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374-452 (78 pt. 1) CISCO CCNA 1 exam preparation

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

a)

Switches

b)

Hosts

c)

Servers

d)

Routers

2.

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

a)

spyware

b)

identity theft

c)

DoS attack

d)

zero-day attack

3.

Which type of network infrastructure connects devices in a limited geographic area, such as a school or office building?

a)

WAN

b)

MAN

c)

Extranet

d)

VPN

e)

LAN

4.

Which characteristic of a scalable network is MOST important for supporting growth?

a)

 

Can expand without major redesign

b)

Uses only wireless media

c)

Requires constant manual reconfiguration

d)

Prevents use of IPv6

e)

Has a fixed addressing scheme

5.

Which type of network covers a large geographical area, often a country or continent?

a)

WAN

b)

SAN

c)

MAN

d)

LAN

e)

PAN

6.

What is an ISP?

a)

It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

b)

It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

c)

It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

d)

It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

7.

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

a)

cloud computing

b)

video conferencing

c)

bring your own device

d)

online collaboration

8.

An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company network?

a)

IPS

b)

VPN

c)

SSH

d)

ACL

e)

BYOD

9.

Which of the following techniques use native IPv6 connectivity?

a)

All of the above

b)

Dual stack

c)

Translation

d)

Tunneling

10.

What are the two methods a device can use to generate its own IPv6 interface ID?

a)

SLAAC

b)

Stateless DHCPv6

c)

Randomly generated

d)

EUI-64

e)

Stateful DHCPv6

11.

A technician is troubleshooting a network where it is suspected that a defective node in the network path is causing packets to be dropped. The technician only has the IP address of the end point device and does not have any details of the intermediate devices. What command can the technician use to identify the faulty node?

a)

Tracert

b)

Ping

c)

Ipconfig/flushdns

d)

Ipconfig/displaydns

12.

Which of the following is an example of a Layer 7 protocol?

a)

IP

b)

HTTP

c)

TCP

d)

Ethernet

e)

ARP

13.

What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?

a)

local and remote delivery

b)

local delivery

c)

remote delivery using routers

d)

remote delivery

14.

Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

a)

TCP/IP

b)

OSI

c)

IANA

d)

IEEE

e)

IETF

15.

Which protocol provides connection-oriented communication with guaranteed delivery?

a)

IP

b)

ARP

c)

ICMP

d)

UDP

e)

TCP

16.

Which OSI layer provides reliable end-to-end delivery using acknowledgments and retransmissions?

a)

Transport

b)

Data Link

c)

Physical

d)

Presentation

e)

Session

17.

What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

a)

access control

b)

decoding

c)

flow control

d)

encapsulation

18.

Which term describes the process of breaking down data into smaller pieces for transmission?

a)

Translation

b)

Segmentation

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Synchronization

e)

Multiplexing

19.

Which two components are typically found in a fiber-optic link? (Choose two.)

a)

RJ-45 connector

b)

Electrical amplifier

c)

Photo detector

d)

Light source

e)

Copper conductor

20.

A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new one room office that is occupied by the park ranger. The office is located at the highest part of the national park. After network testing is complete, the technicians report that the wireless LAN signal is occasionally affected by some type of interference. What is a possible cause of the signal distortion? (Choose two.)

a)

the elevated location where the wireless LAN was installed

b)

the cellular phones that are used by the employees

c)

the number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN

d)

the microwave oven

e)

the large number of trees that surround the office

21.

Given the binary address of 11000000.10101000.01000001.00100110, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

a)

192.168.64.36

b)

194.168.67.36

c)

192.168.65.38

d)

192.165.67.38

e)

194.165.65.36

22.

Which organization defines standards for the network access layer (i.e., the OSI physical and data link layers)?

a)

IETF

b)

IANA

c)

IEEE

d)

Cisco

23.

Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

a)

fragment-free switching

b)

fast-forward switching

c)

cut-through switching

d)

store-and-forward switching

24.

What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet?

a)

Protocol

b)

Version

c)

Identification

d)

Differentiated Services

25.

When transporting data from real-time applications, such as streaming audio and video, which field in the IPv6 header can be used to inform the routers and switches to maintain the same path for the packets in the same conversation?

a)

Traffic Class

b)

Next Header

c)

Differentiated Services

d)

Flow Label

26.

What property of ARP forces all Ethernet NICs to process an ARP request?

a)

The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.

b)

The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.

c)

The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.

d)

ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.

27.

What property of ARP allows MAC addresses of frequently used servers to be fixed in the ARP table?

a)

A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be entered manually into an ARP table.

b)

The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.

c)

The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.

d)

The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the switch.

28.

