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Midterm Review 2026

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The coastal plains region of NC is divided into two sub-regions called:

a)

Tidewater & Inner Coastal Plains

b)

Inner Coastal Plains & Sandhills

c)

Tidewater & Sandhills

d)

Tidewater & Piedmont

2.

The climate of the mountain region of NC can best be described as:

a)

longer winters & cool due to high elevation

b)

humid, densely forested, & swampy

c)

smoky & blue ridge-y

d)

hot due to the high elevation

3.

The geography of the mountain region of NC is/has:

a)

mostly rocky & forested

b)

rolling hills & streams

c)

flat & suitable for farming

d)

deep water bays & fishing opportunities

4.

The economy of the mountain region of NC thrives on:

a)

tourism & fishing

b)

farming & animal herding

c)

industrial complexes

d)

universities & major cities like Charlotte

5.

The climate of the Piedmont region of NC can best be described as:

a)

mild

b)

cool

c)

rainy

d)

dry & very hot

6.

The geography of the Piedmont region of NC is/has:

a)

rolling hills, hardwood forests, minerals, red clay soil, & streams

b)

large mountains with light, sandy soil

c)

beaches, swamps, & islands

d)

flat open land with rivers & few trees

7.

Describe the economy of the Piedmont region in NC.

a)

Industrialized, banking, chemicals, services, & tech

b)

Transportation-dependent with few job opportunities

c)

Tourism & small towns

d)

Large-scale agriculture

8.

The climate of the coastal plains of NC is:

a)

mild, but can be warmer or windier due to proximity to the Atlantic Ocean

b)

hot, hazy, & humid due to its proximity to the mountains

c)

swampy, cold, & uninhabitable

d)

rainy & cold

9.

Relative to the other regions of NC, the geography of the Coastal Plains region has more:

a)

rivers useful for transportation

b)

red, clay-like soil useful for farming

c)

light, rich soil due to high elevation

d)

black soil due to volcanic activity

10.

The economy of the Coastal Plains of NC depends on:

a)

tourism, fishing, cargo ships, & beach-front property

b)

industrialized cities & factories

c)

tourism & camping in dense forests along the coast

d)

hunting, foraging, & living off the land

11.

An example of checks & balances is:

a)

the president can veto a bill that was passed by the Legislative Branch

b)

the president can be replaced anytime

c)

the Supreme Court declares war

d)

the House of Representatives judges the laws

12.

Manifest Destiny was:

a)

the idea that the U.S. was destined to expand westward

b)

a phrase used to encourage the War of 1812

c)

the belief that the U.S. was destined to be free of King George III

d)

the belief that the U.S. would expand eastward

13.

Why does the U.S. government have a system of checks & balances?

a)

To make sure one branch isn't more powerful than another

b)

To make sure the Executive Branch has all the power

c)

To make sure the Legislative Branch has two houses

d)

To check on national debt & balance our budgets

14.

What does the Judicial Branch do?

a)

Judges & interprets laws

b)

Makes laws

c)

Coins money

d)

Imposes taxation

15.

What does the Legislative Branch do?

a)

Makes laws

b)

Judges laws

c)

Enforces laws

d)

Ignores laws

16.

What is the Executive Branch's main job?

a)

Enforcing laws

b)

Making laws

c)

Judging laws

d)

Imposing laws

17.

What is Federalism?

a)

A system in which power is shared between the national & state governments

b)

A system that gives all power to the national government

c)

A system that allowed slavery to expand into California

d)

A system that gives all power to state governments

18.

Why did some people fear the new Constitution?

a)

Some feared a strong central government

b)

Some did not want Great Britain in charge anymore

c)

Some feared France would promote tyranny

d)

Some feared democracy

19.

What document was added to the Constitution that allowed for its final ratification?

a)

Bill of Rights

b)

Declaration of Independence

c)

Mayflower Compact

d)

Articles of Confederation

20.

What was an Anti-Federalist?

a)

Someone who did not support the newly-written U.S. Constitution & wanted to add a Bill of Rights to it

b)

Someone who did support the newly-written U.S. Constitution & wanted to ratify it in its original form

c)

Someone who did not support the Articles of Confederation

d)

Someone who wanted to remain loyal to Great Britain

21.

What was a Federalist?

a)

Someone who supported the newly-written Constitution of the U.S. & wanted it to be ratified in its original form

b)

Someone who did not support the newly-written Constitution of the U.S. & wanted to add a Bill of Rights to it

c)

Someone who wanted to be a patriot

d)

Someone who wanted to support France

22.

