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social without geography

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 5hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Choose the correct percentage of population living in the following areas in Belgium.

1.Dutch Speaking area

2.French Speaking area

3.German Speaking area

a)

59% Dutch, 40% French and 1% German

b)

57% Dutch, 41% French and 2% German

c)

55% Dutch, 43% French and 3% German

d)

51% Dutch, 48% French and 1% German

2.

What is Majoritarian?

a)

It is the distribution of powers among organs of the government, the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.

b)

A type of government which is elected by people belonging to

one language community is called community government.

c)

A social division based on shared culture and may not have same religion or nationality.

d)

A concept which signifies a belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in which ever way they want.

3.

Which community leaders dominated other community leaders in Sri Lanka?

a)

Dutch

b)

Sri Lankan Tamils

c)

Sinhalese

d)

French

4.

Community government of Belgium is a good example of power sharing among :

a)

Different organs of government

b)

Different social groups

c)

Government at different levels

d)

Political Parties

5.

Brussels presented a special problem: What was it?

a)

English was becoming dominant

b)

Other foreign languages were seeping in

c)

Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the capital

d)

Dutch-speaking people constituted a minority in the country, but a majority in the capital

6.

The people whose forefathers came from India to Sri Lanka as plantation workers during the colonial period are called…….

a)

Indian Sri lankans

b)

Indian Tamils

c)

Tamil Sri Lankans

d)

Sri Lankan Tamils

7.

Most of the Sinhalese Speaking people in Srilanka are…………?

a)

Hindus

b)

Muslims

c)

Buddhists

d)

Christians

8.

Belgium is a small country in ------

a)

Asia

b)

America

c)

Europe

d)

Africa

9.

Among the following, which countries have high participation of women in public life?

a)

(a) Sweden and India

b)

(b) Norway and Sri Lanka

c)

(c) Nepal and Finland

d)

(d) Sweden and Africa

10.

When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to:

a)

(a) Biological difference between men and women

b)

(b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.

c)

(c) Unequal child sex ratio

d)

(d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies

11.

Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework and bringing up children. This is reflected in a ………………... in most families?

a)

Gender System

b)

Sexual division of labour

c)

Division of labour

d)

Gender Division

12.

What has helped to improve women’s role in public life?

a)

Gender Division

b)

Division of labor

c)

The political expression of gender division

d)

radical behaviour

13.

Which country has very high participation of women in public life?

a)

India

b)

USA

c)

England

d)

Finland

14.

India is still a …………..society

a)

Matriarchal

b)

Patriarchal

c)

Mixed

d)

All

15.

On an average an Indian woman works ……….. more than an average man every day?

a)

One hour

b)

Half an hour

c)

Two Hours

d)

One and half hour

16.

Which state has a child sex ratio below 900?

a)

Madhya Pradesh

b)

Bihar

c)

Kerala

d)

Harayana

17.

‘Feminist movements’ are aimed at:

a)

Liberty

b)

Equality

c)

Participation

d)

Power

18.
Which of the following is a country with a two-party system?
a)
United States of America
b)
Japan
c)
Canada
d)
Cuba
19.

Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of a political party?

a)

It has a unity of purpose

b)

It adheres to constitutional means

c)

It does not fulfill its policies when voted to power

d)

It has a certain organization

20.

A Political party has three components, which of the following is not a component of a political party :

a)

The leader

b)

The active members

c)

The supporters

d)

Election symbol

21.

The Political Party that runs the government is :

a)

Ruling party

b)

Factional group

c)

Opposition party

d)

Interest group

22.

Which one of the following is not a function of political parties?

a)

Parties play a decisive role in making laws for the country

b)

Parties do not shape public opinion

c)

Parties contest elections

d)

Parties put forward different policies and programs

23.

Which of the following describes a political party's platform?

a)

The platform is a list of the party's stances on various issues

b)

The platform is the list of candidates that are vying for political office

c)

The platform changes frequently to match members' views

d)

The platform is a large, enjoyable party for the members

24.

Which of these best describes a political party?

a)

A group of people who have similar viewpoints about government

b)

A group of people who love to party

c)

A group of people from the same country

d)

A secret club that only very wealthy people can enter

25.

What system of government does India have?

a)

One-party system

b)

Multi-party system

c)

Two-party system

d)

None of these

26.

