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COPM-FINALS

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When did Annex V of the MARPOL Convention, which addresses the prevention of pollution by garbage from ships, come into force?

a)

December 31, 1988

b)

January 1, 1983

c)

June 15, 1995

d)

March 22, 1978

2.

What is the primary concern about manufactured objects that end up in the seas?

a)

They dissolve quickly, affecting water composition.

b)

They create piles of marine debris that harm marine life.

c)

They improve the ecosystem by providing habitats for fish.

d)

They primarily contribute to natural beach formations.

3.

What happens to manufactured objects that enter the seas?

a)

They are quickly degraded and removed from the ecosystem.

b)

They float, sink, or wash up on beaches, forming marine debris.

c)

They are naturally recycled by marine organisms.

d)

They primarily dissolve into harmless particles.

4.

It is considered the greatest danger among marine debris?

a)

Plastics

b)

Paper

c)

Rope

d)

Net

5.

Time taken for objects to dissolve at sea
(Paper)

a)

2-4 week

b)

1-5 months

c)

3-14 months

d)

1 year

6.

Time taken for objects to dissolve at sea
(Cotton cloth)

a)

2-4 week

b)

1-5 months

c)

3-14 months

d)

1 year

7.

Time taken for objects to dissolve at sea
(Rope)

a)

13 years

b)

100 years

c)

3-14 months

d)

1 year

8.

Time taken for objects to dissolve at sea
(Woolen cloth)

a)

13 years

b)

100 years

c)

200-500 years

d)

1 year

9.

Time taken for objects to dissolve at sea
(Painted wood)

a)

13 years

b)

100 years

c)

200-500 years

d)

450 years

10.

Time taken for objects to dissolve at sea
(Tin can)

a)

13 years

b)

100 years

c)

200-500 years

d)

450 years

11.

Time taken for objects to dissolve at sea
(Aluminum can)

a)

13 years

b)

100 years

c)

200-500 years

d)

450 years

12.

Time taken for objects to dissolve at sea
(Plastic bottle)

a)

13 years

b)

100 years

c)

200-500 years

d)

450 years

13.

Why did people previously believe that throwing waste into the oceans was harmless?

a)

They thought the oceans could absorb anything indefinitely.

b)

They believed marine life thrived on human waste.

c)

They assumed the waste would vanish instantly.

d)

They were unaware of the oceans' ecological limits.

14.

What has caused attitudes toward ocean pollution to change?

a)

The discovery of alternative waste disposal methods.

b)

Greater awareness of environmental impacts.

c)

A decrease in the availability of waste materials.

d)

The ocean's reduced ability to support marine life.

15.

Why does marine waste pose a long-term problem even if it can degrade over time?

a)

The degradation process can take months or years.

b)

The waste becomes more toxic as it degrades.

c)

The degradation process releases harmful gases.

d)

The waste spreads evenly throughout the ocean.

16.

According to Regulation 1 of Annex V, what does "garbage" refer to?

a)

All waste materials generated by a ship, including fresh fish.

b)

All kinds of victual, domestic, and operational waste, excluding fresh fish and parts thereof.

c)

Hazardous substances listed in other annexes of the MARPOL Convention.

d)

Any material disposed of during emergencies on a ship.

17.

According to Regulation 1, when is garbage generated on a ship liable to be disposed of?

a)

Only during emergencies on the ship.

b)

Continuously or periodically during normal operation.

c)

At the end of each voyage.

d)

When a specific waste disposal request is made.

18.

What does Regulation 1 of Annex V specify about substances defined or listed in other Annexes of the Convention?

a)

They are included in the definition of garbage.

b)

They are excluded from the definition of garbage.

c)

They must be treated the same as garbage.

d)

They should be disposed of by incineration.

19.

When did the revised MARPOL Annex V come into force?

a)

1 January 2000

b)

1 January 2010

c)

1 January 2013

d)

1 January 2020

20.

What does the term "garbage" refer to under the revised MARPOL Annex V?

a)

Only food waste and plastics generated on ships.

b)

All kinds of food, domestic wastes, operational wastes, plastics, cargo residues, incinerator ashes, cooking oil, fishing gear, and animal carcasses.

c)
  • Only waste materials from ship fuel and cargo.

d)

Only animal carcasses and fishing gear.

21.

Which of the following is excluded from the definition of garbage under Regulation 1 of Annex V?

a)

Operational waste

b)

Fresh fish and parts thereof

c)
  • Domestic waste

d)

Victual waste

22.

What does the term "special area" refer to in Regulation 1 of MARPOL Annex V?

a)

A sea area requiring special measures to prevent all types of pollution.

b)

A sea area where specific methods are required to prevent pollution by garbage.

c)
  • A sea area with no pollution regulations.

d)

A sea area designated for controlled waste disposal.

23.

When did the amendments to MARPOL Annex V adopted at MEPC 70 come into force?

a)

1 January 2015

b)

1 March 2018

c)
  • 1 June 2020

d)

1 December 2017

24.

Which of the following is classified under category A in MARPOL Annex V?

a)

Plastics

b)

Incinerator ashes

c)
  • Cooking oil

d)

Cargo residues

25.

What does category A in MARPOL Annex V cover?

a)

All types of food waste

b)

All kinds of plastics

c)
  • Fishing gear and animal carcasses

d)

All operational waste

26.

What does category B in MARPOL Annex V cover?

a)

Cargo residues and incinerator ashes

b)

All kinds of plastics

c)
  • Fishing gear and animal carcasses

d)

Spoiled or unspoiled food substances

27.

