communications with external systems

b)

Communications with internal systems

c)

Conforming to an existing Technology Architecture

d)

Conforming to a new Technology Architecture

35.

_________ is a well defined unit of software that performs some function(s)

a)

Application component

b)

Application design

c)

Technology architecture

36.

Current technology frequently uses Relational database management systems (RDBMS)?

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Controls that maintain integrity of inputs, outputs and data and programs

Integrated into application programs and database

a)

Integrity controls

b)

Security controls

38.

Controls that protect the assets from threats, internal and external

Part of the OS and the network

a)

Integrity controls

b)

Security controls

39.

Focused on the use and governance of personal data -- things like putting policies in place to ensure that consumers' personal information is being collected, shared and used in an appropriate ways

a)

Data privacy

b)

Data security

40.

Focuses more on protecting data from malicious attacks and the exploitation of stolen data for profit. While security is necessary for protecting data, it is not sufficient for addressing privacy

a)

Data privacy

b)

Data security

41.

Objectives of integrity controls

a)

Ensure that only appropriate and correct business transactions are accepted

b)

Ensure that transactions are recorded and processed correctly

c)

To protect and safeguard assets such as the database

42.

Types of input controls

a)

Value limit controls: Check range of inputs for reasonableness (i.e. GPA <=4)

b)

Completeness controls: Ensure all the data has been entered

c)

Data validation controls: specific data values are correct

d)

Field combination controls: data is correct based on relationships between fields

43.

To ensure that output arrives at proper destination (for authorized eyes) and is accurate, current, and complete

a)

Output controls

b)

Input controls

c)

Information Security

d)

Output limitation

44.

What are the 3 components of the Fraud Triangle?

a)

Opportunity

b)

Motive

c)

Rationalization

d)

Threat

45.

Converted encrypted data back to readable format

a)

Decryption

b)

Encryption

c)

Remote wipe

d)

Encryption key

46.

Technique where a document is encrypted using a private key

a)

Digital signature

b)

Encryption

c)

Decryption

d)

Digital certificate

47.

An organizations name and public that is encrypted and certified by an authorized third party

a)

Digital signature

b)

Encryption

c)

Decryption

d)

Digital certificate

48.

Standard set of protocols for authentication and authorization

a)

Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

b)

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

c)

IP Security (IPSec)

d)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

49.

An internet standard equivalent to SSL

a)

Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

b)

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

c)

IP Security (IPSec)

d)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

50.

Internet security protocol at a low-level transmission

a)

Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

b)

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

c)

IP Security (IPSec)

d)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

51.

Internet standard to transmit web pages

a)

Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

b)

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

c)

IP Security (IPSec)

d)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

52.

A crime involving an attack or threat of an attack coupled with a demand for money or some other response in return for stopping or remediating the attack

a)

Cyberattack

b)

Cyberextortion

c)

Cybercrime

d)

Cyberthreat