A group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government is called a....................

a)

Federal

b)

Union

c)

Political Party

d)

Pressure group

27.

Which of the following is not a necessary criterion to identify a democracy?

a)

Promotes equality among citizens

b)

Provides a method to resolve conflicts

c)

Satisfies most of the citizens of a country

d)

Allows room to correct mistakes

28.

The most basic outcome of democracy is ________

a)

It puts an end to all miseries

b)

It gives rise to electoral politics

c)

Both (2) and (4)

d)

It provides an accountable form of government

29.

In substantive terms it may be reasonable to expect from democracy a government that is __________

a)

Free of corruption

b)

All of these

c)

Attentive to the needs and demands of people

d)

None of the above

30.

Which of the following forms of government has had a better rate of economic growth in the past 50 years or so?

a)

Democracies

b)

Monarchies

c)

Dictatorships

d)

Anarchical countries

31.

Choose the correct statement(s).

a)

Dictatorships have proved to be better in terms of economic growth for poor countries.

b)

Most of the countries see disparities in distribution of economic development among various sections of society.

c)

Dictatorships have a track record of providing better economic growth for all countries ,rich or poor.

d)

The difference between the % share of national income of rich and poor is the highest in Hungary.

32.

Which of the following can be a possible % for the people who lie above poverty line in Bangladesh?

a)

40%

b)

25%

c)

60%

d)

50%

33.

In the context of assessing democracy which among the following is odd one out. Democracies need to ensure:

a)

free and fair elections

b)

dignity of the individual

c)

majority rule

d)

equal treatment before law

34.

Which of these is a definite plus point of democratic regimes?

a)

Ability to end corruption

b)

Rights and duties of citizens

c)

Ability to resolve social differences

d)

Independence of Judiciary

35.

Most societies across the world were historically ________

a)

male-dominated

b)

gender insensitive

c)

female-dominated

d)

None of these

36.

Which of the following issues does democracy help in resolving?

a)

Illiteracy

b)

Communalism

c)

Poverty

d)

Pollution

37.

Which system of power-sharing is called checks and balances?

a)

Horizontal distribution

b)

Vertical distribution

c)

Dietatorial type

d)

None of these

38.

Which language is dominantly spoken in Belgium? *

a)

Dutch

b)

Spanish

c)

Italian

d)

French

39.

Which of the following is the capital of the city of Belgium?

a)

Bruges

b)

Brussels

c)

Ghent

d)

Antwerp

40.

A war-like conflict between two opposing groups in a country is called?

a)

Cold War

b)

Civil War

c)

ethnic war

d)

None of there

41.

Which of the following is not a form of power-sharing?

a)

Vertical division of Power

b)

Horizontal division of power

c)

division of power between people

d)

division of power among social groups

42.

After the Sinhala act was passed, which religion was protected according to the new constitution?

a)

Muslim

b)

Jainism

c)

Hinduism

d)

Buddhism

e)

Christianism

43.

Which place was used as headquarters for the European Union:

a)

Srilanka

b)

Brussels

c)

Mappedu

d)

Hyderabad

44.

Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that:

A. It ensures the stability of political order.

B. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.

C. It gives a fair share to minority.

D. It is the very spirit of democracy.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) A, B

(b) A, C and D

(c) All are correct

(d) A, B & C

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

45.

What kind of division is being marked in this news

a)

(a) Gender division

b)

(b) Caste division

c)

(c) Economic division

d)

(d) Religious division

46.

Select the laws enacted by the Parliament to break the Gender discrimination and women participation in public sphere.

a)

(a) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam 2023

b)

(b) Domestic Violence Act 2005

c)

(c) Equal Remuneration Act of 1976

d)

(d) All the above

47.

Identify the leaders on the Book cover who stood against the caste discrimination.

a)

Jyotiba Phule, Dr B.R Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi

b)

Mahatma Gandhi, Periyar and Lokmanya Tilak

c)

Gandhi, Motilal nehru and Periyar

d)

Gandhi, A common man and mountbatten

48.
In which countries women are given high profile
a)
Saudi Arabia, Sweden and Norway
b)
Sweden,Norway and Finland 
c)
France, Switzerland and SaudiArabia
d)
Norway, Finland and Saudi Arabia
49.
How does the Constitution of India treat the issue of religion?
a)
It favors one religion over others
b)
It allows for religious discrimination
c)
It guarantees religious freedom and equality
d)
It prohibits all religious practices
50.

