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Economics Final Test

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best defines economics?

a)

The study of supply and demand

b)

The study of microeconomics and macroeconomics

c)

The study of how to best allocate scarce resources amongst unlimited wants

d)

The study of how to best extract resources from citizens

2.

Which of the following best defines scarcity?

a)

Insufficiency or smallness of supply; not enough to go around

b)

Something must be wanted or have value and be scarce

c)

Quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied

d)

Quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded

3.

Which of the following best defines opportunity cost?

a)

The cost of producing a good or service

b)

The value of the next best alternative forgone by choosing another alternative

c)

The value of all alternatives forgone by choosing a single alternative

d)

The cost of consuming a good or service

4.

In figure 1 shown above, at point B the trade-off (opportunity cost) is:

a)

2 military bases

b)

2 housing projects

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

5.

In figure 1 shown above, to move from point A to point B:

a)

Less military bases can be established

b)

More military bases can be established

c)

Less housing projects

d)

None of the above

6.

Which of the following best defines factors of production?

a)

Resources used to produce goods and services: land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship

b)

Resourced used to consume goods and services: land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship

c)

Resources used to produce or consume goods and services

d)

Resources used to maximize the amount of goods produced

7.

Which of the following best defines an economic system?

a)

The way a society organizes itself to decide what and how much will be produced, the way goods and services will be produced, and how the output will be distributed.

b)

A group of countries or regions within a country which are connected economically.

c)

The “invisible hand” that allows supply and demand automatically set the proper price and quantity for every good and service produced in an economy.

d)

None of the above

8.

Which of the following best defines a traditional economic system?

a)

Political leaders organize production and distribution.

b)

Everyone is involved in organizing production and distribution.

c)

Cultural customs are used to organize production and distribution.

d)

None of the above.

9.

Which of the following best defines a command economic system?

a)

Political leaders organize production and distribution.

b)

Everyone is involved in organizing production and distribution.

c)

Cultural customs are used to organize production and distribution.

d)

None of the above.

10.

Which of the following best defines a market economic system?

a)

Political leaders organize production and distribution.

b)

Everyone is involved in organizing production and distribution.

c)

Cultural customs are used to organize production and distribution.

d)

None of the above

11.

Which of the following plays an important role in a market economy?

a)

Entrepreneurs

b)

Workers

c)

Consumers

d)

All of the above

12.

The most important (but not the only) goal in a market economy is:

a)

Competition

b)

Profit

c)

Winning

d)

Economic equality

13.

A “market” is best described as:

a)

A situation which brings willing buyers and sellers together

b)

A place to buy consumer goods

c)

A place to sell one’s production

d)

A competition

14.

A market in which there are many sellers, each one trying to differentiate their similar product to gain a larger share of the market is known as a/an:

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Pure competition

d)

Mercantilism

15.

A market in which one seller provides most of the goods and services is known as a/an:

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Pure competition

d)

Mercantilism

16.

A market characterized by only one seller is known as:

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Central planning

d)

Pure competition

17.

Which of the following defines demand curve?

a)

The amount of a good or service consumers are willing and able to buy at a given price

b)

The amount of a good or service businesses are willing and able to produce at a given price

c)

A graph showing how the amount of a good or service demanded changes with a change in price

d)

A graph showing how the amount of a good or service supplied changes with a change in price

18.

Which of the following best defines supply curve?

a)

The amount of a good or service consumers are willing and able to buy at a given price

b)

The amount of a good or service businesses are willing and able to produce at a given price

c)

A graph showing how the amount of a good or service demanded changes with a change in price

d)

A graph showing how the amount of a good or service supplied changes with a change in price

19.

Which of the following best defines quantity demanded?

a)

The amount of a good or service consumers are willing and able to buy at a given price

b)

The amount of a good or service businesses are willing and able to produce at a given price

c)

A graph showing how the amount of a good or service demanded changes with a change in price

d)

A graph showing how the amount of a good or service supplied changes with a change in price

20.

Which of the following best defines quantity supplied?

a)

The amount of good or service consumers are willing and able to buy at a given price

b)

The amount of a good or service businesses are willing and able to produce at a given price

c)

A graph showing how the amount of a good or service demanded changes with a change in price

d)

A graph showing how the amount of a good or service supplied changes with a change in price

21.

