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WorksheetsAP DSC ENGLISH 2025 WEEKEND CBT-107
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins
How can students enroll in the APAAR (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry) system, that was recently making news?
Via School Registration
Through the Digilocker Portal
In-Person Verification
Email Application
Which scheme, often mentioned in the news, aims to provide scholarships to meritorious students from Scheduled Caste communities for higher education?
Saakshar Bharat scheme
SWAYAM scheme
SHRESHTA scheme
Samagra Shiksha scheme
Based on the PM-eBus Sewa scheme, identify the correct statement from the following:
1. The PM-eBus Sewa scheme aims to deploy 5,000 e-buses across cities with populations under 300,000.
2. The scheme provides no central government subsidies, and states/cities must manage all costs independently.
3. The scheme includes a Public Private Partnership model for 10 years, with the central government offering subsidies from a fund of Rs. 57,613 crore.
4. The scheme is limited to promoting green urban mobility initiatives without augmenting city bus services or infrastructure.
A) 1 and 2 are correct
B) 2 and 4 are correct
C) Only 3 is correct
D) 1 and 3 are correct
The Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme is designed to promote inclusive education for students with disabilities. Which of the following best aligns with the objectives of the scheme?
A) Providing vocational training to students with disabilities after secondary schooling.
B) Replacing the Integrated Education for Disabled Children (IEDC) to offer inclusive education at the secondary stage.
C) Establishing inclusive hostels for students with disabilities at the primary school level.
D) Prioritizing students with disabilities for scholarships in higher education only.
Assertion (A): The “Pure for Sure” initiative by BPCL was launched to improve the distribution of petrol and diesel, ensuring tamper-proof fuel storage.
Reason (R): The tamper-proof seals introduced by BPCL under this initiative aim to eliminate inefficiencies in fuel distribution at retail outlets by using blockchain technology.
A) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D) Both A and R are incorrect.
The Andhra Pradesh government's recent decision to cease the collection of garbage tax is associated with which of the following actions?
A) The introduction of a bill to promote urban cleanliness and impose stricter waste management rules.
B) A legislative measure aiming to audit and review the prior administration’s garbage tax policies.
C) The approval of a bill for sustainable urban development projects through alternative taxes.
D) A decision to replace garbage tax with a new municipal service fee for urban areas.
Sri S. Abdul Nazeer is currently serving as the Hon’ble Governor of Andhra Pradesh. Which of the following statements about his appointment is correct?
A) He is the first Governor of Andhra Pradesh with a judicial background.
B) He served as a judge of the Supreme Court of India before becoming Governor.
C) His appointment marks the first time a Governor was chosen directly from the Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly.
D) He succeeded Biswabhusan Harichandan as the Governor of Andhra Pradesh.
Sri Justice Dhiraj Singh Thakur is currently serving as the Hon’ble Chief Justice. Which of the following statements about his career and contributions is/are correct?
A) He was elevated to the position of Chief Justice after serving as a judge in the Jammu & Kashmir High Court.
B) He has significant experience in constitutional and administrative law.
C) His appointment as Chief Justice is his first judicial role in India.
D) He has contributed to several landmark judgments related to public interest litigation.
A) A and B only
B) A and D only
C) B and C only
D) C and D only
Identify in which of the following city/s and state/s and UT/s AP Govt has NOT established a showroom for 'Lepakshi Handicrafts Emporium'
A) New Delhi
B) Kolkata
C) Telengana
D) Mysuru
What is the tagline of the Department of ApSeeds?
A) Your Guide for Gardening
B) Your Gardening Guide
C) Your Gardening Partner
D) Your Guide To Gardening
Through which of the following states Chambal river does not flow?
[A] Uttar Pradesh
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Rajasthan
[D] Gujarat
Which of the following states has 3rd largest coastline?
