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Cybersecurity I - 25-26 Final Exam

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If an attack on the availability of a server is coming from multiple locations it is likely what type of attack?

a)

DDoS

b)

DoS

c)

MitM

d)

AitM

2.

If a switching loop is causing a broadcast storm condition on a network, what component of the CIA triad is at risk?

a)

Information

b)

Credibility

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Availability

3.

What is the primary difference between DoS and DDoS attacks?

a)

DoS attacks exploit insecure protocols.

b)

DDoS attacks utilize multiple agents to amplify traffic.

c)

DoS attacks utilize multiple agents in order to hide the source code.

d)

DDoS attacks involve flooding a server with SYN packets.

4.

What type of server provides an IP address for a domain name lookup?

a)

DOCSIS

b)

HTTP

c)

DHCP

d)

DNS

5.

What is the name for a threat actor manipulating the records of a DNS server in order to redirect traffic to a malicious location?

a)

DNS poisoning

b)

DNS trafficking

c)

Domain theft

d)

Registration spoofing

6.

How does DNSSEC help prevent DNS poisoning attacks?

a)

By translating between domain names and IP addresses

b)

By securing DNS records with digital signatures

c)

By redirecting users to malicious websites

d)

By checking domain reputations for spam or malicious files

7.

If an end user finds that there are two SSIDs listed for the company WiFi, what type of attack may be taking place?

a)

Evil Twin attack

b)

Rogue WiFi

c)

Starbucks attack

d)

DoS

8.

What type of attack involves attempting to crack passwords by systematically trying all combinations one after the other?

a)

Pass the Hash Attach

b)

Dictionary Attack

c)

Brute-Force Attack

d)

Rainbow Attack

9.

What defense measure can help mitigate the effects of an On-Path/Adversary-in-the-Middle (AiTM) attack on a wireless network?

a)

Using a VPN

b)

Configuring alerts for duplicate MAC addresses

c)

Using up-to-date browsers

d)

Avoiding sites not utilizing HTTPS

10.

Which transport method is best for securing wireless communications?

a)

WPA2

b)

WEP

c)

WEP3

d)

WPA3

11.

What is the difference between an IDS and an IPS?

a)

An IDS will make changes to prevent the attack where an IPS will only sent an alert.

b)

An IPS will make changes to prevent the attack where an IDS will only sent an alert.

c)

An IDS will cause additional latency on the network, an IPS will not.

d)

An IPS is legacy and shouldn't be used.

12.

What are ACLs commonly used for in network security?

a)

Authenticating email senders

b)

Filtering DNS queries

c)

Controlling and filtering network traffic

d)

Providing encryption for email communication

13.

What does a heat map visualize in the context of wireless networking?

a)

Physical obstacles in the environment

b)

Coverage areas and signal strength

c)

Number of connected devices

d)

Encryption protocols used

14.

How does a buffer overflow vulnerability typically manifest in a program?

a)

It is a type of phishing attack that targets email users.

b)

It occurs when a program writes more data to a buffer than it can hold, causing data to overflow into adjacent memory.

c)

It is a method used to optimize the performance of a database.

d)

It happens when an attacker intercepts network traffic to steal sensitive information.

15.

How does an integer overflow attack differ from a buffer overflow attack?

a)

Integer overflow attacks target numerical variables, while buffer overflow attacks target string variables.

b)

Integer overflow attacks involve exceeding the capacity of numerical variables, leading to unintended results.

c)

Buffer overflow attacks exploit the speed of data writing in memory, while integer overflow attacks exploit data validation processes.

d)

Integer overflow attacks involve manipulating cookies, while buffer overflow attacks involve hijacking URLs.

16.

How can a race condition lead to unexpected behavior in a program?

a)

By allowing unauthorized access to system resources.

b)

By causing multiple threads to access shared data simultaneously without proper synchronization.

c)

By introducing syntax errors in the code.

d)

By corrupting the file system during a software update.

