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7th Grade Winter Break Review

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 2hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is another movement characteristic of terrestrial planets?

a)

Rotate on their axes

b)

Spin around the Moon

c)

Move in a straight line

d)

Stay still

2.

What is one of the movements of terrestrial planets?

a)

Orbit the Moon

b)

Orbit the Sun

c)

Stay stationary

d)

Move randomly

3.

What is the location of terrestrial planets in the solar system?

a)

Farthest from the Sun

b)

Closest to the Sun

c)

In the asteroid belt

d)

Beyond Neptune

4.

Which planets are considered terrestrial planets?

a)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune

b)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars

c)

Pluto, Eris, Ceres, and Makemake

d)

Venus, Jupiter, Saturn, and Neptune

5.

How do terrestrial planets compare in size and mass to other planets?

a)

Larger and more massive

b)

Smaller and less massive

c)

Same size and mass

d)

Larger but less massive

6.

Which planets are considered terrestrial planets?

a)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

b)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

c)

Pluto, Eris, Haumea, Makemake

d)

Earth, Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune

7.

Which of the following is a characteristic of terrestrial planets?

a)

Composed of gas

b)

Thick atmospheres

c)

Composed of rock

d)

Larger, more massive planets

8.

What is a common origin for many meteors?

a)

The Kuiper Belt

b)

The Oort Cloud

c)

The asteroid belt

d)

The Sun

9.

What type of bodies does the asteroid belt contain?

a)

Gaseous bodies

b)

Icy bodies

c)

Small, rocky bodies

d)

Liquid bodies

10.

What is the largest object in the asteroid belt?

a)

Vesta

b)

Pallas

c)

Ceres

d)

Hygiea

11.

Where is the asteroid belt located?

a)

Between Earth and Mars

b)

Between Mars and Jupiter

c)

Between Jupiter and Saturn

d)

Between Venus and Earth

12.

Which planets are considered small and rocky in the inner solar system?

a)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars

b)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune

c)

Earth, Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn

d)

Venus, Earth, Neptune, and Pluto

13.

What are the objects of the inner solar system?

a)

The Sun, Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars

b)

The Sun, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune

c)

The Sun, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn

d)

The Sun, Venus, Earth, Neptune, and Pluto

14.

An AU is the distance from the sun to which planet?

a)

Earth

b)

Mars

c)

Jupiter

d)

Venus

15.

What is the largest object in the solar system?

a)

The Sun

b)

Earth

c)

A star

d)

Smallest

16.

What do all planets in the solar system do around the sun?

a)

Orbit

b)

Gravity

c)

Largest

d)

A star

17.

What keeps objects orbiting in the solar system?

a)

Gravity

b)

Orbit

c)

Earth

d)

Smallest

18.

What is the average distance of one astronomical unit (AU)?

a)

150,000 km

b)

1,500,000 km

c)

150,000,000 km

d)

1,500,000,000 km

19.

What is the astronomical unit (AU) used for?

a)

Measuring time within the solar system

b)

Measuring distance within the solar system

c)

Measuring temperature within the solar system

d)

Measuring mass within the solar system

20.

What type of energy does the Sun supply that is essential for life on Earth?

a)

Nuclear energy

b)

Electrical energy

c)

Light and heat

d)

Sound energy

21.

What does the Sun's gravity do?

a)

It pushes objects away from the solar system.

b)

It keeps all objects in the solar system in orbit.

c)

It has no effect on the solar system.

d)

It only affects the Earth.

22.

What is the Sun's role in the solar system?

a)

It is a planet that orbits Earth.

b)

It is an average-sized star at the center of the solar system.

c)

It is a moon that orbits Mars.

d)

It is a comet passing through the solar system.

23.

Which of the following is NOT part of our solar system?

a)

Comets

b)

Dwarf planets

c)

Black holes

d)

Asteroids

24.

How many planets are in our solar system?

a)

Seven

b)

Eight

c)

Nine

d)

Ten

25.