[A] Gujarat
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Maharastra
[D] Tamilnadu
Arrange the following tract in the order of their location from North to South
1. Bhangar
2. Bhabar
3. Tarai
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :
[A] 1, 2, 3
[B] 2, 1, 3
[C] 3, 2, 1
[D] 2, 3, 1
Andaman and Nicobar Islands is a group of _____ islands/ islets:
[A] 275
[B] 450
[C] 572
[D] 780
Generally, the soil of the northern plains of India has been formed by ______:
[A] Aggradation
[B] Weathering in situ
[C] Erosion
[D] Degradation
Every year, on which date, “International Day of Epidemic Preparedness” is observed?
[A] December 28
[B] December 27
[C] December 26
[D] December 29
When is the ‘Parakram Diwas’ observed every year?
[A] 22 January
[B] 21 January
[C] 23 January
[D] 25 January
What is the theme of ‘World Malaria Day 2024’?
[A] Zero malaria starts with me
[B] Accelerating the fight against malaria for a more equitable world
[C] Harness innovation to reduce the malaria disease burden
[D] Zero Malaria – Draw the Line Against Malaria
Which award is given to recognize and encourage young scientists who made an exceptional contribution in given field of Science and Technology?
[A] Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award
[B] Vigyan Team (VT) award
[C] India Science Award
[D] C.V. Raman Birth Centenary Award
Recently, which institution has been selected for the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar-2024 in the institutional category?
[A] 60 Parachute field hospital, UP
[B] 30 Parachute field hospital, UP
[C] KJMU, Lucknow
[D] AIIMS, Delhi
Which of the following cities of Andhra Pradesh is the 2nd largest by geographical area?
Choose the correct option:
A. Amaravati
B. Kurnool
C. Visakhapatnam
D. Vijayawada
Which of the following is the largest tiger reserve of India?
A. Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve
B. Sahyadri Tiger reserve
C. Kamlang Tiger Reserve
D. None of these
Which of the following is the correct order of the highest mountain peaks in Andhra Pradesh?
A. Arma Konda > Padiyappa Konda > Mallela Konda > Kandikuppa
B. Arma Konda > Mallela Konda > Padiyappa Konda > Kandikuppa
C. Padiyappa Konda > Arma Konda > Kandikuppa > Mallela Konda
D. Mallela Konda > Kandikuppa > Padiyappa Konda > Arma Konda
A) OPTION B
B) OPTION D
C) OPTION C
D) OPTION A
What is the latitude and longitude of Andhra Pradesh?
A. Latitudes: 12° 41' N to 19° 07' N, Longitudes: 77° 00' E to 84° 40' E
B. Latitudes: 13° 20' N to 18° 00' N, Longitudes: 78° 30' E to 83° 40' E
C. Latitudes: 14° 30' N to 19° 00' N, Longitudes: 76° 00' E to 84° 00' E
D. Latitudes: 12° 00' N to 18° 30' N, Longitudes: 75° 00' E to 84° 00' E
Which of the following is NOT one of the branches of the Godavari River that the Konaseema region is located in?
A. Vasishta Godavari
B. Vruddha Gautami (Gautami Godavari)
C. Vainateya
D. Krishna Godavari
Which of the following is the predominant type of climate in the majority of Andhra Pradesh?
A. Tropical Wet Climate
B. Tropical Semi-arid Climate
C. Tropical Monsoon Climate
D. Tropical Temperate Climate
Which of the following factors does NOT significantly influence the climate of Andhra Pradesh?
A. The Bay of Bengal
B. The Western Ghats
C. The Tropic of Cancer
D. The Coast Line
Which districts in Andhra Pradesh experiences the highest rainfall during the monsoon season?
A. Visakhapatnam and Nellore
B. Visakhapatnam and Prakasam
C. Nellore and West Godavari
D. Visakhapatnam and West Godavari
Which of the following is the 3rd least populous district in Andhra Pradesh?
A. Srikakulam
B. Kurnool
C. West Godavari
D. Parvathipuram Manyam
How does the sea breeze and land breeze circulation explain the climate difference between coastal and landlocked districts in Andhra Pradesh?
A. Sea breeze warms up the coastal regions during the day, while land breeze cools down landlocked districts at night.
B. Sea breeze brings dry air from the sea, cooling coastal areas during the day, while land breeze at night causes coastal districts to heat up.