What is an 'Alliance'?

a)

Two parties together form the government

b)

Leftist and Rightist together form the government

c)

When state and national parties together form the government

d)

When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power

51.

Which of these is not a State Party?

a)

TDP

b)

DMK

c)

SAD

d)

CPI

52.

In the context of assessing democracy which among the following is odd one out. Democracies need to ensure :

a)

Free and fair elections

b)

Dignity of the individual

c)

Majority rule

d)

Equal treatment before law

53.

Why is democracy better than other forms of government?

a)

It promotes equality among citizens

b)

It enhances the dignity of the individual

c)

It provides methods to resolve conflicts among citizens

d)

All the above

54.
In assessing democracy , which one is the odd one out?
a)
Free and fair elections
b)
Dignity of individual
c)
Rule of majority
d)
Equal treatment through law
55.
In which of these countries half of the population lives in poverty?
a)
India
b)
Sri Lanka
c)
Bangladesh
d)
Pakistan
56.
Democracy is considered a better form of government in comparison to dictatorship because…
a)
It promotes the citizens
b)
It allows room to correct mistakes
c)
It improves the quality of decision making
d)
All of the above
57.
Which factor is often missing from a non-democratic government?
a)
Efficiency
b)
Effectiveness
c)
Transparency
d)
None of these
58.

Who said "Democracy as Government of the people, by the people and for the people. "

a)

Abraham Lincoln

b)

George Bush

c)

Nelson Mandela

d)

John lock

59.

The most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable to the..............

a)

King

b)

Minister

c)

Ruler

d)

Citizens

60.

When democracy was introduced in India?

a)

1950

b)

1952

c)

1947

d)

1949

61.

Meaning of development is different for

a)

different people

b)

alien people

c)

same people

d)

none of these

62.

Total income of the country divided by its

total population is known as: ‘

a)

Capital Income

b)

National Income

c)

Per capita income

d)

GDP

63.

Different persons could have different as well as conflicting notions of a country’s development. A fair and just path for all should be achieved. Interpret the concept being discussed here.

a)

Social development

b)

Cultural development

c)

National development

d)

Economic development

64.

Proportion of literate population in the 7 and above age group is called as:

a)

Knowledge rate

b)

Literacy rate

c)

Attendance rate

d)

Excellence Rate

65.

Which age group of children is included for calculating Net Attendance Ratio?

a)

6-10

b)

7-11

c)

5-9

d)

14-15

66.

What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a landless labourer?

a)

Expansion of rural banking

b)

More days of work and better wages

c)

Metal roads for transportation

d)

Establishment of a high school

67.
What is life expectancy?
a)
How long you are expected to live for when you're born
b)
What people expect out of life
c)
Whether or not you will be born
d)
Amount of money a country has
68.

What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a landless labourer?

a)

Expansion of rural banking

b)

More days of work and better wages

c)

Metal roads for transportation

d)

Establishment of a high school

69.

Pick out the correct meaning listed below to define ‘average income’

a)

Average income of the country means the total income of the country.

b)

The average income in a country is the income of only employed people.

c)

The average income is the same as per capita income.

d)

The average income includes the value of property held.

70.

Different persons could have ……….notions of a country’s development.

a)

A. Different as well as conflicting

b)

B. Same

c)

C. Indifferent

d)

D. No

71.

The motive of Private sector enterprises is:

a)

Profit making

b)

Entertainment

c)

Social welfare and security

d)

None of these

72.

Which of the following is also known as disguised employment?

a)

Over employment

b)

Factory employment

c)

Under employment

d)

Unemployment

73.

Railway is an example of :

a)

Private Sector

b)

Public Sector

c)

Secondary Sector

d)

None of these

74.

GDP is the sum total of the value of ________ goods produced during a particular year.

a)

all goods and services

b)

all final goods and services

c)

all intermediate goods and services

d)

all intermediate and final goods and services

75.

Which of the following Acts would not apply to a company like TISCO?

a)

Minimum Wages Act

b)

National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

c)

Factories Act

d)

Payment of Gratuity Act

76.

The value of all goods and services produced within a country in a certain year is called its:

a)

National Product

b)

Net Domestic Product

c)

Gross Domestic Product

d)

None of these

77.