What does category C in MARPOL Annex V refer to?

a)
  • All plastics and cargo residues

b)

Domestic wastes generated mainly in the accommodation spaces on board the ship

c)
  • Food wastes such as spoiled or unspoiled food

d)

Incinerator ashes and fishing gear

28.

Which of the following is an example of garbage under category C in MARPOL Annex V?

a)
  • Drinking bottles, papers, and cardboard

b)

Cargo residues and incinerator ashes

c)
  • Plastics and fishing gear

d)

Spoiled food waste

29.

What does category D in MARPOL Annex V refer to?

a)
  • All kinds of plastics and cargo residues

b)

Cooking oil or animal fat used for food preparation or cooking

c)
  • Domestic waste generated in the accommodation spaces

d)

Spoiled or unspoiled food substances

30.

What does category E in MARPOL Annex V refer to?

a)
  • Ash and clinkers resulting from shipboard incinerators

b)

Plastics and cargo residues

c)
  • Domestic waste generated in accommodation spaces

d)

Spoiled or unspoiled food substances

31.

What does category F in MARPOL Annex V refer to?

a)
  • Solid wastes from food preparation and domestic activities

b)

Operational wastes, including slurries, collected during normal ship operations

c)
  • Plastics and cargo residues

d)

Animal carcasses and fishing gear

32.

What types of waste are included in category F of MARPOL Annex V?

a)
  • Cleaning agents and additives from cargo hold and external wash water

b)

Spoiled or unspoiled food substances

c)
  • Plastics and incinerator ashes

d)

Cooking oils and animal fats

33.

What does category G in MARPOL Annex V refer to?

a)
  • Bodies of animals that die or are euthanized during the voyage

b)

Animal products used in food preparation

c)
  • Animal waste generated during the ship’s operation

d)

Waste from cargo handling and maintenance

34.

Under MARPOL Annex V, when is the discharge of animal carcasses permitted at sea?

a)
  • It is always permitted if the ship is in international waters.

b)

Only under specific circumstances and requirements.

c)
  • It is allowed after incineration on board.

d)

It is never allowed under any circumstances.

35.

What does category H in MARPOL Annex V refer to?

a)
  • Fishing gear, a physical device used for capturing marine or freshwater organisms

b)

Plastics and cargo residues

c)
  • Animal carcasses carried as cargo

d)

Operational wastes collected during ship maintenance

36.

What does category I in MARPOL Annex V refer to?

a)
  • E-waste, including electronic equipment, components, and consumables disposed of as waste

b)

Plastics and cargo residues

c)
  • Animal carcasses and fishing gear

d)

Operational wastes collected during normal maintenance

37.

What does category J in MARPOL Annex V refer to?

a)
  • Cargo residues considered non-harmful to the marine environment (Non-HME)

b)

Animal carcasses and fishing gear

c)
  • E-waste and its components

d)

Plastics and operational waste

38.

What does category K in MARPOL Annex V refer to?

a)
  • Cargo residues considered non-harmful to the marine environment (Non-HME)

b)

Cargo residues considered harmful to the marine environment (HME)

c)
  • E-waste and its components

d)

Plastics and operational waste

39.

Under MARPOL Annex V, who is responsible for classifying whether solid bulk cargoes are harmful to the marine environment?

a)
  • The vessel's captain

b)

The shipper

c)
  • The marine regulatory authority

d)

The port authorities

40.

According to MARPOL Annex V, to which ships do the provisions of this Annex apply?

a)
  • Only to cargo ships

b)

Only to passenger ships

c)
  • Only to ships over 500 tons

d)

To all ships, unless expressly provided otherwise

41.

According to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4, when is the discharge of certain types of garbage into the sea outside special areas permitted?

a)
  • Only when the ship is in port

b)

Only when the ship is enroute and as far as practicable from the nearest land

c)
  • Only after the ship has completed its journey

d)

Only when the ship is in international waters

42.

According to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4, what is the minimum distance from land at which food wastes processed through a comminuter or grinder can be discharged into the sea?

a)
  • 1 nautical mile

b)

3 nautical miles

c)
  • 5 nautical miles

d)

12 nautical miles

43.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4, what is required for food wastes to be discharged into the sea at a distance of 3 nautical miles from the nearest land?

a)
  • The food waste must be ground to a size capable of passing through a screen with openings no greater than 25 mm.

b)

The food waste must be packaged in biodegradable materials.

c)
  • The food waste must be disinfected before discharge.

d)

The food waste must be fully dissolved in water.

44.

What is the maximum size of food waste particles after being processed by a comminuter or grinder, according to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4?

a)
  • 10 mm

b)

25 mm

c)
  • 50 mm

d)

100 mm

45.

According to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4, what is the minimum distance from land at which untreated food wastes can be discharged into the sea?

a)
  • 3 nautical miles

b)

5 nautical miles

c)
  • 12 nautical miles

d)

15 nautical miles

46.

According to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4, what is the minimum distance from land at which cargo residues, that cannot be recovered using commonly available unloading methods, can be discharged?

a)
  • 3 nautical miles

b)

5 nautical miles

c)
  • 12 nautical miles

d)

15 nautical miles

47.

For cargo residues that cannot be recovered using commonly available methods for unloading, what does MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4 specify about their discharge?

a)
  • They can be discharged at any distance from the shore.

b)

They must not contain substances classified as harmful to the marine environment.

c)
  • They must be treated with chemicals before discharge.

d)

They must be immediately disposed of in special areas.

48.

According to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4, where should the discharge of animal carcasses take place?

a)
  • More than 100 nautical miles from land and at maximum water depth.

b)

Within 12 nautical miles from the nearest land.

c)
  • Within 3 nautical miles from the shore.

d)

Only in designated special areas.