Which of the following best defines the law of demand?

a)

As price increases, quantity demanded decreases

b)

As price increases, quantity demand increases

c)

How a change in price effects the quantity demanded for a good or service

d)

How a change in price effects the quantity supplied for a good or service

22.

Which of the following best defines the law of supply?

a)

A. As price increases, quantity supplied decreases

b)

B. As price increases, quantity supplied increases

c)

C. How a change in price affects the quantity demanded for a good or service

d)

D. How a change in price affects the quantity supplied for a good or service

23.

In a market economy, the forces of supply and demand interact to determine:

a)

A. Balance

b)

B. Interest rates

c)

C. Price

d)

D. Quantity

24.

Which of the following best defines shortage?

a)

A. The price at which the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded

b)

B. The quantity which the price offered by firms equals the price consumers are willing to pay

c)

C. When the quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded

d)

D. When the quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied

25.

Which of the following best defines surplus?

a)

A. The price at which the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded

b)

B. The quantity which the price offered by firms equals the price consumers are willing to pay

c)

C. When the quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded

d)

D. When the quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied

26.

Which of the following best defines a change in demand?

a)

A. A movement of the entire demand curve to the right or left

b)

B. A movement along the demand curve

c)

C. A changing of the slope of the demand curve

d)

D. A changing of the curvature of the demand curve

27.

Which of the following best defines determinants of demand?

a)

A. All price factors that influence the demand for a good or service

b)

B. Non-price factors that influence the supply of a good or service

c)

C. Non-price factors that influence the demand for a good or service

d)

D. All price factors that influence the supply of a good or service

28.

Which of the following does NOT shift the demand curve for a product?

a)

A. Income

b)

B. Substitutes

c)

C. Complements

d)

D. Price

29.

Which of the following does NOT cause an increase in the demand for a product?

a)

A. Increase in population

b)

B. Change in tastes

c)

C. Increase in the price substitutes

d)

D. Implementation of additional federal regulations

30.

Which of the following best defines substitutes?

a)

Good or service that is generally used with another good or service

b)

Good or service that can easily replace another good or service

c)

Good or service that is in no way influenced by another good or service

d)

Temporary teachers which can never be as great as your economics teacher

31.

Which of the following best defines complements?

a)

Good or service that is generally used with another good or service

b)

Good or service that can easily replace another good or service

c)

Good or service that is in no way influenced by another good or service

d)

Nice things you say to other people

32.

Which of the following best defines a change in supply?

a)

A movement of the entire supply curve to the right or left

b)

A movement along the supply curve

c)

A changing of the slope of the supply curve

d)

A changing of the curvature of the supply curve

33.

Which of the following would NOT cause an increase in the supply of a product?

a)

Decrease in the price on input resources

b)

A decrease in market price

c)

A more efficient work force

d)

An increase in overall consumer income

34.

Which of the following does NOT shift the supply curve for a product?

a)

Costs of production

b)

Technology

c)

Number of producers

d)

Necessities & luxuries

35.

Which of the following best defines elastic?

a)

Perfectly horizontal; any change in price reduces quantity to zero; at the correct price, quantity is infinite

b)

A small change in price causes a large change in quantity

c)

Perfectly vertical; a change in price does not change quantity

d)

A small change in price causes a small change in quantity

36.

Which of the following best defines elasticity of demand?

a)

The quantity demanded for a good or service varies inversely with price

b)

The quantity supplied of a good or service varies positively with price

c)

How a change in price effects the quantity demanded for a good or service

d)

How a change in price effects the quantity supplied for a good or service

37.

Which of the following does NOT affect the elasticity of demand?

a)

The presence of substitutes

b)

The cost of production for the good or service

c)

The price of the good or service

d)

The relative importance of the good or service to the consumer

38.

Which of the following best defines elasticity of supply?

a)

The quantity demanded for a good or service varies inversely with price

b)

The quantity supplied for a good or service varies positively with price

c)

How a change in price affects the quantity demanded for a good or service

d)

How a change in price affects the quantity supplied for a good or service

39.