On which of the following basis the sectors are classified into public sector and private sector?

a)

Employment conditions

b)

The nature of the economic activity

c)

Ownership of enterprises

d)

Number of workers employed in the enterprise

78.

Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in the ___________ sector.

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Information Technology

79.

What will happen if the government fails to provide 100 days employment under NREGA?

a)

No extra benefit will be given

b)

The officer-in-charge will be punished

c)

Unemployment allowance will be given

d)

Food grains will be provided

80.

Underemployment is a situation where people:

a)

do not want to work

b)

are not paid of their work

c)

are working in a lazy manner

d)

are working less than what they are capable of doing

81.

Which among the following banks issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government in India?

a)

(a) RBI

b)

(b) State Bank of India

c)

(c) Bank of India

d)

(d) Central Bank of India

82.

What do the banks do with the deposits which I they accept from the customers?

a)

(a) Banks use these deposits for charitable activities.

b)

(b) Banks use a major portion of deposits to extend loans.

c)

(c) Banks use deposits to give bonus to their employees.

d)

(d) Banks use deposits to set up more branches in the country.

83.

What is the main source of income of a bank?

a)

(a) Bank charges that the depositors pay for ; keeping their money safe is the main ; source of the bank’s income.

b)

(b) The difference between what is charged from the borrowers and paid to the depositors is the main source of bank’s income.

c)

(c) Banks earn huge amounts of money by investing the money of the depositors in various company shares.

d)

(d) The Government of India gives huge amounts of money to the banks to help their smooth functioning.

84.

An agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment refers to

a)

(a) Debt

b)

(b) Deposit

c)

(c) Credit

d)

(d) Collateral

85.

Which body (authority) supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?

a)

(a) Finance Ministry

b)

(b) Head Office of each Bank

c)

(c) Reserve Bank

d)

(d) Cooperative Societies

86.

Money-lenders usually demand a ‘security’ from the borrower. What is the formal word used for the ‘security’, such as land, vehicle, livestock, building, etc.?

a)

(a) Deposit

b)

(b) Collateral

c)

(c) Credit

d)

(d) Guarantee

87.

Which among the following options will be the cheapest source of credit in rural areas?

a)

(a) Bank

b)

(b) Cooperative Society

c)

(c) Money-lender

d)

(d) Finance Company

88.

A typical Self Help Group usually has

a)

(a) 100-200 members

b)

(b) 50-100 members

c)

(c) less than 10 members

d)

(d) 15-20 members

89.

Which of the following is not an informal source of credit?

a)

(a) Money-lender

b)

(b) Relatives and Friends

c)

(c) Commercial Banks

d)

(d) Traders

90.

Absence of …………. as a guarantee is a major cause that prevents poor people from obtaining loans from formal sector sources, such as commercial banks.

a)

Money

b)

collateral

c)

paper notes, coins

d)

double coincidence

91.

Globalisation provides

a)

Choice of goods and services

b)

Competetive prices

c)

Better quality

d)

All the above

92.

Which MNC is the largest producer of edible oil in India?

a)

Parakh Foods

b)

Mahendra

c)

Amul

d)

Cargill

93.

Ford motors wanted to collaborate with which Indian company?

a)

Hyundai India

b)

Mahindra & Mahindra

c)

Maruti Suzuki

d)

Tata Motors

94.

Which country has affected the toy industry in India adversely?

a)

China

b)

USA

c)

Japan

d)

Canada

95.

Due to globalisation, what is moving between

countries?

a)

People & Investment

b)

Technology

c)

Goods & services

d)

All of the above

96.

How do MNC's set up production in foreign countries?

a)

By setting up production jointly with local companies

b)

By buying up local companies

c)

By controlling the production of local companies

d)

All of the above

97.

Investments made by MNC's in different countries is called-

a)

Growth investments

b)

Investment Funds

c)

Foreign Investments

d)

Annuities

98.

Globalisation is a process of rapid ___________________ or ___________________________ between the countries.

a)

integration or interconnection

b)

intersection or interrelation

c)

Interaction or intermingling

99.

The main objective of World Trade Organisation is to _________________________________.

a)

No restrictions on import or export

b)

allow meeting of producers and consumers

c)

create environment suitable for trade

100.