What was the Quartering Act?

a)

An act that required colonists to house British troops

b)

An act that allowed British tax collectors to audit (financially examine) the colonists

c)

An act that closed the Boston Harbor as punishment for the Boston Tea Party

d)

An act that petitioned women to collect quarters to support patriot troops

23.

What were the Intolerable Acts?

a)

Acts that were issued in response to the Boston Tea Party that closed the Boston Harbor

b)

Allowed for British troops to look for smuggled goods

c)

Allowed colonists to directly elect political representatives

d)

Acts that prevented settlement west of the Appalachian Mountains

24.

What was the Edenton Tea Party?

a)

One of the earliest attempts at political activism by women; organized by Penelope Barker & pledged to boycott British tea & dresses

b)

An event in which colonists dressed as Natives & threw chests of British tea into the Boston Harbor

c)

An event where women drank tea & discussed their support for loyalists

d)

An event where Red Coats searched the homes of Bostonians for black market tea

25.

What was the main purpose of the Mecklenburg Declaration of Independence?

a)

It was the first call for independence from Great Britain by North Carolina

b)

It gave up property rights in Great Britain

c)

It was a set of rules & laws for the colony of North Carolina

d)

It was a weak document that was never enforced

26.

What are the three basic rights that citizens should have according to the Declaration of Independence?

a)

Life, liberty, & the pursuit of happiness

b)

Free speech, the right to bear arms, & the right to free trade

c)

No slavery, no laws, & democracy

d)

Life, liberty, & democracy

27.

What were two main effects of the French & Indian War on the colonists? (SELECT 2 ANSWERS)

a)

The colonists were taxed & had no say in British Parliament

b)

The Proclamation Line closed settlement west of the Appalachian Mountains

c)

The colonists were forced to give up smuggled goods

d)

The colonists could not trade with Britain & France

28.

What was the geography like of the Southern Colonies (Virginia, Maryland, North & South Carolina, & Georgia)?

a)

Broad, coastal plain with hills & covered with forests

b)

Contained mostly mountains

c)

Sandy with many beaches

d)

Swift rolling streams with rocky soil

29.

What was the economy like of the Southern Colonies (Virginia, Maryland, North & South Carolina, & Georgia)?

a)

Based on agriculture

b)

Based on transportation

c)

Based on tourism

d)

Based on manufacturing

30.

What was the climate like in the Middle Colonies (Delaware, Pennsylvania, New Jersey, & New York)?

a)

Warmer than the New England colonies, which allowed for a longer growing season

b)

Colder because they are closer to Canada

c)

Warmer because they are in the South

d)

Mild because they are in the South

31.

What was the climate like in the Southern Colonies (Virginia, Maryland, North & South Carolina, & Georgia)?

a)

Humid, warm, & allowed for a long growing season

b)

Cooler due to higher elevations

c)

Mild with short growing seasons

d)

Tropical without agricultural opportunity

32.

What did the economy consist of in the Middle Colonies (Delaware, Pennsylvania, New Jersey, & New York)?

a)

Mostly farming

b)

Mostly tourism

c)

Mostly transportation

d)

Mostly manufacturing

33.

What is the geography like in the Middle Colonies (Delaware, Pennsylvania, New Jersey, & New York)?

a)

Hills & flat land with good soil

b)

Mostly rocky & forested

c)

Mostly mountains

d)

Mostly swampy

34.

What is the economy based on in the New England colonies (New Hampshire, Rhode Island, Massachusetts, & Connecticut)?

a)

Manufacturing & trade

b)

Transportation

c)

Farming

d)

Slavery

35.

What is the geography like of the New England colonies (New Hampshire, Rhode Island, Massachusetts, & Connecticut)?

a)

Mostly hills & rocky soil

b)

Mostly forested

c)

Mostly mountains

d)

Mostly capes & sounds

36.

Describe the location & climate of the New England colonies.

a)

Further north; colder & wetter

b)

Further south; mild & humid

c)

Further west; warmer & rainy

d)

Further north; mild & dry

37.

What was the real name of the "Lost Colony" led by Sir Walter Raleigh?

a)

Roanoke Island

b)

Jamestown

c)

Plymouth

d)

Boston

38.