C. Sea breeze brings cool, moist air from the sea to the land during the day, making coastal districts more humid and cooler, while land breeze at night causes landlocked districts to cool down faster, making them drier.
D. Sea breeze and land breeze do not affect the climate of coastal and landlocked regions.
Consider the following statements:
The region is characterized by trees that shed their leaves annually, such as oak, teak, and sal.
These forests experience distinct seasonal changes, with warm summers and cool winters.
Which of the following biomes do the above statements best describe in the context of Andhra Pradesh?
A. Temperate coniferous Deciduous Forests
B. Temperate Deciduous Forests
C. Temperate coniferous Forests
D. Temperate coniferous Deciduous Forest Grassland
Assertion (A): Red soils, which occupy over 66% of the cultivated area in Andhra Pradesh, have a low nutrient status and are mostly found in Rayalaseema districts.
Reason (R): Black soils, which cover nearly 25% of the cultivated area, are associated with poor drainage and are also called Regurs or Vertisols.
Which of the following is correct?
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) does not correctly explain Assertion (A).
C. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Match the following soils to the corresponding districts in Andhra Pradesh:
Column A (Soil Types) Column B (Districts)
Red Soils A. Rayalaseema
Black Soils B. Krishna and Godavari Delta
Alluvial Soils C. Visakhapatnam and Srikakulam
Laterite Soils D. West Godavari
A. 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
B. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
C. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
D. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
Which of the following types of soils is described by having a low Exchangeable Sodium Percentage (ESP) of less than 15, a pH around 7.0, and a high water table that causes moist surface conditions?
A. Red Soils
B. Black Soils
C. Saline Soils
D. Alkaline Soils
Which of the following regions is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’ and is the most important area for rice cultivation in Andhra Pradesh?
(A) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(B) Krishna-Godavari Delta
(C) UP & Haryan Alluvial Soils regions
(D) Indus Gangetic Plain
Agriculture, with its allied sectors, is unquestionably the largest livelihood provider in India, more so in the vast rural areas. It also contributes a significant figure to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Sustainable agriculture, in terms of food security, rural employment, and environmentally sustainable technologies such as soil conservation, sustainable natural resource management and biodiversity protection, are essential for holistic rural development. Indian agriculture and allied activities have witnessed a green revolution, a white revolution, a yellow revolution and a blue revolution.
Based on the passage, which of the following is most essential for ensuring holistic rural development in India?
A) The development of urban infrastructure.
B) Investment in industrial sectors.
C) Sustainable agriculture practices, including soil conservation, natural resource management, and biodiversity protection.
D) Expansion of transportation networks in rural areas.
Agriculture, with its allied sectors, is unquestionably the largest livelihood provider in India, more so in the vast rural areas. It also contributes a significant figure to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Sustainable agriculture, in terms of food security, rural employment, and environmentally sustainable technologies such as soil conservation, sustainable natural resource management and biodiversity protection, are essential for holistic rural development. Indian agriculture and allied activities have witnessed a green revolution, a white revolution, a yellow revolution and a blue revolution.
Based on the passage, what is the key element that contributes to the comprehensive growth of rural areas in India?
A) Efforts that focus on enhancing urban development.
B) Strategies that promote industrial growth over rural employment.
C) Practices that maintain ecological balance and ensure long-term agricultural productivity.
D) Measures aimed at improving connectivity and infrastructure in villages.
Agriculture, with its allied sectors, is unquestionably the largest livelihood provider in India, more so in the vast rural areas. It also contributes a significant figure to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Sustainable agriculture, in terms of food security, rural employment, and environmentally sustainable technologies such as soil conservation, sustainable natural resource management and biodiversity protection, are essential for holistic rural development. Indian agriculture and allied activities have witnessed a green revolution, a white revolution, a yellow revolution and a blue revolution.
What does the term "holistic" in the passage most closely NOT mean?
