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Worksheets

Instruments (51-100)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During an approach to an autoland at 1500 feet:

a)

off line channels are manually engaged, flare mode is armed

b)

localizer is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically engaged and flare mode is armed

c)

localizer is controlling the roll channel, stabilizer is trimmed nose up and roll out is armed

d)

provided both localizer and glide slope signals are valid LAND 3 will illuminate

2.

What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height?

a)

Fail-soft

b)

Fail-passive

c)

Fail-operational or fail-active

d)

Land 2 system

3.

During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is illuminated. The system is:

a)

fail-active or fail-operational

b)

fail-passive

c)

approaching decision height

d)

requiring a crew input

4.

During an autoland approach:

a)

flare is engaged at 1500'AGL

b)

localizer roll control is disengaged just prior to touchdown

c)

flare is disengaged prior to touchdown at 5' GA

d)

glide slope is the engaged pitch mode until 5' GA

5.

In an autoland at 1000' AGL with two autopilots engaged:

a)

the armed roll mode would be LOCALIZER

b)

the engaged roll mode would be GLIDE SLOPE

c)

the engaged pitch mode would be FLARE

d)

the engaged roll mode would be LOCALIZER

6.

If a fault develops in a triplex autopilot system during an approach, the system will revert to:

a)

fail-passive and the landing may continue

b)

fail control wheel mode

c)

fail-operational

d)

a manual disconnect

7.

Central Air Data Computers (CADCs) transmit data concerning;-

a)

airspeed, altitude and decision height

b)

airspeed, altitude and Mach number

c)

airspeed, attitude and Mach number

d)

airspeed and altitude only

8.

The autothrottle is used to control some factors during the three primary control modes; they are:

a)

EPR, Mach and Speed

b)

EPR, wheel and speed

c)

EPR, Mach and altitude

d)

EPR, wheel and altitude

9.

During a CAT 2 ILS automatic approach, the source for altitude information is the:

a)

basic altitude capsule stack

b)

x

c)

radio altimeter which becomes effective below about 2500 feet

d)

mode comparator sensor

10.

The type of automatic landing system which would necessitate a manual landing after a system failure during an automatic approach is:

a)

fail-passive

b)

fail-safe

c)

fail-active

d)

fail-operational

11.

When localizer and glide slope are captured at 1500 feet during an automatic landing sequence, two other functions will be activated at the same time; they are:

a)

touchdown mode and roll out mode

b)

flare mode arm and touchdown mode

c)

flare mode engage and roll out mode

d)

flare mode arm and off line channels engaged

12.

A fundamental requirement of a closed loop servomechanism is:

a)

a stable reference device

b)

an interlock control

c)

a tacho-generator

d)

feedback

13.

Auto-trim is functional:

a)

in the pitch and roll channel with the autopilot engaged

b)

in the pitch channel only with the autopilot engaged

c)

in the pitch channel only with the autopilot disengaged

d)

in the pitch and roll channel with the autopilot disengaged

14.

With the autopilot engaged in the Alt mode the Captain alters the barometric setting. The aircraft

a)

maintains its altitude

b)

changes its altitude in accordance with the change in pressure setting

c)

switches barometric input over to the 1st Pilot setting

d)

trips out of altitude hold

15.

Autopilot synchronization in an aircraft:

a)

requires that the interlocks are made before the autopilot will engage

b)

ensures that, when the autopilot is engaged, the take-over is effected smoothly and without snatching on the control system

c)

requires that the aircraft is trimmed out before the autopilot can be engaged

d)

needs at least two alternators running in parallel

16.

JAR 25 operational requirements for the installation of automatic pilot state that the system must have:

A. Automatic synchronization, B. Quick release controls on both control wheels.

a)

Only statement A is correct

b)

Only statement B is correct

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Neither statement is correct

17.

The control laws for an autopilot are known as:

a)

normal law and emergency law

b)

alternate law and direct law

c)

normal, alternate and emergency laws

d)

normal, alternate and direct laws

18.