17.

What is a replay attack?

a)

A method to guess passwords by asking the user directly

b)

Injecting malicious code into an application

c)

Capturing and reusing network packets to gain unauthorized access

d)

Exploiting vulnerabilities in the directory structure of a website

18.

What is a "pass the hash" attack?

a)

Guessing passwords by hashing them

b)

Sending hashed passwords to a server for authentication

c)

Intercepting password hashes and using them to gain access

d)

Storing password hashes securely

19.

What is a key difference between Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) and Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attacks?

a)

XSS targets the user's browser, while CSRF targets the user's session.

b)

XSS requires user interaction, while CSRF does not.

c)

XSS involves executing scripts in the user's browser, while CSRF tricks the user into submitting a request.

d)

XSS is a server-side vulnerability, while CSRF is a client-side vulnerability.

20.

What is one defense against SQL Injection attacks?

a)

Use input validation on submitted queries.

b)
Disable all database access for users.
c)

Limit input data to less than 10 characters.

d)
Use only basic SQL commands.
21.

What does code signing ensure regarding software code?

a)

It guarantees the code's performance

b)

It confirms the code's integrity and authenticity

c)

It determines the code's compatibility with different platforms

d)

It enhances the code's readability

22.

How does monitoring contribute to cybersecurity?

a)

By increasing system downtime

b)

By reducing the need for security measures

c)

By analyzing logs and detecting suspicious activities

d)

By decreasing system performance

23.

Placing "No Trespassing" signs are a useful deterrent, but what drawback is there to using them?

a)

It deters everybody.

b)

It provides clear instructions for authorized personnel.

c)

Threat actors anticipate that it is secured for a reason.

d)

It eliminates the need for security guards.

24.

How does an access badge contribute to physical security?

a)

By eliminating blind spots in video surveillance.

b)

By providing weight sensors for hardware detection.

c)

By distinguishing personnel and correlating logs between physical and digital worlds.

d)

By providing access to restricted areas without authentication.

25.

What is one method to prevent theft of information through dumpster diving?

a)
Shredding documents before disposal.
b)
Recycling documents without checking
c)

Putting documents in sealed envelopes

d)
Storing sensitive information in unlocked cabinets
26.

Locking an account after a defined number of incorrect attempts will help deter which type of attack?

a)

Brute-Force

b)

DDoS

c)

MitM

d)

Tailgating

27.

What is an example of an environmental attack?

a)

Disabling the HVAC system.

b)

Manipulating computer hardware components.

c)

Intercepting communication by tapping into undersea network cables.

d)

Breaking into a remote location data center.

28.

Which deployment model allows employees to use their personal devices for work purposes?

a)

Bring Your Own Device

b)

Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled

c)

Choose Your Own Device

d)

Company-Owned Device

29.

What is the term used to describe the installation of applications on a mobile device from unofficial sources?

a)

Rooting

b)

Jailbreaking

c)

Side-loading

d)

Misconfiguration

30.

What is the process called when users remove software restrictions on their mobile devices to gain elevated privileges?

a)

Rooting

b)

Jailbreaking

c)

Side-loading

d)

Misconfiguration

31.

What is a characteristic of zero-day vulnerabilities?

a)

Known to the software or hardware vendor

b)

Limited time window between discovery and patch release

c)

Existence of pre-existing security measures or signatures

d)

Exploited by attackers using traditional security mechanisms

32.

What threat is there from using systems after end-of-life?

(a)  

33.

What is a characteristic of VM escape vulnerability?

a)

Unauthorized access to the host system from a virtual machine

b)

Insecure handling of virtualized resources

c)

Weaknesses in virtualization technologies

d)

Loss of visibility in cloud infrastructure

34.

Which type of vulnerability occurs when a user or process gains unauthorized access to higher-level privileges?

a)

Privilege Escalation

b)

Denial-of-Service (DoS) Attack

c)

Buffer Overflow

d)

SQL Injection

35.