What does the Latin word "sol" mean?

a)

Moon

b)

Star

c)

Sun

d)

Planet

26.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the Sun? Select ALL that apply.

a)

The Sun is a medium-sized star located at the center of the solar system.

b)

The Sun is composed of helium and hydrogen.

c)

The Sun moves through space, orbiting the center of the Milky Way galaxy.

d)

The Sun's gravity is crucial for keeping the planets in their orbits.

e)

The Sun is stationary and does not move relative to other stars in the galaxy.

27.

What is an asteroid?

a)

A large planet with a thick atmosphere

b)

A small rocky body orbiting the Sun, mostly found between Mars and Jupiter

c)

A type of star in the solar system

d)

A gaseous cloud surrounding the Earth

28.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a comet?

a)

It is a rocky body orbiting between Mars and Jupiter

b)

It is a small, icy body that develops a tail when near the Sun

c)

It is a large planet with rings

d)

It is a star at the center of the solar system

29.

What is the Kuiper belt?

a)

A region of space beyond Neptune filled with icy bodies

b)

A type of asteroid found between Mars and Jupiter

c)

A large planet in the outer solar system

d)

A cloud of gas surrounding the Sun

30.

Proximity to the Sun means...

a)

A proximity warning is given to an astronaut when the oxygen level in the spacesuit drops below 10 pounds/square inch of atmosphere

b)

The intensity of the Sun's radiation on Earth

c)

How close an object in our solar system is to the Sun

d)

none of theses

31.

Why is the Sun important to life on Earth?

a)

The Sun's radiant energy is converted to food by plants in a process called photosynthesis

b)

The Sun's radiant energy is converted into liquid water

c)

Radiant energy from the Sun is absorbed and released in a delicate balance for life to exist.

d)

none of these

32.

Why is liquid water important for life to exist?

a)

Other life forms get thirsty just like humans

b)

Liquid water is important for rain to fall and wash the pollution from the surface of the planet

c)

none of these

d)

delivery mechanism, dissolving essential nutrients and delivering them to cells.

33.

The atmosphere is important to life on Earth because...

a)

The atmosphere keeps thunderstorms from becoming too large and causing catastrophic damage to Earth

b)

blocks the Sun's dangerous radiation and traps heat making Earth a comfortable temperature

c)

The atmosphere traps cold air just above the surface and without this cold air we would not receive the rain that we needed.

d)

none of these

34.

An Astrobiologist is a person who study's...

a)

the possibility of life beyond Earth

b)

the possibility of life on asteroids

c)

biology on Earth only

d)

none of these

35.

What three things do Astrobiologists look for when searching for life beyond Earth?

a)

water vapor, and food

b)

food, water, and shelter

c)

liquid water, an oxygen containing atmosphere, and an energy source

d)

none of these

36.

A layer of gases that surround a planet

a)

atmosphere

b)

Corona Borealis

c)

protective gas zone

d)

none of these

37.

What is the breakdown of gases in Earth's atmosphere?

a)

79% Oxygen, 20 % Nitrogen, and 1% other gases

b)

79% Nitrogen, 20% Oxygen, and 1% other gases

c)

100% Oxygen

d)

79% Oxygen, 20% Carbon Dioxide, and 1% water vapor

38.

The Ozone Layer protects Earth from what?

a)

meteors

b)

asteroids

c)

viruses and bacteria from Space

d)

radiation from the Sun

39.

Even though the moon is in the habitable zone, why is there no life there?

a)

no atmosphere

b)

No water

c)

Exposed to solar radiation

d)

All of these are correct

40.
What is the function of the ozone layer?
a)
to allow UV rays to get to Earth
b)
to block UV rays from getting to Earth
c)
To keep oxygen in
d)
to allow meteors to get to Earth
41.

If mass ____________ the force of gravity increases. If distance _____________ the force of gravity will decrease.

a)

increases, decreases

b)

decreases, increases

c)

stops, increases

d)

none of these

42.

An astrobiologist has found a two new planets orbiting a star similar to our own Sun. Planet A is closer than Planet B. Which planet will be affected the least by the gravitational pull of the star?

a)

Planet B

b)

Planet A

c)

neither planet will be affected by the gravitational pull of the star

d)

the gravitational pull will not be noticeable

43.