A) Comprehensive and integrated
B) Inclusive and wide-ranging
C) Narrow and fragmented
D) Focused on overall development
Natural resources such as lakes, rivers, forests, wildlife, etc. have a pivotal role in Indian lifestyle but growing population of the country is increasing pressure on environment. The primary concern of the government is to implement policies and programmes for conservation of the ecosystem, natural resources, welfare of animals and prevention of pollution etc. In this section, we have highlighted initiatives taken by the government and various organizations for conservation and protection of flora and fauna, forest and wildlife, and for control of pollution.
Which government initiative aligns best with the goal of balancing human development and environmental sustainability as described in the passage?
A) Expanding urban housing projects.
B) Supporting industrial resource extraction.
C) Implementing conservation and anti-pollution policies.
D) Increasing agricultural land use.
Natural resources such as lakes, rivers, forests, wildlife, etc. have a pivotal role in Indian lifestyle but growing population of the country is increasing pressure on environment. The primary concern of the government is to implement policies and programmes for conservation of the ecosystem, natural resources, welfare of animals and prevention of pollution etc. In this section, we have highlighted initiatives taken by the government and various organizations for conservation and protection of flora and fauna, forest and wildlife, and for control of pollution.
What can be inferred about the government's approach to environmental issues from the passage?
A) The government prioritizes industrial growth over ecosystem conservation.
B) Policies and programs focus on preventing environmental degradation.
C) Conservation efforts are considered less important than urban development.
D) The government is indifferent to the pressure caused by the growing population.
International Space Law governs the activities of nations in outer space and ensures the peaceful use of space for the benefit of all humanity. The foundation of space law lies in five key United Nations treaties, including the Outer Space Treaty (1967), which prohibits the placement of weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies, and asserts that space is not subject to national sovereignty. Another significant treaty is the Moon Agreement (1984), which emphasizes that celestial bodies are the "province of all mankind" and their exploitation must benefit all nations. The liability convention stipulates that nations are responsible for damages caused by their space objects, whether in space or on Earth. Space law also addresses issues like space debris management, resource mining, and the avoidance of harmful interference. With private entities entering the space industry, the need for stricter international cooperation and regulatory frameworks has become critical to prevent disputes and ensure sustainable exploration. Which of the following best describes the principle of "province of all mankind" as mentioned in space law?
A) Space is divided among nations based on their technological capabilities.
B) Space resources belong to all countries and must benefit humanity as a whole.
C) Space activities are restricted to the United Nations and its members.
D) Outer space is governed exclusively by nations with active space programs.
International Space Law governs the activities of nations in outer space and ensures the peaceful use of space for the benefit of all humanity. The foundation of space law lies in five key United Nations treaties, including the Outer Space Treaty (1967), which prohibits the placement of weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies, and asserts that space is not subject to national sovereignty. Another significant treaty is the Moon Agreement (1984), which emphasizes that celestial bodies are the "province of all mankind" and their exploitation must benefit all nations. The liability convention stipulates that nations are responsible for damages caused by their space objects, whether in space or on Earth. Space law also addresses issues like space debris management, resource mining, and the avoidance of harmful interference. With private entities entering the space industry, the need for stricter international cooperation and regulatory frameworks has become critical to prevent disputes and ensure sustainable exploration.
If a private company launches a satellite that causes damage to another country's satellite, who is held liable under international space law?
A) The private company operating the satellite.
B) The nation under whose jurisdiction the company operates.
C) The United Nations Office for Outer Space Affairs (UNOOSA).
D) The country owning the damaged satellite.
International Space Law governs the activities of nations in outer space and ensures the peaceful use of space for the benefit of all humanity. The foundation of space law lies in five key United Nations treaties, including the Outer Space Treaty (1967), which prohibits the placement of weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies, and asserts that space is not subject to national sovereignty. Another significant treaty is the Moon Agreement (1984), which emphasizes that celestial bodies are the "province of all mankind" and their exploitation must benefit all nations. The liability convention stipulates that nations are responsible for damages caused by their space objects, whether in space or on Earth. Space law also addresses issues like space debris management, resource mining, and the avoidance of harmful interference. With private entities entering the space industry, the need for stricter international cooperation and regulatory frameworks has become critical to prevent disputes and ensure sustainable exploration.