SQL stands for:

a)

Secure Query Language

b)

Structured Query Language

c)

Server Query Language

d)

System Query Language

36.

What is the primary purpose of Group Policy in operating system security?

a)

Monitoring user behavior

b)

Providing encryption for data transfers

c)

Enforcing security settings and configurations

d)

Detecting changes to files and file systems

37.

What is a good defense against ransomware attacks?

a)

Paying the ransom.

b)

Ignoring the ransom demands.

c)

Reporting the attack to law enforcement.

d)

Prevention and data backups.

38.

What is the primary characteristic of trojan malware?

a)

It self-replicates

b)

It encrypts information on systems

c)

It utilizes authorized programs to subvert system defenses

d)

It records user keystrokes

39.

What distinguishes worms from viruses?

a)

Worms attach themselves to system processes

b)

Worms rely on authorized programs to spread

c)

Worms can self-replicate without relying on programs

d)

Worms encrypt information on systems

40.

If your computer is activated from a Command and Control server to be part of an attack, it is considered part of a ____________?

a)

bot-net

b)

data swarm

c)

broadcast storm

d)

intelligence leak

41.

Why are keyloggers not affected by encryption protection?

a)

Because they intercept keyboard inputs before encryption takes place

b)

Because they are designed to bypass encryption algorithms

c)

Because they only capture unencrypted data

d)

Because they are immune to all security measures

42.

How can password managers help protect against keyloggers?

a)

By disabling all keyboard inputs

b)

By encrypting keyboard inputs before they reach the computer

c)

By not requiring typing the saved password each time for access

d)

By installing additional security measures on the computer

43.

What is a recommended defense against viruses?

a)

Implementing least privilege and monitoring file modifications.

b)

Utilizing intrusion detection and prevention systems.

c)

Restricting the level of privilege users and processes natively run in.

d)

All of the above.

44.

What is a common defense measure against both viruses and worms?

a)

Regularly updating antivirus software.

b)

Disabling system processes to prevent malware attachment.

c)

Encrypting all files on the computer to prevent unauthorized access.

d)

Ignoring system alerts and error messages.

45.

How does adware affect computer performance?

a)

It speeds up computer performance by optimizing system resources.

b)

It slows down computer performance by increasing network traffic.

c)

It has no impact on computer performance.

d)

It improves system functions by providing additional features.

46.

What type of data does spyware typically monitor?

a)

Website visit history and browsing habits.

b)

System resource usage.

c)

Installed software applications.

d)

Computer hardware specifications.

47.

What is a logic bomb?

a)

A type of malware that encrypts sensitive data on a computer system.

b)

A piece of code that waits for specific conditions to be met before executing.

c)

A hardware device used to trigger system failures.

d)

A security measure designed to prevent unauthorized access to computer networks.

48.

Who is likely to install a logic bomb as an insider threat?

a)

A cybersecurity expert hired to protect the company's network.

b)

A disgruntled employee with privileged access to computer systems.

c)

An external hacker attempting to breach the company's security.

d)

A competitor trying to sabotage the company's operations.

49.

Why are rootkits difficult to detect?

a)

Because they only target outdated operating systems.

b)

Because they activate after the operating system boots up.

c)

Because they alter system files and data reports to avoid detection.

d)

Because they are only installed on Linux/Unix systems.

50.

What is the purpose of Secure Boot in defending against rootkits?

a)

To prevent unauthorized access to computer hardware.

b)

To detect tampering with boot loaders and key operating system files.

c)

To enhance computer performance.

d)

To encrypt system files and data reports.

51.

What is a backdoor in the context of cybersecurity?

a)

A type of malware that steals sensitive information.

b)

A means to access a system or data bypassing normal security controls.

c)

A computer program that replicates itself and spreads to other computers.

d)

A hardware device used to block unauthorized network traffic.

52.