In which year did the government decide to remove barriers on foreign trade and investment in India?

a)

1993

b)

1992

c)

1991

d)

1990

101.
What is HDI?
a)
Human Development Index
b)
Huge Donut Industry
c)
High Development Industry
d)
Highly Dubious Imagination
102.
Which three indicators are used to measure the HDI?
a)
Literacy rate, number of trees and GNI
b)
Life expectancy, schooling and GNI per capita
103.
What is life expectancy?
a)
How long you are expected to live for when you're born
b)
What people expect out of life
c)
Whether or not you will be born
d)
Amount of money a country has
104.
What is the literacy rate?
a)
The amount of adults who have written a book
b)
The amount of adults who can read and write per 1000
c)
The amount of adults who have electricity per 1000
d)
The amount of children that can read by age 5
105.

Which of the following refers to development of a country?

a)

The gradual growth of a thing.

b)

A sustained increase in the income of the people of a country.

c)

The gradual growth of a person.

d)

A sustained increase in the area of the country.

106.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Transporting cloth to the workshops

(ii) Sale in shops and showrooms

(iii) Spinning the yarn

(iv) Weaving of the fabric

a)

(i), (iv). (iii), (ii)

b)

(iii). (iv). (i), (ii)

c)

(iv). (i), (ii), (iii)

d)

(iii), (iv). (ii), (i)

107.

MGNREGA 2005 implements the ........ in about 625 district of India.

a)

Right to Property

b)

Right to Education

c)

Right to Work

d)

Right to Life

108.

On which of the following basis the sectors are classified into public sector and private sector?

a)

Employment conditions

b)

The nature of the economic activity

c)

Ownership of enterprises

d)

Number of workers employed in the enterprise

109.

Communication and banking come under ……….. sector.

a)

Tertiary

b)

Primary

c)

government

d)

unsecure

110.

Which sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India? Select one from the following alternatives:

a)

Secondary sector

b)

Tertiary sector

c)

Primary sector

d)

Science and Technology sector

111.

Identify the natural product from the list of items given below:

a)

Textile

b)

Wheat flour

c)

Cotton

d)

Tomtao sauce

112.
Which one is the following is the important characteristic of modern form of currency?
a)
It is made from precious metal
b)
It is made from thing of everyday use
c)
It is authorized by commercial banks
d)
It is authorized by the Government of the country
113.
Who has power to sign One rupees paper note in India?
a)
Governer of RBI
b)
President
c)
Finance Secretary
d)
Finance Minister
114.
In a SHG most of the decisions regarding loan activities are taken by
a)
Banks
b)
Members
c)
Non-government organisation
d)
Cooperative
115.
Number of Reserve Banks in a country is
a)
Two
b)
Three
c)
One
d)
Five
116.
What is monopoly?
a)
Board game
b)
Control of supply of or trade of commodity or service
c)
being rich
d)
Taking control
117.

Which of the following organisations lays stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment?

a)

International Labour Organisation

b)

International Monetary Fund

c)

World Health Organisation

d)

World Trade Organisation

118.

Tax on imports is an example of:

a)

Terms of Trade

b)

Collateral

c)

Trade Barriers

d)

Foreign Trade

119.

Which one of the following is not characteristic of‘ Special Economic Zone’?

a)

They do not have to pay taxes at all

b)

Government has allowed flexibility in labour laws.

c)

They have world class facilities.

d)

Government allows flexibiilty of labour laws

120.

Which country has affected the toy industry in India adversely?

a)

China

b)

USA

c)

Japan

d)

Canada

121.

During the nineteenth century, ________ emerged as a force which brought about sweeping changes in the political and mental world of Europe.

a)

Liberalism

b)

Conservatism

c)

Nationalism

d)

Imperialism

122.

Assertion - The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789.

Reason - Through a Return to monarchy Napolean had, no doubt, destroyed democracy in France, but in the administrative field he had incorported revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rationale and efficient.

a)

Both the Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b)

Both the Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

c)

Assertion is False, Reason is True

d)

Assertion is True, Reason is False

123.

By the 1790s Which four countries were gobbled up by French Armies ?

a)

Poland, Germany, Belgium, Russia

b)

Holland, Belgium, Switzerland, Italy

c)

Italy, Holland, Prussia, Belgium

d)

Austria-Hungary, Holland, Belgium, Switzerland

124.