True or False? The closer an object is to another the stronger the gravitational force.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Not enough information to answer the question

44.

The gravity on the outer planets of our solar system is not as strong as the inner planets. Why is this?

a)

the inner planets are smaller and therefore have less gravity than the larger outer planets

b)

gravity is the same on all planets in the solar system regardless of their size and distance from the Sun

c)

none of these

d)

the outer planets are further away and therefore gravity is weaker than on the inner planets

45.

The use of the Moon's gravity to propel a spacecraft from the Moon's orbit back toward Earth is called what?

a)

free gravity effect

b)

slingshot effect

c)

shotgun effect

d)

none of these

46.

What is the "Goldilocks Zone"?

a)

The warm zone located around a planet that provides a blanket like effect

b)

The zone that life has a hard time existing and will likely never exist

c)

The habitable zone around a star where the temperature is just right to support life.

d)

none of these

47.

What causes all of the planets in the solar system to orbit around the Sun?

a)

the Sun's magnetic field pulls on all of the planets due to the metal core of each planet

b)

the massive size and mass of the Sun creates an extremely strong gravitation force that holds all planets in orbit

c)

the planets orbit the Sun due to its very fast rotational speed causing the graviton effect

d)

none of these

48.

A basketball and a volleyball are roughly the same size but have different mass. In Science class, students conducted an experiment of what would happen if both were dropped from the roof of the school. What do you think the students saw?

a)

both balls hit the ground at the same time due to the force of gravity being equal on both balls

b)

the basketball hit slightly before the volleyball because it has a little more mass than the volleyball

c)

the volleyball hit first because it is lighter and therefore accelerates faster than the basketball with more mass

d)

none of these

49.

What determines the gravitational strength of an object?

a)

Mass and weight

b)

Mass and distance

c)

Distance and density

d)

Density and mass

50.

What force attracts a body toward the center of another physical body having mass?

a)

gravitropism

b)

gravity

c)

astrobiology

d)

none of these

51.
The number to the lower side of an element is a 
a)
Subscript
b)
Superscript
c)
Coefficient
d)
Charge
52.
The coefficient in  3H2O is
a)
6
b)
2
c)
3
d)
5
53.

Is this an example of a physical or chemical change?

a)

physical

b)

change

54.

Is this an example of a physical or chemical change?

a)

physical

b)

chemical

55.

Is this an example of a physical or chemical change?

a)

physical

b)

chemical

56.

Is this an example of a physical or chemical change?

a)

physical

b)

chemical

57.

A chemical change

a)

changes the physical properties of an object, but does not create a new substance.

b)

creates a new substance and cannot be undone.

58.

Choose the best description below for the image

a)

physical change

b)

chemical change

59.

Match the following

a)

Physical change

(Shape)

1.

Cutting paper

b)

Physical change

(solubility)

2.

Dissolving

Kool-Aid

c)

Chemical Change

(Flammability)

3.

Lighting a match

d)

Chemical Change

4.

Creating a new substance

e)

Both a Physical & Chemical change

5.

Bubbles

60.

How many Nitrogen atoms are in the in H3C2ON5?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

61.

How many Hydrogen atoms are in 4 H2O? ​ (a)   How many oxygen atoms? ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
8
4
1
2
3
5
6
7
9
62.
Which of the following is a sign that a chemical reaction has occurred?
a)
change in shape
b)
melting
c)
formation of a gas
d)
dissolving
63.
A clear liquid from a flask is poured into another clear liquid in a beaker. Which of the following results of this procedure would indicate a new substance was formed?
a)
The level of the substance in the beaker is higher after the other liquid is added.
b)
A yellow solid forms and then settles to the bottom of the beaker.
c)
Small white crystals are left behind in the flask that held the first liquid.
64.
Which of the following is an example that includes evidence of a chemical reaction?
a)
A sample of zinc is placed in water and it settles to the bottom
b)
A solid block of ice is heated and it completely melts into a liquid. 
c)
Sugar that is burned gives off an odor and turns brown and then black.
d)
A tomato is placed into a blender and chopped up into smaller pieces.
65.
Which one is NOT a sign that a chemical reaction has occurred?
a)
precipitate
b)
energy change
c)
unexpected color change
d)
dissolving
66.