The autothrottle will come on automatically even with the A/T switch OFF when:

a)

in a FBW aircraft the AoA reaches a critical value called floor

b)

the AoA reaches the stalling angle

c)

TOGA button is pressed

d)

reverse thrust is selected in flight

19.

The Ground Proximity Warning mode 5 provides a visual and audible warning to the pilot if the aircraft:

a)

descends below 500 ft radio altitude with gear retracted

b)

is below 1000 ft radio altitude and more than 1.3 dots below the ILS glide path

c)

descends below 200 ft radio altitude with flaps retracted

d)

sinks more than approximately 10% of accumulated altitude

20.

The GPWS uses inputs from:

a)

the radio altimeter, the ILS receiver, the Air Data Computers and the landing gear position indicators

b)

the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the landing gear position indicators and the flap position indicators

c)

the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the ILS receiver, the landing gear position indicators and the flap position indicators

d)

the radio altimeter and the ILS receiver

21.

GPWS mode one gives warning of:

a)

excessive descent rate

b)

height loss after take-off/missed approach

c)

unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration

d)

excessive terrain closure rate

22.

GPWS, mode two operates between:

a)

50 ft and 2450 ft AGL

b)

50 ft and 1800 ft AGL

c)

50 ft and 700 ft AGL

d)

50 ft and 500 ft AGL

23.

At what radio altitude is Mode 4 armed?

a)

500 ft

b)

700 ft

c)

200 ft

d)

790 ft

24.

On receipt of a TCAS RA your action is to:

a)

initiate the required manoeuvre immediately

b)

make a note of the details

c)

request a flight clearance deviation from ATC

d)

do nothing until a TA is received

25.

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems. The difference between TCAS I and II is that:

a)

TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

b)

TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircraft which carry more than 30 passengers whilst TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft

c)

TCAS I can be fitted to aircraft which carry transponders with Mode A only whilst TCAS II can only befitted to aircraft whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S

d)

TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

26.

The aural messages provided by TCAS II are:

a)

Threat, Climb; Threat, Descend

b)

Climb left; Climb right; Descend left; Descend right

c)

Climb; Descend; Increase Climb; Increase Descent

d)

Turn Left, Turn Right, Increase Turn, Decrease Turn

27.

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems:

a)

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC

b)

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft's proximity

c)

RAs must never be disregarded

d)

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

28.

An altitude alerting system must at least be capable of alerting the crew on:

1. Approaching selected altitude,

2. Abnormal gear/flap combination,

3. Excessive vertical speed,

4. Excessive terrain closure,

5. Excessive deviation from selected altitu

a)

1 & 3

b)

2 & 5

c)

4 & 6

d)

1 & 5

29.

What is the GPWS mode 3 audible alert?

a)

"don't sink, don't sink" followed by "whoop, whoop, pull up" if the sink rate exceeds a certain value

b)

"don't sink, don't sink" followed immediately by "whoop, whoop, pull up"

c)

"don't sink, don't sink" continuously

d)

"Terrain, don't sink" continuously

30.

What are the inputs to a modern jet transport aeroplane's stall warning system?

1. AoA,

2. Engine rpm,

3. Configuration,

4. Pitch and bank information,

5. Control surface position

  1. 6. Airspeed vector

a)

 1 & 3

b)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6

c)

 2, 4 & 6

d)

1, 3, 5 & 6

31.

With an Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System:

a)

the secondary display will show continuously the engine primary instruments

b)

the primary display unit will continuously show the engine primary instruments such as N1, N2, N3 and maybe oil pressure

c)

the primary engine display will continuously show the engine primary instruments such as N1, EGT and maybe EPR

d)

the primary engine instruments are N1, EGT and EPR and are on the primary and secondary display units

32.