What can a hacker do once a Remote Access Trojan (RAT) is installed on a victim's computer?

a)

Control the computer remotely and perform various actions such as viewing files and taking screenshots.

b)

. Install antivirus software to protect the computer from future attacks.

c)

Encrypt the computer's files and demand a ransom for decryption.

d)

Redirect the computer's internet traffic to malicious websites.

53.

How can organizations foster a culture of security consciousness among employees?

a)

By neglecting security training

b)

By discouraging reporting of security incidents

c)

By promoting continuous education and clear policies

d)

By avoiding monitoring security logs

54.

How do phishing emails typically create urgency?

a)

By offering rewards or prizes

b)

By threatening consequences or demanding immediate action

c)

By providing helpful information

d)

By requesting feedback

55.

What should you do if you receive a suspicious email?

a)

Click on the links to verify their legitimacy

b)

Download any attachments to inspect them

c)

Reply to the sender requesting more information

d)

Forward the email to your organization's IT or security team

56.

How can organizations mitigate the risk of tailgating attacks?

a)

Establishing clear verification processes for access to restricted areas

b)

Implementing strong email security measures

c)

Encouraging employees to forward suspicious emails to IT support

d)

Conducting employee training on recognizing phishing attempts

57.

What is spear phishing?

a)

Phishing attempt directed at a specific target using personal information

b)

Phishing attempt directed at a large number of random individuals

c)

Phishing attempt using cloned email addresses

d)

Phishing attempt conducted through text messages

58.

What is whaling in the context of phishing?

a)

Phishing attempt directed at high-profile targets like CEOs

b)

Phishing attempt directed at low-profile individuals

c)

Phishing attempt using cloned email addresses

d)

Phishing attempt through voice messages

59.

What is the principle of scarcity in social engineering?

a)

The fear of consequences

b)

The desire to be exclusive

c)

The tendency to follow the crowd

d)

The exploitation of a bias of relationship

60.

What is the main reason social engineering attacks succeed?

a)

Lack of security software

b)

Lack of proper training for employees

c)

Exploitation of human biases and emotions

d)

Lack of encryption on communication channels

61.

Why is password complexity important?

a)

It simplifies the authentication process

b)

It reduces the likelihood of successful brute-force attacks

c)

It increases the risk of unauthorized access

d)

It encourages password reuse

62.

What is the primary motivation for hacktivist groups?

a)

Philosophical/political beliefs

b)

Political, commercial, or economic messages

c)

Financial gain

d)

Seeking revenge

63.

How do Rainbow Tables aid in password cracking?

a)

They generate random passwords for dictionary attacks

b)

They use brute force to crack passwords

c)

They precalculate a series of hashes using known algorithms

d)

They encrypt passwords for secure storage

64.

What does the CIA Triad stand for?

(a)  

65.

Which principle of the CIA Triad ensures that information remains accurate and complete, and hasn’t been tampered with or modified in any unauthorized way?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Authentication

66.

What is the purpose of the CIA Triad in information security?

a)

To authenticate users accessing the system

b)

To provide a framework for developing and implementing security controls

c)

To ensure data is encrypted

d)

To monitor network traffic

67.

What principle of the CIA Triad ensures that authorized users have timely and reliable access to information and systems when needed?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Authorization

68.

What does the AAA framework stand for in the context of network security?

a)

Authentication, Authorization, Accounting

b)

Access, Authorization, Authentication

c)

Authorization, Authentication, Availability

d)

Authentication, Authorization, Auditing

69.

Which of the following statements about MFA is true?

a)

A. MFA does not add any additional layers of verification beyond passwords.

b)

B. MFA mitigates the impact of credential theft by relying solely on passwords.

c)

C. MFA enhances security by requiring multiple forms of identification.

d)

D. MFA is not required by regulatory standards or compliance frameworks.

70.

What is a common example of something you know for authentication?

a)

Smart Card

b)

Biometrics

c)

Password

d)

Keyboard Layout

71.

What are three basic things you should always do to secure a PC?

4 lines