Which of the following statements describes a compound?

a)

It contains only one kind of atom.

b)

It can be separated by physical means.

c)

It cannot be decomposed into simpler types of substances.

d)

It consists of atoms of two or more different elements bond together.

67.

This diagram represents...

a)

An element

b)

A molecule

c)

A compound

d)

A mixture of elements and compounds

68.

Carbon is considered an element, while carbon dioxide is considered a compound.  This is because carbon dioxide is –

a)

 

a gas at room temperature.

b)

made of two different elements.

c)

given off by green plants.

d)

useful to human beings.

69.

Which of the following is an element?

a)

Gold

b)

Air

c)

Water

d)

Carbon Dioxide

e)

Nitrous Oxide

70.
What is the picture displayed?
a)
atom
b)
element
c)
molecule
d)
compound
71.

You place a pot onto a hot stovetop. The heat is transferred from the stove to the pot by

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

d)

Temperature

72.

The total thermal energy of an object is also known as...

a)

Temperature

b)

Insulator

c)

Conductor

d)

Heat

73.

When particles become hotter, they tend to move...

a)

Slower

b)

Faster

c)

At the same rate

d)

Backwards

74.

Erick lights two fires. Above Fire 1, he puts a long piece of iron and lays a steak on top. Above the Fire 2, he puts a slab of rubber and also lays a steak on top of that.

Which of the following is most likely to happen?

a)

The steak above Fire 1 cooks well because iron insulates the meat.

b)

The steak above Fire 2 cooks well because of conduction.

c)

The steak above Fire 1 cooks well because iron is a good conductor of heat.

d)

The steak above Fire 2 cooks well because there is more radiation.

75.

Breyon is cooking dinner for his family. He puts a pot of water on the stove's hot plate to boil. Which of the following correctly describes the heat transfer occurring on the stove?

a)

The pot is heated by conduction, the water is heated by convection.

b)

The pot is heated by convection, the water is heated by conduction.

c)

The pot is heated by a conductor and the water is heated by an insulator

d)

The pot and water are heated by convection.

76.

When heat is transferred through a fluid (liquid or gas), this type of energy transfer is occurring:

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Evaporation

77.

Fire warming your hands is an example of what type of heat transfer?

(a)  

78.

Heat transferred over a distance, without the use of matter:

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Evaporation

79.

Touching your hand to the lightbulb causes you to burn your fingers. This is an example of:

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Evaporation

80.

Conduction is the process of:

a)

increasing temperature

b)

heat being gained because of metal

c)

heat transfer due to direct contact

d)

heat transfer through water

81.

Your father is making a cake in the oven. He puts on mitts and grabs the edges of the pan to pull it out. The mitts are an example of

a)

An insulator

b)

A conductor

c)

A convector

d)

A radiator

82.

Categorize the heat transfer in each scenario:

1) The sun is shining onto a car, making it hot

2) You burn your hand by touching a hot seatbelt in the car

3) The soda in the cupholder starts to get warm

a)

1) Radiation

2) Convection

3) Radiation

b)

1) Conduction

2) Conduction

3) Convection

c)

1) Convection

2) Conduction

3) Radiation

d)

1) Radiation

2) Conduction

3) Convection

83.

During convection, hot molecules in a fluid move faster. They become less ______ and rise to the _____ of the fluid.

a)

dense, bottom

b)

heavy, top

c)

dense, top

d)

fast, top

84.

On a sunny day, some of the air heats up and rises higher into the atmosphere. This is part of the heat transfer known as

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Evaporation

85.

You leave a metal spoon inside a cup of hot cocoa and go video games for a few minutes. When you come back and grab the spoon, it burns your hand. Why does this happen?

a)

The spoon is a conductor, so the hot cocoa transferred heat through it easily.

b)

The spoon is a insulator, so the hot cocoa transferred heat through it easily.

c)

The hot cocoa is a form of radiation, so it makes metal hot.

d)

The spoon insulated the heat into your hand

86.

Is steel a conductor or an insulator?

a)

Conductor

b)

Insulator

87.