Why is international cooperation emphasized in space law with the rise of private entities in the space industry?
A) To ensure equitable access and prevent disputes over resources.
B) To prioritize military applications of outer space.
C) To limit technological advancements to specific nations.
D) To establish a competitive environment among spacefaring countries
The sun set slowly over the quiet village, casting a golden hue across the fields. The air, thick with the scent of freshly tilled soil, seemed to hum with the promise of a new dawn. In the distance, the silhouette of an old oak tree stood tall against the fading light, a silent witness to generations that had passed beneath its shade. Birds began to gather, their songs filling the evening air, as if they too were aware of the serenity that the coming night would bring. It was a moment of calm, a brief pause in the rhythm of everyday life.
What time of day is described in the passage?
A) Morning
B) Afternoon
C) Midnight
D) Evening
The sun set slowly over the quiet village, casting a golden hue across the fields. The air, thick with the scent of freshly tilled soil, seemed to hum with the promise of a new dawn. In the distance, the silhouette of an old oak tree stood tall against the fading light, a silent witness to generations that had passed beneath its shade. Birds began to gather, their songs filling the evening air, as if they too were aware of the serenity that the coming night would bring. It was a moment of calm, a brief pause in the rhythm of everyday life.
What time of day is described in the passage?
A) Morning
B) Afternoon
C) Midnight
D) Evening
"Our blessings come from the above worlds". Identify the part of speech of the underlined word.
A) Noun
B) Adjective
C) Adverb
D) Preposition
"What is that mean?". Identify the part of speech of the underlined word.
A) Demonstrative Pronoun
B) Distributive Pronoun
C) Demonstrative Adjective
D) Distributive Adjective
"What is that noise?". Identify the part of speech of the underlined word.
A) Demonstrative Pronoun
B) Distributive Pronoun
C) Demonstrative Adjective
D) Distributive Adjective
"Rajeshwari's jewelry collection was priceless.". Identify the part of speech of the underlined word.
A) Common Noun
B) Collective Noun
C) Material Noun
D) All the above
"Oxygen is essential for all living being". Identify the part of speech of the underlined word.
A) Common Noun
B) Collective Noun
C) Material Noun
D) All the above
"Santhosh is very talkative". Identify the dissimilar Noun form of underlined word from the given below
A) Loquacity
B) Volubility
C) Chattiness
D) Talktivity
"The team are celebrating their individual achievements." Identify subject number of the underlined word from the given sentence.
A) Singular
B) Plural
C) Both A & B
D) None of the above
Which one of the following is not a singular noun?
A) News
B) Physics
C) Innings
D) Thanks
Which one the correct feminine form of the noun 'Ram' from the given below
A) Lady
B) Rama
C) Girl
D) Ewe
"The moon has hidden her death face behind the cloud". Identify the Gender of the underlined word
A) Masculine
B) Feminine
C) Common
D) Neutar
"The act of theft is a serious crime with significant consequences." Identify the Gender of the underlined word
A) Masculine
B) Feminine
C) Common
D) Neutar
"Kalidas is often called the Shakespeare of India." Identify the Noun of the underlined word
A) Proper Noun
B) Common Noun
C) Both a & B
D) None of the above
"The subject of the sentence can't be an object" Identify the word 'object'.
A) Subject
B) Object to verb
C) Subject to verb
D) Object to Subject
"She gave her boyfriend to her friend" Identify the 'Indirect object'.
A) Friend
B) Boy Friend
C) Her boyfriend's friend
D) Her boyfriend
Which of the following sentence not has an object compliment
A) They elected Sheeba president.
B) We named the baby Sarah Samuel.
C) They considered Praveen a genius.
D) Raju appointed a manager.
Which of the following sentences doesn't use a reflexive pronoun correctly?
A) Laxmi enjoyed herself in the party.
B) Rajkumar himself did the studies.
C) Ayesha convinced herself
D) Venkeshwar loves her himself.