Which of the following is an incorrect reason for the hostility of the local european populations towards the French Army?

a)

Censorship

b)

Forced Conscription into the French Armies

c)

Increased Taxes

d)

Improvement in Transportation and communication systems

125.

Name the Italian Speaking provinces of The Habsburg Empire?

a)

Lombardy

b)

Savoy Sardina

c)

Kingdom of two Sicilies

d)

Tuscany

126.

Which of the Following Statements about the Regimes set up in 1815 are correct-

1) They were Liberal in nature.

2) They imposed Censorship.

3) Nearly all of them were Monarchies.

4)They gave right to vote to all of the citizens

a)

1 and 4

b)

2 and 4

c)

2 and 3

d)

3 and 4

127.

How many states were there in Confederation created by Napolean Administrative measures in the German Speaking region ?

a)

38

b)

39

c)

35

d)

41

128.

In Which year did English Poet Lord Byron, who organized funds and later went to fight the war of Greek Independence die?

a)

1821

b)

1822

c)

1823

d)

1824

129.

Who was the king of Prussia on 18th May 1848?

a)

Kaiser Wilhelm III

b)

Friedrich Wilhelm IV

c)

Friedrich Wilhelm VI

d)

Kaiser Wilhelm II

130.

Which decade is regarded as the 'years of great economic hardship in Europe'?

a)

The 1820s

b)

The 1840s

c)

The 1830s

d)

The 1850s

131.

In 1845, weavers in _____ had led a revolt against the contractors who supplied them raw materials and gave them orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced their payments.

a)

Siberia

b)

Venetia

c)

Silesia

d)

Tyrol

132.

Who were the large Land owners of Prussia ?

a)

Junkers

b)

Trunkers

c)

Das Volk

d)

volksgeist

133.

Who was the architect of German Unification?

a)

Friedrich Willhelm IV

b)

Kaiser William I

c)

Otto von Bismarck

d)

General von Roon

134.

During the 1830s, who had sought to put together a coherent program for the unitary Italian Republic?

a)

Giuseppe Mazzini

b)

Count di Cavour

c)

Giuseppe Garibaldi

d)

Victor Emmanuel II

135.

Which region of un united Italy is shown on map?

a)

Tuscany

b)

Papal State

c)

Modena

d)

Venetia

136.

Which of the following statements are correct about British unification -

1)The Act of Union (1707) of between England and Scotland resulted in formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain.

2) Scottish culture flourished after this act.

3) The Scottish highlanders were forbidden to speak Gaelic.

4) Ireland willingly joined the United Kingdom.

a)

1 and 4

b)

3 and 1

c)

2 and 3

d)

2 and 4

137.

What does Germania's sword protect ?

a)

Valor

b)

Fatherland

c)

Rhine

d)

State

138.

Which Empire broke into several states in the late 1800s after failed attempts to modernize?

a)

Russian Empire

b)

Habsburg Empire

c)

Ottoman Empire

d)

Dutch Empire

139.

Which was the first Balkan country to gain Independence from Ottoman Empire in 1832?

a)

Albania

b)

Romania

c)

Greece

d)

Montenegro

140.

In which year was this Print prepared?

a)

1859

b)

1848

c)

1815

d)

1871

141.

The first Governor General of India was ______

a)

Robert Clive

b)

Warren Hastings

c)

Lord Wellesley

d)

William Bentinck

142.

The proposal of "Non Cooperation Movement" was passed by Congress

in the meeting held at _____

a)

Nagpur

b)

Kanpur

c)

Lucknow

d)

Amritsar

143.

What does Satyagraha mean ?

a)

Fight against injustice

b)

Complete Independence

c)

Path of truth and non-violence

d)

Quit India

slogan

144.

Why was the "Non Cooperation Movement" called off by Gandhiji ?

a)

as a protest against British Empire

b)

Opposition of Muslim League

c)

due to Chauri Chaura violence

d)

due to British pressure

145.

Who wrote the song "Vande Mataram" ?

a)

Rabindranath Tagore

b)

Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

c)

Abanindranath Tagore

d)

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

146.

When did the India's first freedom fight start or was fought ?

a)

1757

b)

1947

c)

1857

d)

1942

147.

After or from which movement Ras Behari Bose got to establish Azad Hind Sena ?

a)

Home Rule Movement

b)

Civil Disobedience Movement

c)

Non-Cooperation Movement

d)

Quit India Movement

148.

