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Worksheets

57-130

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?

a)

a dedicated VLAN

b)

a management console

c)

a host operating system

2.

In JSON, what is held within square brackets [ ]?

a)

nested values

b)

key/value pairs

c)

an object

d)

an array

3.

What are three components used in the query portion of a typical RESTful API request? (Choose three.)

a)

resources

b)

protocol

c)

parameters

d)

key

e)

format

4.

A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?

a)

top-down

b)

bottom-up

c)

divide-and-conquer

d)

substitution

5.

Which protocol provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality services and is a type of VPN?

a)

MD5

b)

AES

c)

IPsec

d)

ESP

6.

Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

a)

They are best used as distribution layer switches.

b)

New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.

c)

They are modular switches.

d)

They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.

7.

Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies into network programming?

a)

the hypervisor

b)

the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller

c)

the Nexus 9000 switch

d)

the Application Network Profile endpoints

8.

Which two pieces of information should be included in a logical topology diagram of a network? (Choose two.)

a)

OS/IOS version

b)

interface identifier

c)

cable specification

d)

device type

e)

connection type

9.

Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

a)

The NAT pool has been exhausted.

b)

The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.

c)

Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.

d)

The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.

10.

What are two benefits of using SNMP traps? (Choose two.)

a)

They eliminate the need for some periodic polling requests.

b)

They reduce the load on network and agent resources.

c)

They limit access for management systems only.

d)

They can provide statistics on TCP/IP packets that flow through Cisco devices.

e)

They can passively listen for exported NetFlow datagrams.

11.

Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPsec?

a)

IPsec works at the application layer and protects all application data.

b)

IPsec is a framework of standards developed by Cisco that relies on OSI algorithms.

c)

IPsec is a framework of proprietary standards that depend on Cisco specific algorithms.

d)

IPsec works at the transport layer and protects data at the network layer.

e)

IPsec is a framework of open standards that relies on existing algorithms.

12.

In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)

a)

connect users to the network

b)

provide a high-speed network backbone

c)

connect remote networks

d)

provide Power over Ethernet to devices

e)

provide data traffic security

13.

Which two statements describe the use of asymmetric algorithms? (Choose two.)

a)

Public and private keys may be used interchangeably.

b)

If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to decrypt the data.

c)

If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to decrypt the data.

d)

If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used to decrypt the data.

e)

If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used to decrypt the data.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has deployed QoS and has configured the network to mark traffic on the VoIP phones as well as the Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches. Where should initial marking occur to establish the trust boundary?

a)

Trust Boundary 4

b)

Trust Boundary 3

c)

Trust Boundary 1

d)

Trust Boundary 2

15.

What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

a)

reduced costs

b)

decreased number of critical points of failure

c)

increased flexibility

d)

increased bandwidth availability

e)

increased network management options

16.

What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.)

a)

to scan for accessibility

b)

to retrieve and modify data

c)

to gather information about the network and devices

d)

to prevent other users from accessing the system

e)

to escalate access privileges

17.

A group of users on the same network are all complaining about their computers running slowly. After investigating, the technician determines that these computers are part of a zombie network. Which type of malware is used to control these computers?

a)

botnet

b)

spyware

c)

virus

d)

rootkit

18.

An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 192.31.7.45 eq dns . If a packet with a source address of 10.1.1.201, a destination address of 192.31.7.45, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?

a)

permitted

b)

denied

19.

Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?

a)

flash memory

b)

NVRAM?

c)

RAM

d)

ROM

e)

a TFTP server?

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for network automation applications?

a)

XML

b)

YAML

c)

HTML

d)

JSON

21.

What QoS step must occur before packets can be marked?

a)

classifying

b)

shaping

c)

queuing

d)

policing

22.

What is the main function of a hypervisor?

a)

It is used to create and manage multiple VM instances on a host machine.

b)

It is a device that filters and checks security credentials.

c)

It is a device that synchronizes a group of sensors.

d)

It is software used to coordinate and prepare data for analysis.

e)

It is used by ISPs to monitor cloud computing resources.

23.

A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended?

a)

Frame Relay

b)

Ethernet WAN

c)

VSAT

d)

ISDN

24.

Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?

a)

traffic shaping

b)

weighted random early detection

c)

classification and marking

d)

traffic policing

25.

An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.3.8 eq dns . If a packet with a source address of 10.1.3.8, a destination address of 10.10.3.8, and a protocol of 53 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?

a)

denied

b)

permitted

26.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

a)

defines which addresses are allowed into the router

b)

defines which addresses can be translated

c)

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

d)

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

27.

If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?

a)

12

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

e)

6

28.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator first configured an extended ACL as shown by the output of the show access-lists command. The administrator then edited this access-list by issuing the commands below. Which two conclusions can be drawn from this new configuration?​ (Choose two.)

a)

TFTP packets will be permitted.

b)

Ping packets will be permitted.

c)

Telnet packets will be permitted.

d)

SSH packets will be permitted.

e)

All TCP and UDP packets will be denied.