49.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4, what condition applies to the discharge of cleaning agents or additives contained in cargo hold, deck, and external surfaces wash water?

a)
  • They must be neutralized before discharge.

b)

They must be free of harmful substances that could impact the marine environment.

c)
  • They must be disposed of in special areas designated for such waste.

d)

They must be treated with chemicals before being discharged.

50.

According to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4, how must solid bulk cargoes, other than grain, be classified?

a)
  • In accordance with Appendix I of MARPOL Annex V

b)

By the ship's captain

c)
  • By port authorities

d)

According to international environmental standards

51.

Who is responsible for declaring whether solid bulk cargoes, other than grain, are harmful to the marine environment under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4?

a)
  • The shipper

b)

The ship's captain

c)
  • The port authority

d)

The marine regulatory authority

52.

According to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4, what happens when garbage is mixed with or contaminated by other substances that have different discharge requirements?

a)
  • The more stringent requirements shall apply.

b)

The garbage must be discharged in special areas only.

c)
  • The garbage is allowed to be discharged without any restrictions.

d)

The garbage must be treated with chemicals before discharge.

53.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 5, when is the discharge of garbage into the sea prohibited from fixed or floating platforms and nearby ships?

a)
  • When the ship is at sea

b)

When the ship is alongside or within 500 meters of such platforms

c)
  • When the ship is in a special area

d)

When the ship is enroute

54.

What distance from the nearest land must fixed or floating platforms be located for food wastes to be discharged into the sea according to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 5?

a)
  • 3 nautical miles

b)

5 nautical miles

c)
  • 12 nautical miles

d)

20 nautical miles

55.

According to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 6, when is the discharge of food wastes permitted within special areas?

a)
  • Only when the ship is in a special disposal area.

b)

Only while the ship is en route, at least 12 nautical miles from the nearest land or ice shelf.

c)
  • Only when the ship is more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest land.

d)

Only if the food wastes are incinerated before discharge.

56.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 6, what is the requirement for food wastes before they can be discharged into the sea within special areas?

a)
  • The food wastes must be incinerated or neutralized.

b)

The food wastes must be comminuted or ground and capable of passing through a screen with openings no greater than 25 mm.

c)
  • The food wastes must be biodegradable.

d)

The food wastes must be stored and disposed of at the nearest port.

57.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 6, when is the discharge of garbage permitted within special areas, regarding the ports of departure and destination?

a)
  • When the ship is outside the special area.

b)

When both the port of departure and the next port of destination are within the special area, and the ship will not transit outside the special area between those ports.

c)
  • When the ship is more than 50 nautical miles from any land.

d)

When the ship is in a designated waste disposal zone within the special area.

58.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 6, when is the discharge of garbage permitted within special areas, considering the availability of reception facilities?

a)
  • When the reception facilities are located within 12 nautical miles of the nearest land.

b)

Only if there are no adequate reception facilities available at the ports of departure or destination, as per guidelines developed by the Organization.

c)
  • Only when reception facilities are available at both ports of departure and destination.

d)

When the reception facilities are not required by the guidelines of the Organization.

59.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 6, when is the discharge of cargo hold washing water containing residues permitted within special areas?

a)
  • Only when the ship is at least 50 nautical miles from the nearest land.

b)

When the conditions of subparagraphs 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3 are fulfilled, and the discharge is made at least 12 nautical miles from the nearest land or ice shelf.

c)
  • When the ship is in a designated waste disposal zone.

d)

When the cargo residues are classified as non-harmful to the marine environment.

60.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 7, which of the following is an exception to the discharge regulations for garbage from ships?

a)
  • The discharge of garbage to dispose of unwanted waste during the voyage.

b)

The discharge of garbage to secure the safety of the ship or save lives at sea.

c)
  • The discharge of garbage from the ship at any point during the voyage.

d)

The discharge of garbage when no hazardous materials are present.

61.

According to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 7, which scenario qualifies for an exception to the garbage discharge regulations?

a)
  • The intentional discharge of cargo residues to lighten the ship's load.

b)

The accidental loss of garbage due to damage to the ship or its equipment, with reasonable precautions taken.

c)
  • The discharge of garbage from a ship near the shore.

d)

The discharge of garbage to improve the operational efficiency of the ship.

62.

What is a condition for the exception to the discharge regulations under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 7 regarding fishing gear?

a)
  • The fishing gear is lost accidentally, and all reasonable precautions have been taken to prevent such loss.

b)

The fishing gear is no longer useful and is disposed of at sea.

c)
  • The fishing gear is disposed of to prevent pollution from the ship.

d)

The fishing gear is thrown overboard during routine operations.

63.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 7, when is the discharge of fishing gear from a ship allowed?

a)
  • Only when the fishing gear is damaged beyond repair.

b)

For the protection of the marine environment or for the safety of the ship or its crew.

c)
  • Only when the fishing gear is no longer needed for the voyage.

d)

Only when the fishing gear has been approved by the authorities.

64.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 7, what is an exception to the en route requirements for the discharge of food wastes?

a)
  • The food wastes must be kept on board for the entire voyage.

b)

The food wastes must be disposed of at the nearest port.

c)
  • The discharge of food wastes is permitted when retaining them on board presents an imminent health risk to the people on board.

d)

The food wastes must be treated before discharge.

65.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 10, which ships are required to display placards notifying the crew and passengers of the discharge requirements?

a)
  • Ships of 10 meters or more in length overall.

b)

Ships of 12 meters or more in length overall and fixed or floating platforms.

c)
  • Only ships operating in special areas.

d)

Only ships over 50 meters in length.