Which of the following sentences doesn't use a Receprocal pronoun correctly?
A) Pavithra & Razia helped each other.
B) AP DSC English team members supported one another during the difficult times.
C) Basheera, Devi and Divya fought between each other over Present Tense
D) Chakravarthy and Swamy often gave each other gifts on their birthdays
Which of the following sentences doesn't use a personal objective pronoun correctly?
A) Mr. Uttam helped me to identify the mistake.
B) Ms. Shabeena spoke to him very softly.
C) Salma puchased her house.
D) Mr. Sreenivasulu guided us in AP DSC Psychology.
Which of the following sentences use a demonstrative adjective correct?
A) This is Mr. Obaia's book, not mine.
B) This house belongs to Mr. Guru Prasad
C) These are Charitha's pets.
D) Those are Salma's feelings.
Which of the following sentences use an Interrogative pronoun correct?
A) Who is going to the concert with you Mr. Kumar?
B) What time does the movie start Ms. Madhavi?
C) Which book did you enjoy the most Mr. Lavanya?
D) What love do you expect from your students Mr. Vijay Kumar?
Which of the following sentences doesn't use an Interrogative adjective correctly?
A) What gift do get from Lavyana?
B) What hour does the movie start Ms. Madhavi?
C) Which book did you enjoy the most Mr. Lavanya?
D) What sting did you strike to make friendship with her Mr. Ramakrishna?
Which of the following sentences is wrong?
A) Each of the student received a certificate.
B) Either you can go to the library
C) Neither of the twins wanted to go to the party.
D) Every person in the room was surprised by the announcement
When a pronoun is always followed by a noun _____ & When a pronoun is always precede by a noun.
A) Demonstrative Pronoun & Distributive Pronoun
B) Demonstrative Pronoun & Indefinite Pronoun
C) Demonstrative Adjective & Relative Pronoun
D) Demonstrative Adjective & Demonstrative Pronoun
"Swamy's man's conscious is the amalgamation of entire men's". What principle in grammar is highlighted in the underlined words?
A) Declension of Subject
B) Declension of object
C) Declension of Noun
D) Declension of Gender
Which of the following sentences Not use Relative Pronoun as an object?
A) The book that I read was very interesting.
B) The person whom I met at the party was very friendly.
C) The movie which we saw last night was amazing.
D) The song that she listened was sung not by her.
Which one of the following one doesn't denote by a verb?
A) State, Possession and Work of a Noun
B) State, Ability and Work of a Noun
C) State, Possession and Action of a Noun
D) Ability, Possession and Work of a Noun
Main verbs in English have ___ principal forms
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Which one is not a synonym for Core Verb in English?
A) Main Verb
B) Lexical Verb
C) Principal Verb
D) Action Verb
In Latin, verbum ....
A) a verb
B) an action
C) a word
D) an act
"Mr. Naren asked her name." Change the Intransitive verb into a Transitive verb by adding
A) an adjective
B) an adverb
C) a preposition
D) Can't be changed
"Mr. Trinath glowed with pride". What kind of verb is the underlined word?
A) Transitive
B) Intransitive
C) Both a & b
D) Both a & b wrong
Which of the following verbs from the following sentences has shown incompleteness?
A) Baby sleeps peacefully.
B) Syed speaks clearly.
C) Vanaja cooks deliciously.
D) Raji Yadav seems happy.
Which of the following verbs can be used transitively in English?
A) come
B) fall
C) sleep
D) feel
Which of the following sentences doesn't use a verb reflexively?
A) The man killed himself.
B) Please keep yourself quiet.
C) The bubble burst itself.
D) The driver himself stopped her wife.
Which of the following sentences doesn't have a Transitive verb?
A) Woodmen fell tress.
B) Lay the basket there.
C) Raise your hands.
D) Sit there quietly.
Which of the following sentences doesn't have a Cognate object?
A) Rama has fought a good fight.
B) Nagaraju ran a race.
C) Sai Priya dreamt a strange dream.
D) Aswarthappa sighed a deep relief.