From the given below, which is not a responsibility of Transport Layer?

a)

Identifying the Applications

b)

Tracking Individual Conversations

c)

Establishing a permanent communication session

d)

Segmenting Data and Reassembling Segments

29.

According to the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA), how many types of ports exists?

a)

5

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

30.

What is the name of process when multiple applications can use the network at the same time?

a)

Multiconversation

b)

Conversation Multitasking

c)

Conversation Multiplication

d)

Conversation Multiplexing

31.

What kind of control flag in a segment header must be sent to end a TCP session?

a)

FINAL

b)

STOP

c)

FIN

d)

STP

32.

What type of information is contained in a DNS MX record?

a)

the domain name mapped to mail exchange servers

b)

the IP address of an authoritative name server

c)

the FQDN of the alias used to identify a service

d)

the IP address for an FQDN entry

33.

Which application layer protocol is used to provide file-sharing and print services to Microsoft applications?

a)

SMTP

b)

HTTP

c)

SMB

d)

DHCP

34.

What do the client/server and peer-to-peer network models have in common?

a)

Both models are used only in the wired network environment.

b)

Both models have dedicated servers.

c)

Both models support devices in server and client roles.

d)

Both models require the use of TCP/IP-based protocols.

35.

When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

a)

banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$

b)

exec-timeout 30

c)

service password-encryption

d)

login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60

36.

What is one of the most effective security tools available for protecting users from external threats?

a)

router that run AAA services

b)

patch servers

c)

password encryption techniques

d)

firewalls

37.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor makes illegal online purchases using stolen credit information?

a)

data loss or manipulation

b)

disruption of service

c)

information theft

d)

identify theft

38.

Which attack involves a compromise of data that occurs between two end points?

a)

denial-of-service

b)

extraction of security parameters

c)

man-in-the-middle attack

d)

username enumeration

39.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor prevents legal users from accessing data services?

a)

disruption of service

b)

data loss or manipulation

c)

information theft

d)

identify theft

40.

What is the difference between a virus and a worm?

a)

Worms require a host file but viruses do not.

b)

Viruses hide in legitimate programs but worms do not.

c)

Worms self-replicate but viruses do not.

d)

Viruses self-replicate but worms do not.

41.

Which type of attack involves an adversary attempting to gather information about a network to identify vulnerabilities?

a)

DoS

b)

dictionary

c)

reconnaissance

d)

man-in-the-middle

42.

What is the purpose of a small company using a protocol analyzer utility to capture network traffic on the network segments where the company is considering a network upgrade?

a)

to document and analyze network traffic requirements on each network segment

b)

to capture the Internet connection bandwidth requirement

c)

to identify the source and destination of local network traffic

d)

to establish a baseline for security analysis after the network is upgraded

43.

Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?

a)

 

 

To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.

b)

CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface .

c)

Because it runs at the data link layer , the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.

d)

 

 

The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity .

44.

Which statement correctly relates to a small network?

a)

Small networks are complex.

b)

Small networks require an IT department to maintain.

c)

The majority of businesses are small.

45.

A network technician issues the C:\> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command on a Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option?

a)

It limits the trace to only 6 hops.

b)

It sends 6 probes within each TTL time period.

c)

It sets a 6 milliseconds timeout for each replay.

d)

It forces the trace to use IPv6.

46.

A technician is troubleshooting a network problem and has just established a theory of probable causes. What would be the next step in the troubleshooting process?

a)

Identify the problem.

b)

Verify solution and implement preventive measures.

c)

Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

d)

Test the theory to determine cause.

e)

Establish a plan of action and implement the solution.

47.

Which type of password takes precedence if both enable password and enable secret are set?

a)

console password

b)

enable secret

c)

VTY password

d)

enable password

e)

service password-encryption

48.

Which two modes must you enter before configuring a switch hostname? (Choose two.)

a)

User EXEC

b)

Privileged EXEC

c)

Global Configuration

d)

ROMMON

e)

Interface Configuration

49.

Which command erases the startup configuration on a switch?

a)

delete config

b)

erase startup-config

c)

erase running-config

d)

reset switch-config

e)

clear running

50.

Which command assigns an IP address to a switch SVI (VLAN 1 interface)?

a)

vlan ip set 192.168.1.2

b)

interface vlan ip 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

c)

assign ip 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

d)

set ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

e)

ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

51.

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

a)

extranet

b)

extendednet

c)

intranet

d)

Internet

52.

Which of the following is NOT typically a benefit of a converged network?

a)

Unified communication

b)

Simplified management

c)

Separate physical cabling for each traffic type

d)

Efficient use of bandwidth

e)

Reduced infrastructure costs

53.

Which feature of a fault-tolerant network ensures minimal interruption when a device fails?

a)

Redundant paths and devices

b)

Single point of failure

c)

VLAN segmentation

d)

Load balancing

e)

Encrypted data

54.