What was the Middle Passage?

a)

Part of the Atlantic Slave Trade (triangular trade) system that brought enslaved people from West Africa to the West Indies and Americas

b)

The exchange of plants, animals, & diseases during the Columbian Exchange

c)

The route Sir Francis Drake took when seeking the Northwest Passage

d)

A route to quickly move from the coastal plains to the mountains of North Carolina

39.

How did/do indigenous people view/treat land?

a)

Land is sacred, public, & connected to the earth

b)

Land is meant to be profited off of

c)

It's okay to destroy natural resources for scientific innovation

d)

Animals can be hunted for sport

40.

How did early colonial Europeans value & view land?

a)

Hunted for sport on it & believed it was for personal use

b)

Believed land was sacred

c)

Had a spiritual connection to all living things

d)

Valued public land ownership & conservation

41.

What are the three regions of North Carolina from west to east?

a)

Mountains, Piedmont, Coastal Plains

b)

Coastal Plains, Piedmont, Mountains

c)

Mountains, Coastal Plains, Piedmont

d)

Piedmont, Sand Hills, Coastal Plains

42.

What was it about the Southern colonies/states that made them ideal locations for plantations and growing cash crops?

a)

The geography

b)

The culture

c)

The government structure

d)

The religion

43.

How did President Andrew Jackson justify the Indian Removal Act?

a)

He claimed it would allow Native Americans to preserve their culture in new lands.

b)

He argued that Native American tribes had no legal rights to their land.

c)

He said it would create peace between Native American tribes and white settlers.

d)

He believed Native Americans would be better off assimilating into American society.

44.

Which of the following actions taken by American colonists before the Revolutionary War is an example of a boycott?

a)

Refusing to buy British tea after the passage of the Tea Act

b)

Participating in town meetings to discuss British policies

c)

Writing letters to King George III to ask him to stop taxing the colonists

d)

Joining the Continental Army to fight the British

45.

Which of the following rights is NOT protected by the First Amendment?

a)

Freedom to vote

b)

Freedom of assembly

c)

Freedom of religion

d)

Freedom of the press

46.

Which of the following statements best explains the Second Amendment?

a)

It gives citizens the right to own and carry weapons for protection.

b)

It allows people to speak freely without punishment.

c)

It protects the right to a fair trial by jury.

d)

It guarantees freedom of religion and the press.

47.

The Fourth Amendment protects citizens from which of the following?

a)

Unfair searches and seizures without a warrant

b)

Being forced to serve in the military

c)

Cruel and unusual punishment

d)

Paying taxes to the government

48.

Which of the following scenarios would violate the Eighth Amendment?

a)

A judge orders a person to pay $1 million in fines for stealing a loaf of bread.

b)

A judge sentences someone to five years in prison after a fair trial.

c)

A police officer searches someone's car without a warrant.

d)

A person is forced to testify against themselves at their own trial.

49.

Which of the following is protected by the Eighth Amendment?

a)

Protection from cruel and unusual punishment

b)

The right to bear arms

c)

The right to a fair trial

d)

Freedom of religion

50.

What is the main difference between the Triangular Trade System and the Columbian Exchange?

a)

The Columbian Exchange involved cultural exchanges, while the Triangular Trade focused on trading enslaved people and goods.

b)

The Triangular Trade focused on spreading ideas, while the Columbian Exchange only involved people.

c)

The Triangular Trade was a peaceful exchange of goods, while the Columbian Exchange caused conflicts.

d)

The Columbian Exchange only affected Europe, while the Triangular Trade affected the entire world.

51.

What is the Bill of Rights?

a)

The first ten amendments to the Constitution

b)

The first amendment to the Constitution

c)

The part of the Constitution that the Federalists insisted on adding

d)

The introduction (or "Preamble") to the Constitution

52.

A news website accidentally publishes an incorrect statistic about a recent election. Later, a political group creates a fake report with made-up numbers to make voters believe their candidate is winning. Which statement is correct?

a)

Both the website error and the fake report are examples of misinformation.

b)

The website error is misinformation; the fake report is disinformation.

c)

Both the website error and the fake report are examples of disinformation.

d)

Neither is false information because one comes from a news source.

53.

Josie reads an article that matches her opinion about a current event. She shares it on social media without checking the facts, and ignores other articles that provide evidence contradicting her view. Which cognitive bias is Josie showing?

a)

Dunning-Kruger effect – because she overestimates her understanding of the topic

b)

Anchoring bias – because she relies on the first article she read

c)

Confirmation bias – because she favors information that confirms her existing beliefs

d)

Bandwagon effect – because she shares information that everyone else likes