66.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 10, what languages must the placards be written in?

a)
  • Only the working language of the ship's crew.

b)

The working language of the crew and, if necessary, in English, French, or Spanish for ships engaged in voyages to other Parties' ports.

c)
  • Only English, French, or Spanish.

d)

The working language of the crew and in the language of the ship's flag state.

67.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 10, which ships are required to carry a Garbage Management Plan?

a)
  • Every ship of 50 gross tonnage and above.

b)

Every ship of 100 gross tonnage and above, and every ship certified to carry 15 or more persons, and fixed or floating platforms.

c)
  • Only ships over 200 gross tonnage.

d)

Only ships certified to carry more than 100 persons.

68.

What must the Garbage Management Plan include, according to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 10?

a)
  • Procedures for ship maintenance and equipment management.

b)

Procedures for minimizing, collecting, storing, processing, and disposing of garbage, including the use of onboard equipment.

c)
  • Only procedures for storing garbage.

d)

A list of waste management companies to be contacted.

69.

According to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 10, who is designated to carry out the Garbage Management Plan on a ship?

a)
  • The ship's captain and passengers.

b)

The crew, with designated persons in charge of carrying out the plan.

c)
  • The ship's engine room staff.

d)

The ship’s owner or operator.

70.

Under MARPOL Annex V Regulation 10, which ships are required to have a Garbage Record Book?

a)
  • Every ship of 200 gross tonnage and above.

b)

Every ship of 400 gross tonnage and above, and every ship certified to carry 15 or more persons engaged in voyages to ports or offshore terminals under the jurisdiction of another Party to the Convention, and every fixed or floating platform.

c)
  • Every ship over 500 gross tonnage.

d)

Only passenger ships and cargo vessels.

71.

What is the required format for the Garbage Record Book, according to MARPOL Annex V Regulation 10?

a)
  • It must be a part of the ship's official log-book.

b)

It must be in the form specified in the appendix to this Annex.

c)
  • It must be an electronic document.

d)

It must be in the form of a daily log.

72.

What are the amendments to MARPOL Annex V adopted at MEPC 70, which will enter into force on 1 March 2018?

a)
  • Criteria for determining whether cargo residues are harmful to the marine environment and a new Garbage Record Book format for e-waste.

b)

The prohibition of all plastic discharges from ships.

c)
  • A requirement for all ships to use biodegradable cleaning agents.

d)

New regulations for fuel discharge standards.

73.

What new garbage category was introduced in the amendments to MARPOL Annex V adopted at MEPC 70, effective from 1 March 2018?

a)
  • Plastics

b)

Food waste

c)
  • E-waste

d)

Animal carcasses

74.

What are the two parts of the new Garbage Record Book (GRB) introduced in Appendix II to MARPOL Annex V?

a)
  • Part I: Garbage only from passenger ships, Part II: Cargo residues from tankers

b)

Part I: All garbage other than cargo residues, Part II: Cargo residues only applicable to ships carrying solid bulk cargo

c)
  • Part I: Garbage from the accommodation spaces, Part II: Garbage from the engine room

d)

Part I: Garbage from the engine room, Part II: Garbage from cargo holds

75.

When was Annex VI of MARPOL, which focuses on the prevention of air pollution from ships, adopted?

a)
  • May 19, 2005

b)

January 1, 2010

c)
  • November 15, 2012

d)

June 4, 2000

76.

What does MARPOL Annex VI regulate in terms of air pollution from ships?

a)
  • Only sulphur oxides (SOx) emissions

b)

Only nitrous oxides (NOx) emissions

c)
  • Sulphur oxides (SOx), nitrous oxides (NOx), and emissions of ozone-depleting substances (ODS), and regulates shipboard incineration and VOC emissions from tankers

d)

Only emissions from shipboard incineration

77.

Which pollutants are limited by MARPOL Annex VI in ship exhaust gases?

a)
  • Ozone-depleting substances (ODS)

b)

Sulphur oxides (SOx) and nitrous oxides (NOx

c)
  • Volatile organic compounds (VOC)

d)

All of the above

78.

What is the greenhouse effect?

a)
  • The process by which the Earth loses heat through radiation

b)

The process by which certain gases trap infrared radiation, warming the planet

c)
  • The increase in the Earth's temperature due to the depletion of ozone

d)

The cooling effect caused by clouds reflecting sunlight

79.

What is a recent result of air pollution related to the ozone layer?

a)
  • Seasonal “holes” in the ozone layer over Antarctica and the Arctic

b)

Increased greenhouse gases in the atmosphere

c)
  • Global warming and heatwaves

d)

Rising ocean temperatures

80.

What evidence has been growing related to the ozone layer?

a)
  • Global ozone depletion

b)

Increased air pollution in cities

c)
  • Reduction in carbon dioxide levels

d)

Recovery of the ozone layer

81.

What can result from increased ultraviolet radiation reaching the Earth due to ozone depletion?

a)
  • It can damage crops and plants, and lead to skin cancer and cataracts

b)

It can cool the Earth’s surface and reduce global warming

c)
  • It can improve the growth of plants and crops

d)

It can reduce the occurrence of skin cancer

82.

What is the primary cause of ozone depletion?

a)
  • The emission of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) from refrigerators, air conditioners, and aerosols

b)

Increased carbon dioxide levels from industrial emissions

c)
  • Deforestation and loss of vegetation

d)

The release of methane from livestock farming

83.

What did the Montreal Protocol of 1987 require developed nations to do regarding CFC levels?

a)
  • Not exceed 1986 CFC levels

b)

Completely eliminate CFCs immediately

c)
  • Reduce CFC emissions by 50%

d)

Increase CFC production by 10%

84.

