Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

MOCK EOC

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In which structure is protein synthesized?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

2.

Which cellular structure helps to maintain homeostasis by controlling the transportation of substances into and out of the cell?

a)

vacuole

b)

cell wall

c)

mitochondrion

d)

cell membrane

3.

Tanisha draws a diagram representing the various relationships between organisms in a marsh ecosystem. From the relationships shown, she hypothesizes that an increase in the seaside sparrow population could reduce the number of clapper rails in the ecosystem. Which statement BEST explains Tanisha’s hypothesis?

a)

Both seaside sparrows and clapper rails breed in the same area.

b)

Seaside sparrows and clapper rails compete for similar resources.

c)

Seaside sparrows and clapper rails have a predator-prey relationship.

d)

Both seaside sparrows and clapper rails increase ecosystem biomass.

4.

If worldwide deforestation is not regulated, what could most likely result?

a)

Acid rain could lower the pH of rivers and lakes to dangerous levels for aquatic life.

b)

CO₂ levels in the atmosphere could increase and contribute to global warming problems.

c)

Plants and animals could become better adapted to living in desert conditions.

d)

Future generations of humans could have an excess of wood and paper products.

5.

A strand of DNA has these bases: AGC CAT GTA TAC. What is the complementary strand of DNA?

a)

ACG GAT CTA TAG

b)

TCG GTA CAT ATG

c)

TGC CTA GAT ATC

d)

UCG CUA CAU AUG

6.

Place the following terms in the correct order for protein synthesis: protein, amino acid, DNA, and mRNA.

a)

DNA, mRNA, amino acids, protein

b)

mRNA, DNA, protein, amino acids

c)

DNA, protein, mRNA, amino acids

d)

Protein, amino acids, mRNA, DNA

7.

This human cell has a 70% water concentration. It was placed into a solution of distilled water. Over time, what will happen to the cell?

a)

A. Water will move from the cell into the beaker, causing the cell to shrink.

b)

B. Salt will move from the cell into the beaker, causing the cell to shrink.

c)

C. Water will move into the cell from the beaker, causing the cell to swell.

d)

D. Salt will move into the cell, causing the cell to swell.

8.

A segment of DNA has this sequence: ATA GCA CAT GTA. What is the mRNA sequence transcribed from this segment?

a)

TAT CGT GTA CAT

b)

TAT GCT CTA GAT

c)

UAU CGU GUA CAU

d)

UAU GCU CUA CAU

9.

Which amino acids are coded for by an mRNA segment that reads CAG GUG?

a)

Arginine and valine

b)

Isoleucine and arginine

c)

Glutamine and valine

d)

Valine and histidine

10.

Based on the DNA fingerprint, which male is the father of the child?

a)

Male 1

b)

Male 2

c)

It cannot be determined based on the test

d)

Neither male 1 nor male 2

11.

Based on the cladogram below, which two species have the most amino acids in common?

a)

II & VI

b)

III & IV

c)

I & II

d)

I & V

12.

Lilly pads have a waxy substance on their exterior, allowing them to float in the water. Which biological molecule makes up the waxy exterior?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic acids

13.

Both graphs represent different population growth models. In Graph 1, there are no external factors acting on a population. What is the most likely factor causing the change in Graph 2?

a)

the maximum rate of adaptation

b)

the limitation of genetic diversity

c)

the maximum rate of reproduction

d)

the limitation of available resources

14.

Which best describes the long term effects of increased carbon dioxide emissions?

a)

There will be decreased solar activity.

b)

Temperatures on Earth will decrease.

c)

Temperatures on Earth will increase.

d)

Less carbon dioxide will dissolve into oceans.

15.

Which organisms change gaseous carbon from the environment into solid carbon for living organisms?

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 4

d)

3 and 4

16.

Which conclusion can be made based on this data?

a)

The white fur mutation is a favorable trait in an environment with no snow.

b)

When in a snowy environment, the white fur mutation is a favorable trait compared to the brown fur.

c)

When in a snowy environment, the brown fur mutation is a favorable trait compared to the white fur.

d)

Rabbits will change fur color based on the surrounding environment.