Which is an example of inelastic supply?

a)

Kites

b)

Candy

c)

Apple orchard

d)

Hair cuts

40.

Which of the following best defines ceteris paribus?

a)

All else unequal

b)

All else changed

c)

All else equal

d)

All else variable

41.

Which graph shows a decrease in supply?

a)

Graph A

b)

Graph B

c)

Graph C

d)

Graph D

42.

Which graph shows an increase in supply?

a)

Graph A

b)

Graph B

c)

Graph C

d)

Graph D

43.

Which graph shows a decrease in demand?

a)

Graph A

b)

Graph B

c)

Graph C

d)

Graph D

44.

Which graph shows an increase in demand?

a)

Graph A

b)

Graph B

c)

Graph C

d)

Graph D

45.

The government gives every student in California a tax rebate of $3,000, ceteris paribus. What does this do to the demand for video games?

a)

Decreases demand

b)

Increases demand

c)

No change in demand

d)

Decreases supply

46.

The price of Oreos drops dramatically, ceteris paribus. What does this do to the demand for Hydrox (fake Oreos)?

a)

Increases demand

b)

Decreases demand

c)

No change in demand

d)

Increases supply

47.

The cost of flour increases, ceteris paribus. What does this do to the supply of donuts?

a)

Increases supply

b)

Decreases supply

c)

No change in supply

d)

Increases demand

48.

Twelve new bookstores open up in town, ceteris paribus. What does this do to the supply of books?

a)

Decreases supply

b)

Increases supply

c)

No change in supply

d)

Decreases demand

49.

A new law is passed outlawing the use of pesticides on all produce, ceteris paribus. What does this do to the supply of lettuce?

a)

Increases supply

b)

Decreases supply

c)

No change in supply

d)

Increases demand

50.

The price of tomatoes decreases, ceteris paribus. What does this do to the supply of spaghetti sauce?

a)

Increases supply

b)

Decreases supply

c)

No change in supply

d)

Increases demand

51.

A shortage of hamburgers would result if the actual market price were

a)

$2.00 per hamburger

b)

Any price above $2.00 per hamburger

c)

Any price below $2.00 per hamburger

d)

Any price below $2.50 per hamburger

52.

A surplus of hamburgers would result if the actual market price were

a)

$2.00 per hamburger

b)

Any price above $2.00 per hamburger

c)

Any price below $2.00 per hamburger

d)

Any price below $2.50 per hamburger

53.

If the price of a good is mistakenly set by the producer above the equilibrium price but is free to move, we can expect

a)

The price to fall

b)

The quantity demanded to increase

c)

The quantity supplied to decrease

d)

All of the above

54.

A change in which the following would cause a movement along the demand curve (change quantity demanded) for Ford trucks, but not a shift in the demand curve (change in demand) for Ford trucks

a)

Consumer income

b)

Chevy prices

c)

Ford prices

d)

Consumer tastes

55.

If D1 is the current demand curve, the equilibrium price of boots is:

a)

P1

b)

P2

c)

P3

d)

Q2

56.

At P1, the quantity supplied of boots is:

a)

Q1

b)

Q2

c)

Q3

d)

S1

57.

If country clothes were to go out of style, which shift would occur?

a)

D1 to D2

b)

D2 to D1

c)

D1 to S1

d)

P1Q1 to P3Q3

58.

At P3, the market for boots is a:

a)

Shortage

b)

Surplus

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Balance

59.

Which of the following would be considered an effective price floor (minimum wage)?

a)

P1

b)

P2

c)

P3

d)

Q1

60.

Which of the following would be considered an effective price ceiling (rent control)?

a)

P1

b)

P2

c)

P3

d)

Q1

61.

Which of the following would be considered equilibrium price?

a)

P1

b)

P2

c)

P3

d)

Q1

62.

The economic goals of the United States do NOT include:

a)

Economic growth

b)

Full employment

c)

Equal opportunity

d)

Stable prices

63.

Which of the following best defines gross domestic product?

a)

A. The total of all goods and services purchased in the U.S. in one year

b)

B. The total of all goods and services produced in the U.S. in one year

c)

C. The total of all goods and services sold in the U.S. in one year

d)

D. None of the above

64.