Which international agreement aimed to accelerate the phasing out of ozone-depleting substances from 1990 to 1997?

a)
  • The Montreal Protocol

b)

The Kyoto Protocol

c)
  • The Paris Agreement

d)

The CFC Reduction Accord

85.

It is a generic term for the various nitrogen oxides produced during combustion.

a)
  • Nitrogen Oxide (NOx)

b)

Nitrogen

c)
  • Oxide

d)

Sulphur

86.

Colourless, odourless gaseous chemical element forming nearly four fifths of the atmosphere

a)
  • Nitrogen Oxide (NOx)

b)

Nitrogen

c)
  • Oxide

d)

Sulphur

87.

A chemical compound of oxygen with other chemical element.

a)
  • Nitrogen Oxide (NOx)

b)

Nitrogen

c)
  • Oxide

d)

Sulphur

88.

A pale-yellow, non-metallic chemical element produced during combustion

a)
  • Acid Rain

c)
  • Halons

d)

Sulphur

89.

It is the ENHANCED effect which is caused by other gases released when fossil fuels are burnt.

a)
  • Acid Rain

c)
  • Halons

d)

Sulphur

90.

It is a simple gaseous compounds that contain carbon, chlorine, fluorine and sometimes hydrogen that are used as refrigerant, cleaning solvent and aerosol propellants and in the manufacture of plastics and foams

a)
  • Acid Rain

c)
  • Halons

d)

Sulphur

91.

Bromine containing compounds with long atmosphere lifetime whose breakdown in the atmosphere causes depletion of ozone. It is used in firefighting.

a)
  • Acid Rain

c)
  • Halons

d)

Sulphur

92.

Manufactured from CFCs, are effective extinguishers use in portable fire extinguishers and fixed fire prevention systems

a)
  • Acid Rain

c)
  • Halons

d)

Sulphur

93.

Which pollutants are confirmed to be the primary causes of acid rain?

a)
  • Sulfur dioxide (SOx) and nitrogen oxides (NOx)

b)

Carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4)

c)
  • Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and ozone

d)

Particulate matter and lead

94.

It means any release of substances subject to control by this Annex from ships into the atmosphere are sea

a)
  • Emission

b)

NOx Technical Code

c)
  • Ozone-depleting substances

d)

Shipboard incinerator

95.

It means the Technical Code on Control of Emission of Nitrogen Oxides from Marine Diesel Engines adopted by Conference resolution 2, as may be amended by the Organization.

a)
  • Emission

b)

NOx Technical Code

c)
  • Ozone-depleting substances

d)

Shipboard incinerator

96.

It means controlled substances defined in paragraph 4 of article 1 of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer, 1987, listed in Annexes A,B,C or E to the said Protocol in force at the time of application or interpretation of this Annex.

a)
  • Emission

b)

NOx Technical Code

c)
  • Ozone-depleting substances

d)

Shipboard incinerator

97.

It means a shipboard facility designed for the primary purpose of incineration.

a)
  • Emission Control Area (ECA)

b)

NOx Technical Code

c)
  • Ozone-depleting substances

d)

Shipboard incinerator

98.

It means an area where the adoption a speed mandatory measures for Sox emissions from ships is required to prevent, reduce and control air pollution from Sox and its attendant adverse impacts on land and sea areas.

a)
  • Emission Control Area (ECA)

b)

NOx Technical Code

c)
  • Ozone-depleting substances

d)

Shipboard incinerator

99.

What are the main changes introduced to Revised MARPOL Annex VI?

a)
  • A progressive reduction in emissions of SOx, NOx, and particulate matter, and the introduction of emission control areas (ECAs)

b)

The elimination of greenhouse gas emissions from ships

c)
  • The ban on shipboard incineration

d)

The introduction of a global ban on all air pollutants

100.

Under the revised MARPOL Annex VI, what is the new global sulphur limit that will take effect from 1 January 2020?

a)
  • From current 3.50% m/m (mass percent) to 2.50% m/m

b)

From current 3.50% m/m (mass percent) to 0.50% m/m

c)
  • From current 3.50% m/m (mass percent) to 0.25% m/m

d)

From current 3.50% m/m (mass percent) to 1.00% m/m

101.

What decision did MEPC 70 (October 2016) make regarding the fuel oil standard under MARPOL Annex VI?

a)
  • The fuel oil standard with a 0.50% sulphur limit will become effective on 1 January 2020.

b)

The sulphur limit for fuel oil will remain at 3.50% m/m until 2025.

c)
  • The 0.50% sulphur limit will apply only in emission control areas (ECAs).

d)

The 0.50% sulphur limit will be enforced only for ships built after 2020.

102.

Which ships are required to comply with the more stringent "Tier III" emission limits for NOx emissions under MARPOL Annex VI?

a)
  • Ships constructed after 1 January 1990

b)

Ships constructed after 1 January 2011

c)
  • Ships constructed after 1 January 2016 operating in ECAs

d)

Ships constructed before 1 January 1990

103.

Which ships are required to comply with the "Tier I" NOx emission limits under MARPOL Annex VI?

a)
  • Ships constructed after 1 January 1990

b)

Ships constructed between 1 January 1990 and 1 January 2000

c)
  • Ships constructed after 1 January 2016 operating in ECAs

d)

Ships constructed before 1 January 1990

104.

Which ships are required to comply with the "Tier II" NOx emission limits under MARPOL Annex VI?

a)
  • Ships constructed after 1 January 2011

b)

Ships constructed between 1 January 1990 and 1 January 2000

c)
  • Ships constructed after 1 January 2016 operating in ECAs

d)

Ships constructed before 1 January 1990

105.