Who is known as Frontier Gandhi ?

a)

Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

b)

Sheikh Abdullah

c)

Liakat Ali Khan

d)

M. A. Jinnah

149.

Match the Following:

a)

i) , ii), iii), iv)

b)

iv), ii), iii), i)

c)

ii), iii), i), ii)

d)

iii), iv), i), ii)

150.

Gandhiji's "Champaran Sayagraha" was related to ____

a)

Mining

b)

Forestry

c)

Indigo Cultivation

d)

Jute Mill

151.

Who founded teh Indian National Army ?

a)

Jawaharlal Nehru

b)

Mahatma Gandhi

c)

Bhagat Singh

d)

Subhash Chandrabose

152.

Gandhiji organized Satyagraba against Rowlatt Act in 1919 because ____

a)

Point 1)

b)

Point 2)

c)

Point 3)

d)

Point 4)

153.

What is the importance of Lahore Session of the Congress in 1929 ?

a)

Point 1)

b)

Point 2)

c)

Point 3)

d)

Point 4)

154.

Why did Ganhiji urge the Congress to join the Khilafat Movement ?

a)

Point 1)

b)

Point 2)

c)

Point 3)

d)

Point 2) and 3)

155.

The first three successful Satyagraha Movement by Gandhiji are _____

a)

Point 1)

b)

Point 2)

c)

Point 3)

d)

Point 4)

156.

Mahatma Gandhi returned from South Africa to India during _____

a)

January 1915

b)

January 1916

c)

January 1913

d)

January 1914

157.

Who was the editor of 'Young India' magazine ?

a)

Jawaharlal

Nehru

b)

Bal Gangadhar Tilak

c)

Gopal Krishna Gokhale

d)

Mahatma

Gandhi

158.

The Congress passed resolution to begin "Non Coopertion Movement"

at the ___ session.

a)

1920 Lahore

b)

1920 Calcutta

c)

1920 Nagpur

d)

1920 Bomay

159.

Author of the book "Anand Math" was ______

a)

Aurobindo Ghosh

b)

Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

c)

Abinandanath Tagore

d)

Rabindranath Tagore

160.

The Swaraj Party was formed by _____

a)

Jinnah & Motilal Nehru

b)

Gandhi & CR Das

c)

CR Das & Motilal Nehru

d)

Motilal Nehru & Radhakrishna

161.

In India, Jhumming, a primitive form of cultivation, is called ‘Bewar’ or ‘Dahiya’ in _____.

a)

Odisha

b)

Chhattisgarh

c)

Andhra Pradesh

d)

Madhya Pradesh

162.

Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to _____.

a)

August

b)

June

c)

May

d)

July

163.

Wheat requires _______ of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season

a)

25 to 50 cm

b)

75 to 100 cm

c)

50 to 75 cm

d)

85 to 130 cm

164.

_________ is the third most important food crop with respect to area and production.

a)

Rice

b)

Jowar

c)

Wheat

d)

Maze

165.

_________ is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world.

a)

Brazil

b)

USA

c)

China

d)

India

166.

Rubber is an important industrial raw material. It is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andaman and Nicobar islands and Garo hills of _______.

a)

Sikkim

b)

West Bengal

c)

Assam

d)

Meghalaya

167.

Rearing of silkworms for the production of silk fibre is known as ________.

a)

Sericulture

b)

Apiculture

c)

Floriculture

d)

None of the above

168.

The Bhoodan-Gramdan movement initiated by _______ is also known as the Bloodless Revolution.

a)

Jawaharlal Nehru

b)

Vinoba Bhave

c)

Mahatma Gandhi

d)

Sardar Patel

169.

Considering the importance of agriculture in India, which of the following were given priority for improving Indian agriculture?

a)

Establishment of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)

b)

Development in the field of meteorology and weather forecast

c)

Establishing agricultural universities, veterinary services and animal breeding centres

d)

All of the above

170.

The major source of fresh water in India is

a)

Rainfall

b)

Groundwater

c)

Atmospheric water

d)

Ocean water

171.

Rooftop rainwater harvesting is a technique to recharge

a)

Ground water

b)

River water

c)

Lake water

d)

Sea water

172.