What is the formula for gross domestic product?

a)

A. M – X + G + I + C

b)

B. G - C + M + X + I

c)

C. C + I + G + X - M

d)

D. None of the above

65.

Real Gross Domestic Product differs from Gross Domestic Product because it takes which of the following into consideration?

a)

A. The rate of inflation

b)

B. The quality of goods

c)

C. The balance of trade

d)

D. The absolute advantage

66.

By studying Gross Domestic Product figures, economists can do all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

A. Evaluate the performance of the economy

b)

B. Compare the economies of different countries

c)

C. Understand business cycles

d)

D. Determine a company’s best level of output

67.

Which of the following best defines frictional unemployment?

a)

A. Occurs when people take time to find a job

b)

B. Occurs as a result of harvest schedules or vacations, or when industries slow or shut down for a reason

c)

C. Occurs when workers’ skills do not match the jobs that are available

d)

D. Unemployment that rises during economic downturns and falls when the economy improves

68.

Which of the following best defines cyclical unemployment?

a)

A. Occurs when people take time to find a job

b)

B. Occurs as a result of harvest schedules or vacations, or when industries slow or shut down for a reason

c)

C. Occurs when workers’ skills do not match the jobs that are available

d)

D. Unemployment that rises during economic downturns and falls when the economy improves

69.

Which of the following best defines seasonal unemployment?

a)

A. Occurs when people take time to find a job

b)

B. Occurs as a result of harvest schedules or vacations, or when industries slow or shut down for a reason

c)

C. Occurs when workers’ skills do not match the jobs that are available

d)

D. Unemployment that rises during economic downturns and falls when the economy improves

70.

Which of the following best defines structural development?

a)

A. Occurs when people take time to find a job

b)

B. Occurs as a result of harvest schedules or vacations, or when industries slow or shut down for a reason

c)

C. Occurs when workers’ skills do not match the jobs that are available

d)

D. Unemployment that rises during economic downturns and falls when the economy improves

71.

Inflation can be described as an:

a)

Increase in prices

b)

Increase in demand

c)

Increase in supply

d)

All of the above

72.

If inflation was being caused by having too much money in the economy, which theory would explain the inflation?

a)

Quantity theory

b)

Demand-pull theory

c)

Cost-push theory

d)

Wage price spiral

73.

If inflation was being caused by producers raising prices in order to meet increased costs, which theory would explain the inflation?

a)

Quantity theory

b)

Demand-pull theory

c)

Cost-push theory

d)

Wage price spiral

74.

If inflation were being caused by the demand for goods and services exceeding existing supplies, which theory would explain the inflation?

a)

Quantity theory

b)

Demand-pull theory

c)

Cost-push theory

d)

Wage price spiral

75.

If inflation were being caused by rising wages causing high prices which cause higher wages, which theory would explain the inflation?

a)

Quantity theory

b)

Demand-pull theory

c)

Cost-push theory

d)

Wage price spiral

76.

The Federal Reserve influences the money supply with which of the following?

a)

Monetary policy

b)

Fiscal policy

c)

Trade policy

d)

None of the above

77.

Congress influences the money supply with which of the following?

a)

Monetary policy

b)

Fiscal policy

c)

Trade policy

d)

None of the above

78.

Which of the following best describes reserve requirements?

a)

The interest rates charged to banks for borrowing money from the Fed

b)

The % of deposits which banks must hold and not loan out to other people

c)

The buying and selling of United States bonds

d)

The amount of gas needed to make it to the next gas station

79.

Which of the following best describes open market operations?

a)

The interest rates charged to banks for borrowing money from the Fed

b)

The % of deposits which banks must hold and not loan out to other people

c)

The buying and selling of United States bonds

d)

The amount of gas needed to make it to the next gas station

80.

Which of the following best describes discount rates?

a)

The interest rates charged to banks for borrowing money from the Fed

b)

The % of deposits which banks must hold and not loan out to other people

c)

The buying and selling of United States bonds

d)

The amount of gas needed to make it to the next gas station

81.

If the Federal Reserve wanted to increase the money supply using reserve requirements it would?

a)

Lower the rate

b)

Increase the rate

c)

Leave the rate unchanged

d)

None of the above

82.