Which would be the best to cook food in?

a)

wood

b)

plastic

c)

styrofoam

d)

iron

88.

Earth's weather is influenced by the movement of air; hot air and cold air are constantly circulating and causing changes. What type of heat transfer is responsible for this?

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Evaporation

89.
After taking a hot shower, James steps out of the shower onto the tile floor. The tile felt cold to his feet. Which explanation below best describes James' experience?
a)
Heat from his feet is transferred to the tile floor
b)
Heat from the tile floor is transferred to his feet
c)
Cold from the tile floor is transferred to his feet
d)
Cold from his feet is transferred to the tile floor
90.

The condition where two substances in physical contact with each other exchange no heat energy. They are said to be the same temperature.

a)

Thermal Energy

b)

Cooler to Warmer

c)

Energy Transfer

d)

Thermal Equilibrium

91.

Two objects have different temperatures. Object A has a temperature of 42 degrees and Object B is 37 degrees. Which direction should the energy transfer between Objects A and B?

a)

From Object A to Object B

b)

From Object B to Object A

c)

Energy will not transfer

d)

Energy will transfer both directions

92.

Heat always moves from _____________ to ______________.

a)

cold; hot

b)

cold; cold

c)

hot; cold

d)

hot; hot

93.

A 0° F object is touching a 100° F object. How many degrees Fahrenheit will these 2 objects be at thermal equilibrium? (Show your Work for full credit)

(a)  

94.

A 80° F object is touching a 90° F object. How many degrees Fahrenheit will these 2 objects be at thermal equilibrium? (Show your Work for full credit)

(a)  

95.

What happens to the temperature if I add ice cubes to a glass of soda

a)

The heat transfers from the coke to the ice

b)

The heat transfers from the ice to the coke

96.

Two objects with different temperature in thermal contact will reach thermal equilibrium when.....

a)

both object becomes hotter

b)

both objects become colder

c)

both object reach the same final temperature

d)

net heat transfer other than zero

97.

Which of the following is NOT true about temperature?

a)

Temperature is a form of heat energy.

b)

Temperature is measured in degrees celcius or kelvin.

c)

Temperature is the degree of hotness or coldness of an object.

d)

Temperature increases in a hot environment.

98.

Which of the following is NOT true about heat?

a)

Heat moves from hot places to cold places.

b)

Heat is a form of energy.

c)

Heat cannot be transferred.

d)

Heat makes molecules speed up.

99.

What are the three methods of heat transfer?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

friction

d)

radiation

100.

If you burn your hand on the handle of a hot pan, heat was transferred to your skin by

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

equilibrium

101.

The spoon becomes hot because heat is transfer through

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

102.

Which pin or paperclip dropped off the metal rod first?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

103.

The type of heat transfer that creates currents in water is called ________.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

104.

Near the ceiling of a room the air is warmer. The warm air rises because of ________.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

105.

Diagram shows an activity conducted by a student. It is found that the spiral-shaped cardboard rotates. What inference can be made from the activity?

a)

Hot air above the candle rises through radiation.

b)

Hot air above the candle rises through convection.

c)

Hot air above the candle rises through conduction.

d)

Hot air above the candle propagate through vacuum and rises.

106.

The diagram shows a refrigerator. The cooling unit is placed at the top. The cooling unit cools the air near it. What happens to the density of the air as it cools, and how does it move?

a)

The density of air increases. It moves down.

b)

The density of air increases. It moves up.

c)

The density of air decreases. It moves down.

d)

The density of air decreases. It moves up.

107.

Which is the best position to place the heating element in an electric heater?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

108.

The diagram shows some rice being boiled in a pan. What is the main methods by which thermal energy is transferred (i) through the metal pan and

(ii) through the water?

a)

(i) radiation (ii) conduction

b)

(i) radiation (ii) convection

c)

(i) conduction (ii) convection

d)

(i) convection (ii) conduction

109.

Energy from the Sun travels to Earth through

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Insulation

d)

Radiation

110.

Which describes what can happen as a result of radiation?

a)

A piece of wood burns in a fire.

b)

A shirt is hot after having been ironed.

c)

A can of soup is heated in a pot on a stove.

d)

A car’s internal temperature rises to over 100 degrees celcius on a sunny day.