17.

Check the three statements that must be true in order for natural selection to occur in the rabbit population. Choose three answers.

a)

There is genetic variation within the rabbit population.

b)

All organisms in the rabbit population are genetically similar.

c)

Resources are unlimited and the rabbits do not need to compete.

d)

The rabbits must compete for limited resources.

e)

Rabbits with favorable adaptations reproduce and pass on their genes.

18.

Natural selection led to the change in the population by acting on a rabbit's...

a)

predators.

b)

prey.

c)

genotype.

d)

phenotype.

19.

Predict what would happen to the rabbit population in generations 7 - 10 if the environment changed back to "no snow."

a)

There would be an increase in white furred rabbits.

b)

There would be a decrease in white furred rabbits.

c)

There would be no change in the rabbit population.

d)

The wolves would eat all of the rabbits.

20.

Based on the data, what trait contributed to the rabbits' fitness?

a)

Longer teeth to access food in the snow.

b)

Thicker fur to withstand the cold temperatures.

c)

Shorter ears to minimize heat loss.

d)

Fur color that allows camouflage in the snow.

21.

What is the most likely outcome from DNA mutation in an organism?

a)

daughter cells created

b)

different proteins assembled

c)

fewer daughter cells created

d)

cell becomes exposed to radiation

22.

What is the best explanation for the continual changes in the classification system of organisms?

a)

All organisms struggle for existence and become extinct

b)

All organisms compete to be at the top of the food chain

c)

Technological advances have allowed scientists to better compare organisms

d)

More species have been discovered, but scientists have not analyzed all the data

23.

Which statement best compares aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

a)

Less ATP is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration

b)

More water is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration

c)

More oxygen is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration

d)

Less lactic acid is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration

24.

Use the image below to answer the question. Genetic data suggest many frog species that live in Madagascar and India share a common ancestor that lived on the India-Madagascar landmass. Which statement BEST describes the divergence of frog species found in India and Madagascar?

a)

Breeding preferences of the frogs prevented interbreeding between frogs, resulting in new species.

b)

Geographic separation led to splitting of the original species, resulting in a new species in each location.

c)

The frog species occupied different habitats within the same geographic areas, resulting in new species.

d)

Different mating seasons led to the divergence of the gene pool, resulting in a new species at each location.

25.

Which of the following statements are true regarding enzymes? Select four responses.

a)

Enzymes are only able to fit one specific substrate in their active site.

b)

Enzymes are reusable, because the active site never changes shape.

c)

Enzymes are required by all living organisms to catalyze their metabolic reactions.

d)

Each enzyme has an optimum environment and can become denatured if pH or temperature changes too much.

e)

The active site of one enzyme can fit with a variety of substrates.

26.

A blood sample from an individual will produce a unique DNA fingerprint. Which is the best reason for this occurrence?

a)

Each individual has a unique set of hormones in their cells.

b)

Each individual has a unique set of enzymes in their cells.

c)

Each individual has a unique sequence of organelles in their cells.

d)

Each individual has a unique sequence of nucleotides in their cells.

27.

Which best describes organisms that have had parts of their DNA replaced with that of a different organism?

a)

Cloned organisms

b)

Sexual organisms

c)

Asexual organisms

d)

Transgenic organisms

28.

What might the examination of tusks, teeth, and beaks among animals indicate about their evolutionary relationships?

a)

Similar structures indicate the animals lived at the same time.

b)

Similar structures indicate the animals lived in similar climates.

c)

The type of structure present may indicate how closely animals are related evolutionarily.

d)

The type of structure present and its size helps indicate how these animals are related to animals with no teeth.

29.

In which way does meiosis most likely increase genetic variation?

a)

It prevents crossing over from occurring prior to cell division.

b)

It divides the maternal and paternal chromosomes randomly into gametes.

c)

It proceeds at a slower rate and allows for more mutations.

d)

It keeps the maternal and paternal chromatids together in a cell.