If the Federal Reserve wanted to increase money supply using discount rates it would?

a)

Lower the rate

b)

Increase the rate

c)

Leave the rate unchanged

d)

None of the above

83.

If the Federal Reserve wanted to increase the money supply using open market operations it would?

a)

Buy bonds

b)

Sell bonds

c)

Neither sell nor buy bonds

d)

None of the above

84.

Which of the following situations would signal the need for expansionary (easy) monetary policy?

a)

Rising inflation, extremely low unemployment, economic recovery

b)

Falling GDP, rising unemployment, economic recession

c)

Rising inflation, rising unemployment, economic recovery

d)

Increasing GDP, extremely low unemployment, economic recession

85.

Which of the following situations would signal the need for restrictive (tight) monetary policy?

a)

Rising inflation, extremely low unemployment, economic recovery

b)

Falling GDP, rising unemployment, economic recession

c)

Rising inflation, rising unemployment, economic recovery

d)

GDP extremely low unemployment, economic recession

86.

Which of the following would be an example of fiscal policy?

a)

An increase in the reserve requirement

b)

An increase in federal spending

c)

The selling of bonds on the open market

d)

A decrease in the discount rate

87.

Which of the following is NOT subject to control by the Federal Reserve?

a)

Taxes

b)

Money supply

c)

Reserves in banks

d)

Interest rates

88.

Why will $1,000 deposited in a bank “create” money through the multiplier effect?

a)

The $1,000 earns interest for the depositor

b)

The Federal Reserve will match it with $1,000 of reserves

c)

The bank will earn interest on the money it loans

d)

Some of the deposit will be loaned, spent, and then redeposited

89.

India can produce 100 million tons of cotton and China can produce 150 million tons of cotton. China has:

a)

A trade surplus

b)

An absolute advantage

c)

A comparative advantage

d)

A surplus

90.

According to the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in a nation where:

a)

The opportunity costs of production are lower than that of another country

b)

The absolute advantage is greatest

c)

The production possibilities curve shows a greater slope

d)

None of the above

91.

This is the macroeconomic approach that asserts fiscal policies can use tax income & borrowing to increase aggregate demand as a means of stabilizing market economic growth, inflation, & unemployment.

a)

laissez-faire economics

b)

demand-side economy theory

c)

supply-side economic theory

d)

central planning

92.

This is the macroeconomic approach that asserts federal regulations, spending, and taxes should be reduced to stimulate economic growth and aggregate demand by lowering the cost of production & therefore market price for goods. Furthermore, it held that full employment contributed to inflation, and that a monetary authority should be charged with regulating the money supply to stabilize inflation, employment, and growth.

a)

laissez-faire economics

b)

demand-side economy theory

c)

supply-side economy theory

d)

central planning

93.

This was the Nobel-prize winning American economist who, in the 1970s, helped develop the contemporary monetary and fiscal approaches used by most world central banks.

a)

John Keynes

b)

Adam Smith

c)

Milton Friedman

d)

Karl Marx

94.

This was term used to describe the return of pro-laissez-faire economic policies in the 1970s and 1980s following the period of high unemployment and high inflation known as stagflation of the 1970s.

a)

neo-conservatism

b)

socialism

c)

globalization

d)

neo-liberalism

95.

This is the term used to describe the entity or person that dictates an economy’s monetary policy.

a)

federal bank

b)

monetary authority

c)

money supply

d)

central bank

96.

Which of the following makes the primary monetary policy decisions for the Federal Resource System?

a)

Board of Governors

b)

Chamber of Commerce

c)

Bank of America

d)

U.S. Treasury

97.

This is an economy centered around information-based jobs rather than traditional industrial production.

a)

manufacturing economy

b)

agricultural economy

c)

commercial economy

d)

knowledge economy

98.

The development of free-trade policies & organizations following World War II contributed to most significantly to which of the following:

a)

globalization

b)

the Cold War

c)

stagflation

d)

the Great Recession

99.

This is the term used to describe the relocation of domestic production to foreign countries.

a)

outsourcing

b)

exporting

c)

importing

d)

insourcing

100.

Which of the following U.S. monetary practices was ended by President Richard M. Nixon in 1971?

a)

the Federal Reserve System

b)

the gold standard

c)

the petrodollar

d)

free trade policies