111.

You leave your cold spoon in a hot bowl of oatmeal. What happens after an hour?

a)

The temperature of both the oatmeal and the spoon stay the same

b)

The spoon and the oatmeal become the same temperature

c)

Only the temperature of the oatmeal will change

d)

Only the temperature of the spoon will change

112.

Johnny put ice in his water. Which idea do you think best explains why the water got cold?

a)

The coldness from the ice moved into the water

b)

The coldness and the heat moved back and forth until the water cooled off.

c)

The heat from the water moved into the ice.

d)

The ice melted and cooled off the water.

113.

Which of the following is TRUE about the land breeze?

a)

It occurs during daytime.

b)

It blows from the sea to land.

c)

It occurs because the land heats up faster than the sea.

d)

It occurs because the sea is warmer than the land.

114.

Which material is the best conductor of heat?

a)

Glass

b)

Styrofoam

c)

Metal

d)

Wood

115.

What materials would be good heat insulators for a handle on a pan or pot that would be used on the stove?

a)

Wood

b)

Aluminium

c)

Iron

d)

Steel

116.
Why does a metal lawn chair get hot in the sun when the grass sitting in the same sunlight remains cool to the touch?
a)
Heat travels easily through plants but not metals.
b)
Heat travels easily through both plants and metals.
c)
Heat travels easily through metal objects but not through plants.
117.

Which of the following is NOT a heat insulator?

a)

The wall of an ice box

b)

Oven gloves

c)

Mercury in thermometers

d)

Cooking utensils made of wood

118.

What is the BEST reason cooking pots are made out of the materials like aluminum and stainless steel?

a)

They are able to stop the flow of heat.

b)

They are good conductors of heat.

c)

They keep the same amount of heat.

d)

They are good insulators of heat.

119.

The following are heat conductors EXCEPT

a)
b)
c)
d)
120.

Which is TRUE about a heat insulator?

a)

It allows heat to pass through easily.

b)

It slows down heat energy transfer.

c)

It provides heat to keep materials warm.

d)

It is good at absorbing heat.

121.

What formula can we use to find speed?

a)

Speed = distance/time

b)

Speed = distance X time

c)

Speed = mass X acceleration

d)

Speed = mass/acceleration

122.

What is the speed of a turtle that travels 10 miles in 5 hours?

a)

50 miles/hour

b)

2 miles/hour

c)

5 miles/hour

d)

15 miles/hour

123.

The geese fly 23 mph to the south when they migrate for the winter.

a)

speed

b)

velocity

c)

acceleration

124.

Changes in our speed, direction or both are called _________.

a)

gravity

b)

changes

c)

acceleration

d)

displacement

125.

You ride your bike in a straight line at a constant speed of 10 km/h.

a)

Acceleration occurred because speed increased.

b)

Acceleration did not occur because neither speed nor direction changed.

c)

Acceleration occurred because you changed directions.

d)

Acceleration occurred because speed decreased.

126.

When you know both the speed and direction of an object's motion, you know the...

a)
average speed of the object
b)
acceleration of the object
c)
distance the object has traveled
d)
velocity of the object
127.
You are riding your bike at 9 km/h. Ten minutes later, your speed is 6 km/h.
a)
Acceleration occurred because speed increased.
b)
Acceleration occurred because speed decreased.
c)
Acceleration occurred because you changed directions.
128.

Juan ran 72 m across the football field in 8 seconds. What was his speed?

a)

8 m/s

b)

576 m/s

c)

7 m

d)

9 m/s

129.

Steve runs 20 m North in 4 seconds. What is his velocity

a)

5 m/s

b)

4 m/s south

c)

5 m/s south

d)

5 m/s north

130.

Mr. Rudman drives his race car at a speed of 300 miles per hour. What distance and time could have been used to find his speed?

a)

300 miles in 2 hours

b)

60 miles in 20 hours

c)

30 miles in 20 hours

d)

600 miles in 2 hours

131.