Which network feature is designed to protect data confidentiality during transmission?

a)

NAT

b)

DNS

c)

Encryption

d)

ACL

e)

VLAN tagging

55.

What is the most important motivating factor for moving to IPv6?

a)

IPv6 addresses that are easier to work with

b)

Better performance with IPv6

c)

Depletion of IPv4 addresses

d)

Better security with IPv6

56.

Which symbol will be displayed to indicate that an ICMP message of unreachability was received?

a)

.

b)

!

c)

U

d)

$

57.

Which protocol is used to resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses?

a)

DNS

b)

ARP

c)

ICMP

d)

NTP

e)

DHCP

58.

What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

a)

It assists in protocol design.

b)

It prevents designers from creating their own model.

c)

It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.

d)

It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.

e)

It speeds up packet delivery.

59.

Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

a)

BOOTP

b)

PPP

c)

ICMP

d)

POP

e)

IP

60.

Which layer of the OSI model establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between applications?

a)

Application

b)

Session

c)

Presentation

d)

Transport

e)

Network

61.

Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for determining the best path through a network?

a)

Data Link

b)

Application

c)

Network Access

d)

Internet

e)

Transport

62.

Which of the following is a benefit of fiber-optic cabling over copper cabling?

a)

Supports only short distances

b)

Cheaper to install

c)

Easier to terminate

d)

Resistant to electromagnetic interference (EMI)

e)

More flexible for patch panels

63.

Which cable type is most commonly used for Ethernet LAN connections?

a)

Coaxial

b)

Shielded twisted-pair (STP)

c)

Serial

d)

Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)

e)

Fiber optic

64.

Which characteristic describes crosstalk?

a)

It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.

b)

It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.

c)

It is able to be installed around sharp bends.

d)

It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.

65.

Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

a)

wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding

b)

avoiding sharp bends during installation

c)

requiring proper grounding connections

d)

designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference

e)

twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

66.

Which statement best describes the purpose of the Physical layer of the OSI model?

a)

It handles logical addressing.

b)

It transmits raw bits across the physical medium.

c)

It provides reliable end-to-end delivery.

d)

It defines IP addressing and routing.

e)

It formats data for applications.

67.

What are three ways that media access control is used in networking? (Choose three.)

a)

802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.

b)

Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.

c)

Media access control provides placement of data frames onto the media

d)

Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.

e)

Networks with controlled access have reduced performance due to data collisions.

68.

Which two fields or features does Ethernet examine to determine if a received frame is passed to the data link layer or discarded by the NIC? (Choose two.)

a)

minimum frame size

b)

Frame Check Sequence

c)

CEF

d)

source MAC address

e)

auto-MDIX

69.

How do hosts ensure that their packets are directed to the correct network destination?

a)

They search in their own local routing table for a route to the network destination address and pass this information to the default gateway.

b)

They have to keep their own local routing table that contains a route to the loopback interface, a local network route, and a remote default route.

c)

They send a query packet to the default gateway asking for the best route.

d)

They always direct their packets to the default gateway, which will be responsible for the packet delivery.

70.

What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?

a)

efficient packet handling

b)

smaller-sized header

c)

little requirement for processing checksums

d)

smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses

71.

What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?

a)

reliable end-to-end delivery

b)

media dependent

c)

user data segmentation

d)

connectionless

72.

What property of ARP causes a reply only to the source sending an ARP request?

a)

ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.

b)

The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.

c)

The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.

d)

The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.

73.

Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)

a)

The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.

b)

The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.

c)

The source address in the frame is a multicast address.

d)

The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.

e)

The destination address is unknown to the switch.

74.

What is a socket?

a)

The combination of the source IP address and the destination IP address

b)

The combination of the destination IP address and the source port number

c)

The combination of the source IP address and the destination port number

d)

The combination of the source IP address and the source port number

75.

Ensuring that each segment that the source sends arrives at the destination:

a)

Conversation Multiplexing

b)

Flow Control

c)

Reliable Delivery

d)

Best Effort Delivery

76.

What is ISN?

a)

Internal Security Number

b)

Initial Session Number

c)

Internal Sequence Number

d)

Initial Sequence Number

77.

Why is DHCP preferred for use on large networks?

a)

Hosts on large networks require more IP addressing configuration settings than hosts on small networks.

b)

It is a more efficient way to manage IP addresses than static address assignment.

c)

Large networks send more requests for domain to IP address resolution than do smaller networks.

d)

DHCP uses a reliable transport layer protocol.

e)

It prevents sharing of files that are copyrighted.

78.

What part of the URL, [http://www.cisco.com/index.html](http://www.cisco.com/index.html), represents the top-level DNS domain?

a)

index

b)

http

c)

.com

d)

www