Bhakra Nangal river valley project is made on the river

a)

Sutlej - Beas

b)

Ravi- Chenab

c)

Ganga

d)

Son

173.

Rana Pratap Sagar dam is located in

a)

odisa

b)

Rajasthan

c)

Uttrakhand

d)

Andhrapradesh

174.

Which of the following is one of the largest artificial lakes of ancient India built in the 11th century

a)

Govindsagar lake

b)

Hauz khas

c)

Bhopal lake

d)

Dal lake

175.

The diversion channels seen in the Western Himalayas are called

a)

Guls and kuls

b)

Khadins

c)

Johads

d)

Recharge pits

176.

Sardar sarovar Dam is situated on the river named

a)

Ganga

b)

Godavari

c)

Mahanadi

d)

Narmada

177.

Bamboo drip irrigation system is prevalent in

a)

Manipur

b)

Meghalaya

c)

Mizoram

d)

Madhya Pradesh

178.

Who among the following proclaimed Dam as the temple of modern India?

a)

Rajendra prasad

b)

Jawaharlal Nehru

c)

Sardar Patel

d)

Mahatma Gandhi

179.

In which year was the Earth Summit held?

a)

1990

b)

1991

c)

1992

d)

1993

180.

"There is enough for everybody's need but not for anybody's greed"

Who said this ?

a)

JL Nehru

b)

AB Vajpayee

c)

MK Gandhi

d)

SL Bahuguna

181.

Which one of the following term is used to identify the old and new alluvial respectively?

a)

Khadas & Tarai

b)

Tarai & Bangar

c)

Bangar & Khadar

d)

Tarai & Dvars

182.

Which one of the following soil is the best for cotton cultivation?

a)

Red soil

b)

Black soil

c)

Laterite soil

d)

Alluvial soil

183.

How much percentage of forest area in the country according to the National Forest Policy?

a)

33%

b)

37%

c)

27%

d)

21%

184.

Coal, iron ore, petroleum, diesel etc. are the examples of

a)

Biotic resources

b)

Abiotic resources

c)

Renewable resources

d)

Non -Renewable resources

185.

On the Basis of ownership resources can be classified into:-

a)

2 Types

b)

3 Types

c)

4 Types

d)

5 Types

186.

Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation are :-

a)

Potential resource

b)

Individual resource

c)

Developed resource

d)

Stock

187.

The first international Earth Summit was held in ______.

a)

Geneva

b)

New York

c)

Japan

d)

Rio De Jenario

188.

Regur soil is the other name of ______.

a)

Black Soil

b)

Alluvial Soil

c)

Laterite Soil

d)

Arid Soil

189.

Why is the red soil is red in colour ?

a)

It is rich in humus .

b)

It is rich in iron compounds .

c)

It is derived from volcanic region .

d)

It is rich in potash .

190.

Indian territorial water extends upto a distance of ____.

a)

12 km

b)

12 nautical miles

c)

200 nautical miles

d)

19.2 miles

191.

Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as :-

a)

Net sown area

b)

Forest cover

c)

Waste land

d)

Gross cropped area

192.

1. what are the features of the resources?

a)

they have Limited stock

b)

they have alternate uses

c)

They satisfy human wants

d)

all above

193.

Wisely Use of resources and saving them for future generations is called

a)

Economic growth

b)

Saving resources

c)

Sustainable development

d)

Wastage of resources

194.

Biotic resources are

a)

Derived from living things

b)

Made by human beings

c)

derived from nonliving things

195.

Which one of the following is a human made resources

a)

medicine to treat cancer

b)

Spring water

c)

Tropical forest

196.

Resources which are found everywhere are known as

a)

Localised resources

b)

actual resources

c)

Ubiquitous resources

197.

The Mundas and the Santhal of Chota Nagpur plateau worship which trees ?

a)

Tamarind

b)

Mahua

c)

Mango

d)

Apple

198.

Which of the following is also referred to as permanent forests ?

a)

Reserved and Protected forests

b)

Reserved and Unclassed forests

c)

Reserved and Open forests

d)

Unclassed and Protected forests

199.

What was the aim of Chipko movement?

a)

human rights

b)

forest conservation

c)

agriculture improvement

d)

political freedom

200.

Which one of the following is not responsible for the decline in India’s biodiversity?

a)

Mining

b)

Hunting and poaching

c)

Forest fire

d)

Afforestation