A runner races in the 100 meter dash. If her average speed is 10 m/s, what will her time be at the end of the race?

a)

10 m/s

b)

1000 m/s

c)

100 seconds

d)

10 seconds

132.
A boat travels at 22 km/hr for 10 hrs, what distance will it travel?
a)
220 miles
b)
2.2 km
c)
220 km
d)
22 km
133.

What is this?

"This airplane is traveling at 500 mph, West"

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

134.

Which is an example of speed?

a)

A car driving 55 miles per hour south.

b)

A bicyclist traveling 10 meters per hour toward the next town.

c)

A roller coaster is traveling 10 meters per second.

d)

A rocket blasting off at 2,500 meters per second toward space.

135.

Which is an example of velocity?

a)

A car driving 55 miles per hour south.

b)

A bicyclist traveling 10 meters per hour.

c)

A roller coaster is traveling 10 meters per second.

d)

A rocket blasting off at 2,500 meters per second.

136.

A coach records the distance a runner travels during 3 different trials. What is the runner's average speed in kilometers per minute?

137.

A student pushed a ball down a hill and recorded the distance, time, and average speed during 3 different trials.

How far did the ball travel with an average speed of 5.25 m/s?

138.

Jose Altuve is at batting practice for the Houston Astros.

What was the average speed of the baseball for his third hit as it traveled in the air?

a)

32 m/sec

b)

20.7 m/sec

c)

24 m/sec

d)

27 m/sec

139.

Jose Altuve is at batting practice for the Houston Astros.

What was the average speed of all three hits?

a)

32 m/sec

b)

20.7 m/sec

c)

24 m/sec

d)

27 m/sec

140.

The distance traveled by a toy train over time is shown in the graph below. Use the information in the graph to complete the table.

141.

What force attracts a body toward the center of another physical body having mass?

a)

gravitropism

b)

gravity

c)

astrobiology

d)

none of these

142.

What determines the gravitational strength of an object?

a)

Mass and weight

b)

Mass and distance

c)

Distance and density

d)

Density and mass

143.

A basketball and a volleyball are roughly the same size but have different mass. In Science class, students conducted an experiment of what would happen if both were dropped from the roof of the school. What do you think the students saw?

a)

both balls hit the ground at the same time due to the force of gravity being equal on both balls

b)

the basketball hit slightly before the volleyball because it has a little more mass than the volleyball

c)

the volleyball hit first because it is lighter and therefore accelerates faster than the basketball with more mass

d)

none of these

144.

What causes all of the planets in the solar system to orbit around the Sun?

a)

the Sun's magnetic field pulls on all of the planets due to the metal core of each planet

b)

the massive size and mass of the Sun creates an extremely strong gravitation force that holds all planets in orbit

c)

the planets orbit the Sun due to its very fast rotational speed causing the graviton effect

d)

none of these

145.

What is the "Goldilocks Zone"?

a)

The warm zone located around a planet that provides a blanket like effect

b)

The zone that life has a hard time existing and will likely never exist

c)

The habitable zone around a star where the temperature is just right to support life.

d)

none of these

146.

The use of the Moon's gravity to propel a spacecraft from the Moon's orbit back toward Earth is called what?

a)

free gravity effect

b)

slingshot effect

c)

shotgun effect

d)

none of these

147.

The gravity on the outer planets of our solar system is not as strong as the inner planets. Why is this?

a)

the inner planets are smaller and therefore have less gravity than the larger outer planets

b)

gravity is the same on all planets in the solar system regardless of their size and distance from the Sun

c)

none of these

d)

the outer planets are further away and therefore gravity is weaker than on the inner planets

148.

True or False? The closer an object is to another the stronger the gravitational force.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Not enough information to answer the question

149.

An astrobiologist has found a two new planets orbiting a star similar to our own Sun. Planet A is closer than Planet B. Which planet will be affected the least by the gravitational pull of the star?

a)

Planet B

b)

Planet A

c)

neither planet will be affected by the gravitational pull of the star

d)

the gravitational pull will not be noticeable

150.

If mass ____________ the force of gravity increases. If distance _____________ the force of gravity will decrease.

a)

increases, decreases

b)

decreases, increases

c)

stops, increases

d)

none of these