29.

Which troubleshooting approach is more appropriate for a seasoned network administrator rather than a less-experienced network administrator?

a)

a less-structured approach based on an educated guess

b)

an approach comparing working and nonworking components to spot significant differences

c)

a structured approach starting with the physical layer and moving up through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem is identified

d)

an approach that starts with the end-user applications and moves down through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem has been identified

30.

Refer to the exhibit. Many employees are wasting company time accessing social media on their work computers. The company wants to stop this access. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?

a)

extended ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet

b)

standard ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet

c)

standard ACL outbound on R2 S0/0/0

d)

extended ACLs inbound on R1 G0/0 and G0/1

31.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

a)

The inside and outside NAT interlaces have been configured backwards

b)

The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP

c)

The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.

d)

The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.

32.

Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines voice, video, and data communications?

a)

Data communications must be given the first priority.

b)

Voice and video communications are more sensitive to latency.

c)

Legacy equipment is unable to transmit voice and video without QoS.

d)

Data communications are sensitive to jitter.

33.

Which statement describes a VPN?

a)

VPNs use logical connections to create public networks through the Internet.

b)

VPNs use open source virtualization software to create the tunnel through the Internet.

c)

VPNs use dedicated physical connections to transfer data between remote users.

d)

VPNs use virtual connections to create a private network through a public network.

34.

In which OSPF state is the DR/BDR election conducted?

a)

ExStart

b)

Init

c)

Two-Way

d)

Exchange

35.

Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?

a)

Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN

b)

Frame Relay

c)

remote access VPN using IPsec

d)

Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL

e)

site-to-site VPN

36.

What is the final operational state that will form between an OSPF DR and a DROTHER once the routers reach convergence?

a)

loading

b)

established

c)

full

d)

two-way

37.

Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?

a)

Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.

b)

Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.

c)

Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

d)

Router R3 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

38.

Which type of server would be used to keep a historical record of messages from monitored network devices?

a)

DNS

b)

print

c)

DHCP

d)

syslog

e)

authentication

39.

When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve network performance for real-time traffic? (Choose two.)

a)

packet addressing

b)

delay

c)

jitter

d)

packet routing

e)

link speed

40.

In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?

a)

Determine ownership.

b)

Determine the symptoms.

c)

Narrow the scope.

d)

Document the symptoms.

e)

Gather information.

41.

What protocol sends periodic advertisements between connected Cisco devices in order to learn device name, IOS version, and the number and type of interfaces?

a)

CDP

b)

SNMP

c)

NTP

d)

LLDP

42.

An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?

a)

0.0.0.127

b)

0.0.0.31

c)

0.0.3.255

d)

0.0.0.63

43.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5: access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5 access-list 100 permit ip any any Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources?

a)

inbound on router A Fa0/0

b)

outbound on router B Fa0/0

c)

outbound on router A Fa0/1

d)

inbound on router B Fa0/1

44.

Which type of OSPFv2 packet is used to forward OSPF link change information?

a)

link-state acknowledgment

b)

link-state update

c)

hello

d)

database description

45.

What protocol synchronizes with a private master clock or with a publicly available server on the internet?

a)

MPLS

b)

CBWFQ

c)

TFTP

d)

NTP

46.

Which type of VPN allows multicast and broadcast traffic over a secure site-to-site VPN?

a)

dynamic multipoint VPN

b)

SSL VPN

c)

IPsec virtual tunnel interface

d)

GRE over IPsec

47.

An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 10.0.0.0/16, 10.1.0.0/16, and 10.2.0.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 10.1.0.0 network to neighbors?

a)

router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

b)

router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0

c)

router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

d)

router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

48.

Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to configure router A for OSPF?

a)

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0

b)

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0

c)

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

49.

Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to configure router A for OSPF?

a)

router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.0 area 0

b)

router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192

c)

router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.0

d)

network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

e)

network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

50.

An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?

a)

0.0.7.255

b)

0.0.1.255

c)

0.0.3.255

d)

0.0.15.255

51.

How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

a)

improvement of business practices

b)

supply of consistent air flow

c)

support of live migration

d)

guarantee of power

52.

How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

a)

Less energy is consumed.

b)

Server provisioning is faster.

c)

Hardware at the recovery site does not have to be identical to production equipment.

d)

Power is always provided.

53.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?

a)

S4 and PC_2

b)

PC_3 and AP_2

c)

AP_2 and AP_1

d)

PC_3 and PC_2

e)

S1 and S4

54.

Which set of access control entries would allow all users on the 192.168.10.0/24 network to access a web server that is located at 172.17.80.1, but would not allow them to use Telnet?

a)

access-list 103 permit tcp host 192.168.10.1 eq 80

b)

access-list 103 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 80

c)

access-list 103 deny tcp host 192.168.10.0 any eq 23

d)

access-list 103 deny tcp ​192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23

e)

access-list 103 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.17.80.1 eq 80

55.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add an ACE to the TRAFFIC-CONTROL ACL that will deny IP traffic from the subnet 172.23.16.0/20. Which ACE will meet this requirement?

a)

5 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255

b)

5 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.255.255

c)

15 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255

d)

30 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255

56.

Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router building a link-state database based on received LSAs?

a)

executing the SPF algorithm

b)

building the topology table

c)

selecting the router ID

d)

declaring a neighbor to be inaccessible

57.

What protocol uses agents, that reside on managed devices, to collect and store information about the device and its operation?

a)

SYSLOG

b)

TFTP

c)

CBWFQ

d)

SNMP

58.

An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 10.27.27.0 255.255.255.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?

a)

0.0.0.63

b)

0.0.0.255

c)

0.0.0.31

d)

0.0.0.15

59.

When will an OSPF-enabled router transition from the Down state to the Init state?

a)

when an OSPF-enabled interface becomes active

b)

as soon as the router starts

c)

when the router receives a hello packet from a neighbor router

d)

as soon as the DR/BDR election process is complete

60.

What type of traffic is described as having a high volume of data per packet?

a)

data

b)

video

c)

voice

61.

What type of traffic is described as having a high volume of data per packet?

a)

data

b)

video

c)

voice

62.

What protocol is a vendor-neutral Layer 2 protocol that advertises the identity and capabilities of the host device to other connected network devices?

a)

LLDP

b)

NTP

c)

TFTP

d)

SNMP

63.

Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router running an algorithm to determine the best path to each destination?

a)

building the topology table

b)

selecting the router ID

c)

declaring a neighbor to be inaccessible

d)

executing the SPF algorithm

64.

Refer to the exhibit. Which conclusion can be drawn from this OSPF multiaccess network?

a)

If the DR stops producing Hello packets, a BDR will be elected, and then it promotes itself to assume the role of DR.

b)

With an election of the DR, the number of adjacencies is reduced from 6 to 3.

c)

When a DR is elected all other non-DR routers become DROTHER.

d)

All DROTHER routers will send LSAs to the DR and BDR to multicast 224.0.0.5.

65.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has an IP address of 192.168.11.10 and needs access to manage R1. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?

a)

extended ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet

b)

standard ACL inbound on R1 vty lines

c)

extended ACLs inbound on R1 G0/0 and G0/1

d)

extended ACL outbound on R2 S0/0/1

66.

Which type of VPN connects using the Transport Layer Security (TLS) feature?

a)

SSL VPN

b)

IPsec virtual tunnel interface

c)

GRE over IPsec

d)

dynamic multipoint VPN

67.

Which group of APIs are used by an SDN controller to communicate with various applications?

a)

eastbound APIs

b)

westbound APIs

c)

northbound APIs

d)

southbound APIs

68.

A company has consolidated a number of servers and it is looking for a program or firmware to create and control virtual machines which have access to all the hardware of the consolidated servers. What service or technology would support this requirement?

a)

Cisco ACI

b)

software defined networking

c)

Type-1 hypervisor

d)

APIC-EM

69.

What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to identify inside local addresses that are to be translated?

a)

ip nat inside source list 24 interface serial 0/1/0 overload

b)

ip nat inside source list 14 pool POOL-STAT overload

c)

access-list 10 permit 172.19.89.0 0.0.0.255

d)

ip nat inside source list ACCTNG pool POOL-STAT

70.

Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting, what service or technology would support requirement?

a)

Cloud services

b)

Data center

c)

APIC-EM

d)

Cisco ACI

71.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to back up the current running configuration of the router to a USB drive, and enters the command copy usbflash0:/R1-config running-config on the router command line. After removing the USB drive and connecting it to a PC, the administrator discovers that the running configuration was not properly backed up to the R1-config file. What is the problem?

a)

The file already exists on the USB drive and cannot be overwritten.

b)

The drive was not properly formatted with the FAT16 file system.

c)

There is no space left on the USB drive.

d)

The USB drive is not recognized by the router.

e)

The command that the administrator used was incorrect.

72.

Which three types of VPNs are examples of enterprise-managed site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)

a)

Layer 3 MPLS VPN

b)

GRE over IPsec VPN

c)

clientless SSL VPN

d)

Cisco Dynamic Multipoint VPN

e)

IPsec VPN

73.

Refer to the exhibit. Employees on 192.168.11.0/24 work on critically sensitive information and are not allowed access off their network. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?

a)

standard ACL inbound on R1 vty lines

b)

extended ACL inbound on R1 G0/0

c)

standard ACL inbound on R1 G0/1

d)

extended ACL inbound on R3 S0/0/1

74.

In an OSPF network which two statements describe the link-state database (LSDB)? (Choose two.)

a)

It can be viewed by using the show ip ospf database command.

b)

A neighbor table is created based on the LSDB.

c)

It contains a list of only the best routes to a particular network.

d)

It contains a list of all neighbor routers to which a router has established bidirectional communication.

e)

All routers within an area have an identical link-state database.