What is the main feature of the revised NOx Technical Code 2008 under MARPOL Annex VI?

a)
  • It introduces a new chapter regulating only Tier III engines

b)

It includes provisions for direct measurement and monitoring methods, and a certification procedure for existing engines

c)
  • It focuses only on new engine regulations

d)

It eliminates the need for test cycles for Tier II and Tier III engines

106.

Which engines are subject to the test cycles specified in the revised NOx Technical Code 2008?

a)
  • Only Tier III engines

b)

Only Tier II engines

c)
  • Both Tier II and Tier III engines

d)

Engines installed before 2000 only

107.

What term is used in the amended Regulation 4 of the revised Annex VI to refer to abatement technology?

a)
  • Pollution control measures

b)

Equivalent measures

c)
  • Emission reduction technologies

d)

Emission compliance systems

108.

What must be acknowledged by an Administration when allowing the fitting of abatement technologies onboard a ship under the revised Annex VI?

a)
  • The technologies must be approved by a global regulatory body

b)

They are at least as effective in reducing air emissions as required for SOx, PM, and NOx emissions

c)
  • They can be used without any further restrictions

d)

They must only be used in special areas

109.

Which of the following is a requirement for the use of abatement technologies under the amended Regulation 4 of MARPOL Annex VI?

a)
  • They must operate within the parameters established under the relevant IMO guidelines

b)

They must only be installed on ships older than 10 years

c)
  • They are exempt from environmental regulations

d)

They do not need to undergo any environmental impact assessments

110.

What is a key environmental consideration when using abatement technologies according to the revised Annex VI?

a)
  • The technology must be cost-effective

b)

The technology should be able to operate continuously without maintenance

c)
  • The use of the abatement technologies must not harm the environment

d)

The technology must be proprietary and licensed by the manufacturer

111.

What types of technologies are mentioned in the revised MARPOL Annex VI, Regulation 4, for reducing air emissions from ships?

a)
  • Solar panels for reducing emissions

b)

SOx emission reduction systems, NOx emission reduction apparatus, or other verifiable and enforceable technologies

c)
  • Wind turbines to reduce emissions

d)

Carbon capture systems installed in exhaust pipes

112.

According to Regulation 4 of the revised MARPOL Annex VI, which levels must abatement technologies aim to meet for emissions?

a)

A. NOx emissions to a level equivalent to that described in Regulation 13

b)
  • B. SOx emissions to a level equivalent to that described in Regulation 14

c)
  • C. Both A and B

d)

D. Only CO2 emissions equivalent to Regulation 12

113.

What does Regulation 17 of the revised MARPOL Annex VI require each Party to ensure?

a)

The provision of facilities for the reception of garbage only

b)
  • The provision of facilities for the reception of exhaust gas cleaning residues and ozone depleting substances

c)
  • The provision of facilities for the reception of hazardous materials

d)

The provision of facilities for the reception of fuel residues

114.

What does Regulation 18 of the revised MARPOL Annex VI address regarding fuel availability?

a)

It requires ships to store compliant fuel for the entire voyage

b)
  • It sets penalties for ships unable to obtain compliant fuel

c)
  • It ensures each Party takes steps to provide compliant fuel and allows ships to notify authorities if they cannot find it

d)

It mandates ships to use any available fuel regardless of compliance

115.

What does Regulation 8 of the revised MARPOL Annex VI state about the form of the certificate?

a)

The certificate must be in the official language of the issuing country only

b)

The International Air Pollution Prevention Certificate (IAPP) must be in English, French, or Spanish, and the issuing country's official language prevails in case of dispute

c)
  • The certificate must only be in English

d)

The certificate can be in any language, with no specific requirements

116.

What does Regulation 12 of the revised MARPOL Annex VI state regarding ozone-depleting substances?

a)

Deliberate emissions of ozone-depleting substances are permitted under certain conditions

b)

Deliberate emissions of ozone-depleting substances are prohibited, except for minimal releases during recapture or recycling

c)
  • Deliberate emissions of ozone-depleting substances are allowed for maintenance, servicing, and repairs

d)

Deliberate emissions of ozone-depleting substances are only prohibited in special areas

117.

Under Regulation 12 of the revised MARPOL Annex VI, what is prohibited regarding ozone-depleting substances?

a)

The discharge of ozone-depleting substances during normal ship operations

b)

The release of ozone-depleting substances in case of accidental damage

c)
  • Any deliberate emission of ozone-depleting substances, including during maintenance, servicing, or disposal

d)

The use of ozone-depleting substances on ships

118.

Under Regulation 18 of MARPOL Annex VI, what must be recorded for each ship subject to regulations 5 and 6?

a)

Fuel oil consumption

b)

Bunker delivery note containing specific information

c)
  • Fuel oil emissions data

d)

Maintenance records for fuel systems

119.

According to MARPOL, where should the bunker delivery note be kept on board the ship?

a)

In the ship’s official log book.

b)

In a place where it is readily available for inspection at all reasonable times.

c)
  • In the ship's fuel tank records.

d)

In the engine room for maintenance purposes.

120.

How long should the bunker delivery note be retained on board the ship after fuel oil has been delivered?

a)

For one year.

b)
  • For two years.

c)
  • For three years.

d)

For five years.

121.

Under MARPOL Annex V, who has the authority to inspect the bunker delivery notes on board a ship?

a)

The captain of the ship.

b)
  • The competent authority of the Government of a Party to the Protocol of 1997.

c)
  • The shipping company representative.

d)

The local customs authorities.

122.