Which of the following sentences correctly uses the subjunctive mood of a verb?
A) I wish I was taller.
B) I wish I were taller.
C) I wish I am taller.
D) I wish I will be taller.
Which of the following sentences NOT correctly uses the subjunctive mood of a verb?
A) If I were a bird, I would fly south for the winter.
B) If she had studied harder, she would have passed the exam.
C) He would have accepted the job offer if the salary had been higher.
D) I would have gone to the party if I have known about it.
Which of the following sentences NOT correctly uses the Gerund?
A) Although hiking is strenuous, it offers breathtaking views and a sense of accomplishment.
B) Despite reading extensively, she still struggled to understand the complex theory.
C) With regular practice, she improved her piano-playing skills significantly.
D) Before traveling to a new country, it's essential to research its customs and culture.
Which of the following sentences NOT correctly uses the Gerund as a subject compliment?
A) My goal is becoming a doctor.
B) His hobby is collecting stamps.
C) The best part of the day is reading a good book.
D) He started painting landscapes.
This man is wiser than Raju. What kind of an adjective is the underlined word?
A) Demonstrative Adjective
B) Distributive Adjective
C) Quantitative Adjective
D) Demonstrative Pronoun
Neither accusation is true. What kind of an adjective is the underlined word?
A) Demonstrative Adjective
B) Distributive Numerical Adjective
C) Quantitative Adjective
D) Demonstrative Pronoun
Yahodananda didn't eat any rice. What kind of an adjective is the underlined word?
A) Demonstrative Adjective
B) Distributive Numerical Adjective
C) Quantitative Adjective
D) Demonstrative Pronoun
Mr. Naveen is the First student in AP DSC English Online classes. What kind of an adjective is the underlined word?
A) Indefinite Numerical Adjective
B) Distributive Numerical Adjective
C) Definitive Numerical Adjective
D) All the above
Himalayan Tea is very tasty. What kind of an adjective is the underlined word?
A) Qualitative Adjective
B) Quantitative Adjective
C) Common Adjective
D) Proper Adjective
The running shoes were worn out. What kind of an adjective is the underlined word?
A) Gerund adjective
B) Quantitative Adjective
C) Present participle adjective
D) Verbal Adjective
Which set of adjectives are incorrect?
A) Nigh - Nigher - Next
B) Proper - More Proper - Most Proper
C) Fore - Former - First
D) Splendid - Splendor - Splendidest
In which sentence the adjective 'no' is used perfectly?
A) It is no joke
B) He is no more
C) I will not take a no
D) No, I won't love you.
Kalyani bought a new leather jacket. Identify the part of speech of underlined word?
A) Attributive adjective.
B) Predicative adjective.
C) Demonstrative adjective.
D) Material Adjective
Praveen has enough information to clear the AP DSC English exam. Use the Quantitative Adjective and convert it into a Qualitative Adjective in a sentence.
A) Praveen has little information to clear the AP DSC English exam.
B) Praveen has reasonable information to clear the AP DSC English exam
C) Praveen has valuable information to clear the AP DSC English exam
D) Praveen has sufficient information to clear the AP DSC English exam
Find the correct sentence from the below sentence
A) Usha bought a stunning large old round ancient golden French wooden table.
B) Virinchy drove an impressive small modern rectangular ancient white Italian steel car.
C) Our family stayed in a beautiful medium-sized new oval ancient red American stone villa.
D) They gifted him a marvelous tiny leather vintage square ancient black Indian purse.
What is the adjective form of 'Tragic'?
A) Tragedy
B) Tragically
C) Tragical
D) None of the above
What is the adjective form of 'Move'?
A) Momentary
B) Movability
C) Movable
D) Mobile
Kaikeyi's sickly advice spoiled Dasharatha's life. Identify the part of speech of underlined word.
A) Adverb
B) Adjective
C) Preposition
D) Both a & b
Which one is not the function of an adjective?
A) Describe a Noun
B) Qualifies a Noun
C) Ascribe a Noun
D) Adds something for Noun's meaning