30.

What is the chance of two parents with blood types AB and O producing an offspring with blood type O?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

31.

Which process involves a cell interpreting genetic information from DNA?

a)

fertilization

b)

photosynthesis

c)

protein synthesis

d)

cellular respiration

32.

Which letter represents the enzyme in the diagram below?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

33.

Which of the following is the most direct impact of burning fossil fuels for energy production in agriculture?

a)

Increased atmospheric emissions leading to acid rain

b)

Increased run-off of pollutants into surface water

c)

Decreased availability of water to irrigate crops

d)

Increased deforestation and habitat loss

34.

What immediate impact can clearing land for agriculture have on an ecosystem?

a)

It increases the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.

b)

It results in habitat loss, which can cause a decrease in biodiversity.

c)

It increases the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, causing global warming.

d)

It causes sea levels to rise, which could result in flooding and habitat destruction.

35.

What would most likely result if more farms were developed along river basins in North Carolina?

a)

An increase in water pollution

b)

An increase in the average rainfall

c)

An increase in invasive species

d)

An increase in severe weather events

36.

Raising livestock, such as sheep and cattle, results in the production of large amounts of methane gas. Methane has a similar effect in the atmosphere as carbon dioxide. As more livestock are raised to provide meat-based diets for humans, what is most likely the effect of the increase in methane?

a)

Acid rain

b)

Deforestation

c)

Ozone depletion

d)

Water pollution

37.

Which of the following is an impact of using chemical pesticides?

a)

The rate of natural selection is increased in pests with genetic resistance.

b)

The rate of natural selection is decreased in pests with genetic resistance.

c)

Some pests will choose to get used to the pesticide.

d)

The pesticides will kill the crop plants.

38.

Which is the result of mitosis?

a)

two identical cells

b)

four unique cells

c)

a decrease in genes

d)

a new protein

39.

The primary source of energy for nearly all life is the Sun. Which BEST describes how autotrophs utilize this energy?

a)

Autotrophs convert light energy into chemical energy.

b)

Autotrophs convert cellular energy into organic compounds.

c)

Autotrophs use electromagnetic energy to release heat.

d)

Autotrophs use mechanical energy to release water.

40.

Which of the following is an impact of using chemical pesticides?

a)

The rate of natural selection is increased in pests with genetic resistance.

b)

The rate of natural selection is decreased in pests with genetic resistance.

c)

Some pests will choose to get used to the pesticide. 

d)

The pesticides will kill the crop plants. 

41.

Which is the result of mitosis?

a)

two identical cells

b)

four unique cells

c)

a dcecrease in genes

d)

a new protein

42.

The primary source of energy for nearly all life is the Sun. Which BEST describes how autotrophs utilize this energy?

a)

Autotrophs use mechanical energy to release water.

b)

Autotrophs use electromagnetic energy to release heat.

c)

Autotrophs convert cellular energy into organic compounds.

d)

Autotrophs convert light energy into chemical energy.

43.

The glucose molecules are moving into the cell in order to reach...

a)

ATP

b)

The concentration gradient

c)

homeostasis

d)

osmosis

44.

Use the model. How does Cell X compare to Cell Y?

a)

Cell X is an animal cell, cell Y is a plant cell.

b)

Cell X is prokaryotic, cell Y is eukaryotic.

c)

Cell X is eukaryotic, cell Y is prokaryotic.

d)

Cell X is a plant cell, cell Y is an animal cell.

45.

Which would most likely increase a person’s likelihood of developing heart disease?

a)

A vegetarian diet

b)

Exercising regularly

c)

Restricting salt intake

d)

A diet high in fat and cholesterol

46.

Which is an example of cell differentiation?

a)

All mammal cells are identical

b)

All cells have cilia at the adult stage.

c)


The DNA is different in all somatic cells.

d)

Fat cells have a different job than nerve cells.

47.

What trait is shared among mammals, birds, and lizards?

a)

See UV Light

b)

Amniotic Egg

c)

Spiny-Ray Fins

d)

Molt Exoskeleton