What can the competent authority do when inspecting the bunker delivery notes on a ship?

a)

Make a copy of each delivery note.

b)
  • Require the master or person in charge to certify that each copy is a true copy.

c)
  • Verify the contents through consultations with the port where the note was issued.

d)

All of the above.

123.

Where can the competent authority verify the contents of the bunker delivery note?

a)

Through the ship's maintenance log.

b)
  • Through consultations with the port where the note was issued.

c)
  • By contacting the shipowner.

d)

Through the shipping agency.

124.

What must accompany the bunker delivery note according to MARPOL regulations?

a)

A receipt of the fuel oil transaction.

b)
  • A representative sample of the fuel oil delivered.

c)
  • A copy of the ship’s maintenance records.

d)

A bill of lading for the fuel oil.

125.

Who must sign and seal the sample of fuel oil delivered?

a)

The captain of the ship only.

b)
  • The shipowner.

c)
  • The supplier’s representative and the master or officer in charge of the bunker operation.

d)
  • The ship’s crew members.

126.

How long must the representative sample of fuel oil be retained on board the ship?

a)

For 6 months from the time of delivery.

b)
  • Until the fuel oil is substantially consumed, but for at least 12 months from the time of delivery.

c)
  • For 3 years from the time of delivery.

d)
  • For 1 year from the time of delivery.

127.

What is the primary abatement approach for ships to reduce sulfur emissions according to international and regional legislation?

a)

Use of scrubbers to filter exhaust gases.

b)
  • Use of low sulfur fuel.

c)
  • Use of selective catalytic reduction (SCR).

d)
  • Use of renewable energy sources.

128.

What is the main purpose of Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) in ship exhaust systems?

a)

To reduce sulfur emissions.

b)
  • To convert nitrogen oxides (NOx) into diatomic nitrogen (N2) and water (H2O).

c)
  • To filter out particulate matter from exhaust gases.

d)
  • To reduce carbon dioxide emissions.

129.

Which of the following is a common gaseous reductant used in the Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) process?

a)

Nitrous oxide (N2O).

b)
  • Aqueous ammonia.

c)
  • Anhydrous ammonia.

d)
  • Urea.

130.

What is the alternative to using low sulfur fuel to meet international regulations on sulfur emissions from ships?

a)

Using selective catalytic reduction (SCR) systems.

b)
  • Using exhaust gas scrubbers (EGS).

c)
  • Using diesel particulate filters.

d)
  • Using carbon capture systems.

131.

Exhaust gas scrubbers (EGS) are considered an alternative to what regulation in terms of sulfur emissions from ships?

a)

Reducing nitrogen oxides (NOx) emissions.

b)
  • Lowering fuel sulfur content.

c)
  • Reducing carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions.

d)
  • Filtering particulate matter.

132.

What is one of the significant threats posed by invasive aquatic species to Earth's oceans?

a)

Economic benefits to coastal communities.

b)
  • Improved biodiversity.

c)
  • Environmental, economic, and public health consequences.

d)
  • Preservation of native marine species.

133.

What is identified as a key carrier of potentially invasive alien species, facilitating the transfer of thousands of species worldwide every day?

a)

Ocean currents.

b)
  • Ballast water in ships.

c)
  • Fishing vessels.

d)
  • Oceanic trade routes.

134.

According to Carlton (1999), how many different species of marine microbes, plants, and animals are estimated to be transferred worldwide every day via ballast water?

a)

1,000 to 2,000 species.

b)
  • 7,000 to 10,000 species.

c)
  • 20,000 to 30,000 species.

d)
  • 5,000 to 6,000 species.

135.

When was the International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water & Sediments adopted?

a)

Friday 13 February 2003

b)
  • Friday 13 February 2004

c)
  • Friday 13 February 2005

d)
  • Friday 13 February 2006

136.

Where was the International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water & Sediments adopted?

a)

At a Diplomatic Conference at IMO in Paris

b)
  • At a Diplomatic Conference at IMO in London

c)
  • At a Diplomatic Conference at IMO in Tokyo

d)
  • At a Diplomatic Conference at IMO in New York

137.

When did the Ballast Water Management (BWM) Convention enter into force?

a)

8 September 2016

b)
  • 8 September 2017

c)
  • 8 September 2018

d)
  • 8 September 2019

138.

How many guidelines complete the Ballast Water Management (BWM) Convention?

a)

More than 10 guidelines

b)
  • More than 12 guidelines

c)
  • More than 14 guidelines

d)
  • More than 16 guidelines

139.

According to the Convention, which of the following ships is NOT subject to its provisions?

a)

Ships designed to carry ballast water.

b)
  • Ships only operating in water under the jurisdiction of a party

c)
  • Ships with permanent ballast water in sealed tanks.

d)
  • Ships designed or constructed to carry ballast water.

140.

Which of the following ships is exempt from the Convention, according to the specified exclusions?

a)

Ships designed to carry ballast water.

b)
  • Warships, naval auxiliary ships, or other ships owned or operated by a state.

c)
  • Ships only on non-commercial service

d)
  • Ships designed or constructed to carry ballast water.

141.

According to Article 1 of the Convention, what is the definition of a "ship"?

a)

A vessel operating only in international waters.

b)
  • A vessel of any type operating in the aquatic environment, including submersibles, floating craft, floating platforms, FSUs, and FPSOs.

c)
  • Only large commercial vessels operating in the sea.

d)
  • Only ships designed for passenger transport.

142.

According to Regulation E-1, which ships are subject to surveys and certification?

a)

Ships below 400 GT.

b)
  • Ships of 400 GT and above, excluding floating platforms, FSUs, and FPSOs.

c)
  • Only naval ships and warships.

d)
  • Only commercial ships with cargo.

143.