The display modes for the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System are:

a)

operational, status and maintenance of which status and maintenance are automatic

b)

flight phase related, advisory and failure related

c)

operational, status and maintenance

d)

operational, flight phase related and status

33.

The Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System alert messages are shown on the upper display unit in three forms:

a)

Level 'C' are warnings that require immediate corrective action

b)

Level 'A' are cautions that require immediate crew awareness and possible action

c)

Level 'B' are advisories requiring crew awareness

d)

and these messages appear on the top left of the upper display unit

34.

An engine electronic system which in normal conditions of flight shows only the primary engine instruments is:

a)

an EICAS system with EPR, EGT and N2 shown on the primary instruments

b)

an ECAM system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the lower screen

c)

an EICAS system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the primary screen, the secondary screen being blank

d)

an ECAM system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the primary screen, the left screen being blank

35.

The properties of a gyro are:1. Mass, 2. Rigidity, 3. Inertia, 4. Precession, 5. rotational speed

a)

1, 2 & 3

b)

2 & 4

c)

2 & 3

d)

1 & 3

36.

Which of the following will affect a direct reading compass?

1. ferrous metals,

2. non-ferrous metals,

3. electrical equipment

a)

1 only

b)

1 & 3

c)

1 & 2

d)

all 3

37.

The Machmeter consists of:

a)

an airspeed indicator with Mach scale

b)

an airspeed indicator with an altimeter capsule

c)

an altimeter corrected for density

d)

a VSI and altimeter combined

38.

CAS is IAS corrected for:

a)

position and instrument error

b)

instrument, pressure and density error

c)

relative density only

d)

compressibility

39.

A DGI has:

a)

one degree of freedom & a horizontal spin axis

b)

two degrees of freedom & a vertical spin axis

c)

two degrees of freedom & a horizontal spin axis

d)

one degree of freedom & a vertical spin axis

40.

The torque motor of a gyro stabilized magnetic compass:

a)

precesses the directional gyro

b)

takes its input from the flux valve

c)

moves the heading pointer

d)

moves the Selsyn stator

41.

A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be:

a)

crosswinds - particularly on east/west headings

b)

parallax due to oscillations of the compass rose

c)

acceleration on east/west headings

d)

turning through east/west headings

42.

An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains altitude from:

a)

outside air temperature

b)

barometric data from static source

c)

time elapsed for signal to travel to and return from the earth

d)

difference between absolute and dynamic pressure

43.

The Inertial Strap down Unit of an IRS is programmed with co-ordinates during alignment in order to:

a)

establish the trihedron with reference to the earth

b)

establish true or magnetic heading

c)

check the function of the laser gyros

d)

compensate for aircraft movement

44.

At constant weight, regardless of altitude, an aircraft always lifts off at a constant:

a)

EAS

b)

TAS

c)

ground speed

d)

CAS

45.

VFE is the maximum speed that:

a)

the flaps can be operated

b)

the flaps may be extended in the take-off configuration

c)

the flaps may be extended in the landing configuration

d)

the flaps may be extended in a specified configuration

46.

Mach number is defined as the ratio of:

a)

IAS to LSS

b)

TAS to LSS

c)

CAS to LSS

d)

EAS to LSS

47.

When turning through 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic artificial horizon indicates:

a)

nose up and correct angle of bank

b)

attitude and bank angle are correct

c)

nose up and bank angle too low

d)

nose up and bank angle too high

48.

To obtain heading information from a gyro stabilized platform, the gyros should have:

a)

1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis

b)

1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis

c)

2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis

d)

2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

49.

What are the inputs to the ADC?

1. OAT,

2. dynamic pressure,

3. TAT,

4. static pressure,

5. electric power,

6. pitot 

a)

1, 2, 5 & 6

b)

all 7

c)

3, 4 & 6

d)

3, 4, 5, 6, & 7

50.

A gravity erector system corrects errors on a:

a)

DGI

b)

artificial horizon

c)

turn indicator

d)

RIMC