As per BWM.2/Circ.46, which offshore units are required to comply with the provisions of the Convention?

a)

Only cargo ships operating in international waters.

b)
  • Mobile offshore units, which should be surveyed and issued with an International BWM Certificate.

c)
  • Ships operating within national waters only.

d)
  • Only floating platforms and FPSOs.

144.

Under the BWM Convention, which of the following requirements must all ships subject to the Convention comply with?

a)

Have on board a cargo manifest.

b)
  • Have on board an approved ballast water management plan and a ballast water record book.

c)
  • Have a certificate for ballast water treatment.

d)
  • Have onboard a marine pollution prevention plan.

145.

Which two standards must ships comply with under the BWM Convention for ballast water management?

a)

D-1 Standard - Ballast Water Exchange or D-2 Standard - Ballast Water Performance (treatment system).

b)
  • D-1 Standard - Ballast Water Performance or D-2 Standard - Ballast Water Exchange.

c)
  • D-1 Standard - Sediment Removal or D-2 Standard - Ballast Water Monitoring.

d)
  • D-1 Standard - Ballast Water Treatment or D-2 Standard - Sediment Disposal.

146.

What requirement applies to ships constructed on or after the entry into force of the BWM Convention?

a)

They must comply with all provisions of the Convention, including Regulation D-2 for ballast water treatment systems.

b)
  • They must comply with the BWM Convention only in international waters.

c)
  • They are not required to comply with the BWM Convention if they are under 400 gross tonnage.

d)
  • They must install a ballast water exchange system, but not a treatment system.

147.

According to IMO Circular BWM.2/Circ.40, when can an International Ballast Water Management Certificate be issued?

a)

Only after the entry into force of the BWM Convention.

b)
  • Prior to the entry into force of the BWM Convention, with annotation stating validity begins from the entry-into-force date.

c)
  • Prior to the entry into force of the BWM Convention, with no annotation.

d)
  • Once the ship has passed a ballast water treatment inspection.

148.

As per IMO Circular BWM.2/Circ.40, what must be included in the International Ballast Water Management Certificate issued prior to the entry into force of the BWM Convention?

a)

A statement that the certificate is valid for 5 years.

b)
  • An annotation that states the validity begins from the entry-into-force date.

c)
  • A statement of compliance with the D-1 and D-2 standards.

d)
  • A statement of exemption from ballast water management requirements.

149.

What is the goal of the Ballast Water Exchange under the D-1 Standard?

a)

Installation of new ballast water treatment equipment.

b)
  • Volumetric exchange of ballast water up to 95% of the Ballast Water Capacity.

c)
  • Use of chemical treatments for ballast water.

d)
  • Modification of the ship’s existing equipment.

150.

Under the D-1 Standard for Ballast Water Exchange, does the ship need to modify its existing equipment?

a)

Yes, the ship must install new ballast water treatment systems.

b)
  • No, no modification to the ship’s existing equipment is required.

c)
  • Yes, the ship must add new tanks for ballast water exchange.

d)
  • No, but the ship must use chemical treatments for ballast water.

151.

What is the flow through method in ballast water exchange?

a)

Pumping ballast water to overflow.

b)
  • Filling ballast through the top and discharging from the bottom.

c)
  • Emptying and refilling each ballast tank.

d)
  • Treating ballast water using chemicals.

152.

What does the dilution method involve in ballast water exchange?

a)

Pumping ballast water to overflow.

b)
  • Filling ballast through the top and discharging from the bottom.

c)
  • Emptying and refilling each ballast tank.

d)
  • Treating ballast water using chemicals.

153.

Which ballast water exchange method involves emptying and refilling each ballast tank?

a)

Flow through method.

b)
  • Dilution method.

c)
  • Sequential method.

d)
  • None of the above.

154.

What is the maximum number of viable organisms allowed in ballast water discharge for organisms ≥ 50 µm per cubic meter?

a)

< 1 viable organism / m³

b)
  • < 5 viable organisms / m³

c)
  • < 10 viable organisms / m³

d)
  • < 20 viable organisms / m³

155.

What is the discharge limitation for organisms in the range of 50 µm > organisms ≥ 10 µm per milliliter?

a)
  • < 5 viable organisms / ml

b)
  • < 10 viable organisms / ml

c)
  • < 50 viable organisms / ml

d)
  • < 100 viable organisms / ml

156.

Which of the following is the required concentration for Escherichia coli in ballast water discharge?

a)
  • < 50 cfu per 100 ml

b)
  • < 100 cfu per 100 ml

c)
  • < 250 cfu per 100 ml

d)
  • < 500 cfu per 100 ml

157.

What is the concentration limit for toxicogenic Vibrio cholera (O1 and O139) in ballast water discharge?

a)
  • < 0.1 cfu per 100 ml

b)
  • < 1 cfu per 100 ml

c)
  • < 10 cfu per 100 ml

d)
  • < 100 cfu per 100 ml

158.

What is the concentration limit for Intestinal Enterococci in ballast water discharge?

a)
  • < 0.1 cfu per 100 ml

b)
  • < 1 cfu per 100 ml

c)
  • < 10 cfu per 100 ml

d)
  • < 100 cfu per 100 ml

159.

Guidelines for Approval of Ballast Water Management Systems
All BWMS
Approval by administrations

a)
  • G8 guidelines
    MEPC.174(58)

b)
  • G9 guidelines
    MEPC.169(57)

160.

Procedure for Approval of Ballast Water Management Systems that make use of Active Substances
Additional process for BWMS using active substances
Approval by IMO

a)
  • G8 guidelines
    MEPC.174(58)

b)
  • G9 guidelines
    MEPC.169(57)