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NSG 3280 Exam 1 Review

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The term refers to a study of abnormalities in physiologic functioning of living beings.

a)

Pathology

b)

Pathophysiology

c)

Disease

d)

Etiology

2.

Pathophysiology is studied in terms of _____ presentation of disorders.

a)
Expected/Classic
b)

Complex/situational

c)

Unexpected/diverse

d)

Rare/intricate

3.

What is an example of pathogenesis?

a)

Toxin released by bacterium

b)

Headache

c)

Obesity and smoking

d)

Vomiting

4.

Individuals often vary significantly from a classic presentation, making the diagnostic process complex and challenging.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The study of causation?

a)

Risk factor

b)

Etiology

c)

Idiopathic

d)

Iatrogenic

6.

Select a symptom:

a)

Stomach ache

b)

Vomiting

c)

Heart rate 82

d)

Weak radial pulse

7.

Select a sign:

a)

Nausea

b)

Vomiting

c)

Pain

d)

Stomach ache

8.

When the body is under stress what system is activated?

a)

Gastrointestinal System

b)

Sympathatic nervous system

c)

Parasympathatic nervous system

d)

Renal system

9.

During carbon monoxide poisoning, the Hg binds to oxygen more abundantly to cause tissue damage.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

When administering a hypotonic solution...

a)

salt follows water

b)

cellular shrinkage occurs because of accumulation of water

c)

No osmotic gradient exists

d)

cellular swelling occurs because of accumulation of water

11.

A stroke patient's affected arm is smaller than the non-affected arm, why?

a)

atrophy

b)

hypertrophy

c)

dysplasia

d)

hyperplasia

12.

The patient has increased workload of the heart, this could cause

a)

atrophy

b)

hypertrophy

c)

dysplasia

d)

anaplasia

13.

Necrosis is a process that begins with ischemia or cell injury.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Apoptosis...

a)

causes inflammation

b)

is always caused by infection

c)

causes dysplasia of cells

d)

is programmed cell death

15.

If cells are disorganized in appearance, this could lead to cancer cells.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form

a)

CO₂ and H₂O.

b)

2 ATP and 2 pyruvate.

c)

30 ATP.

d)

oxygen.

17.

Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers because they are

a)

polar.

b)

charged.

c)

insoluble.

d)

amphipathic.

18.

Cell-to-cell communication through secretion of chemical signals into the bloodstream to target cells throughout the body is called (a)   signaling.

19.

Ribosomes are very important organelles within the cell that have the function of

a)

detoxifying substances.

b)

synthesizing proteins.

c)

converting energy to forms that can be used.

d)

coding for protein synthesis.

20.

The organelle that contains enzymes necessary for oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP is the

a)

mitochondria.

b)

ribosome.

c)

lysosome.

d)

nucleus.

21.

Which of the following correctly match intracellular organelles to their functions? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Cytoskeleton: Provides a rigid boundary against cellular invasion.

b)

Nucleus: Holds the cell’s genetic material and directs cell activity.

c)

Golgi apparatus: Arranges the lipid bilayer according to polarity.

d)

Lysosomes: Digests organic waste materials.

e)

Mitochondria: Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP.

22.

An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed

a)

atrophy.

b)

hypertrophy.

c)

metaplasia.

d)

inflammation.

23.

Carbon monoxide injures cells by

a)
  1.  destruction of cellular membranes.

b)

reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin.

c)
  1. promotion of free radicals.

d)

crystallization of cellular organelles.

24.

Bacteria cause injury to cells by which mechanisms? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Producing exotoxins

b)

Producing endotoxins

c)

Producing destructive enzymes

d)

Reproducing inside of host cells altering cellular function

e)

Evoking an immune reaction

25.

Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they act in which of the following ways?

a)

Enter the host cell

b)

Directly produce free radicals

c)

Use the host’s metabolic processes to survive and replicate

d)

Do not induce an immune response

e)

Do not produce toxins

26.

Infectious injury often results from which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Exotoxins

b)

Endotoxins

c)

Self-destruction of cells

d)

Anti-inflammatory reactions

e)

Enzymes from white blood cells

27.

The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 1 diabetes is

a)

pancreatic β-cell destruction.

b)

lack of insulin receptors.

c)

lack of exercise and chronic overeating.

d)
  1. impaired glucose transport into cells.

28.

Insulin binding to its receptor on target cells results in

a)

increased active transport of glucose into the cell.

b)

glycogen breakdown within target cells.

c)

increased facilitated cellular diffusion of glucose.

d)

gluconeogenesis.

29.

A clinical finding consistent with a hypoglycemic reaction is

a)

acetone breath.

b)

warm, dry skin.

c)

tremors.

d)

hyperventilation

30.

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is often associated with

a)

nonketotic hyperosmolality.

b)

childhood.

c)

autoimmune destruction of the pancreas.

d)

ketoacidosis.

31.

A type of insulin that would be most appropriate for acute management of hyperglycemia is

a)

NPH.

b)

Semilente.

c)

regular.

d)

Ultralente.

32.

The breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver and muscles is called

a)

glycolysis

b)

glycogenesis

c)

glycogenolysis

d)

gluconeogenesis

33.

In diabetic ketoacidosis, respiratory compensation may occur through a process of

a)

respiratory alkalosis

b)

respiratory acidosis

c)

metabolic acidosis

d)

metabolic alkalosis

34.

The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 2 diabetes is

a)

pancreatic β-cell destruction

b)

insulin resistance and β-cell dysfunction

c)

lack of exercise and chronic overeating.

d)

impaired glucose transport into cells.

35.

What is the most powerful predictor of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus?

a)

Aging

b)

Obesity

c)

Sedentary lifestyle

d)

Cardiovascular disease

36.

Which are clinical findings usually associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Polyuria

b)

Polydipsia

c)

Polyphagia

d)

Obesity

e)

Weight gain

37.

Which therapies would be appropriate for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Carbohydrate counting

b)

High-protein diet

c)

Daily exercise

d)

Insulin

e)

Oral hypoglycemic agents

38.

Which are hormones that increase serum glucose level? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Vasopressin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Growth hormone

d)

Catecholamines

e)

Corticosteroid

39.

Which are microvascular complications of diabetes mellitus? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Cardiovascular disease

b)

Retinopathy

c)

Nephropathy

d)

Neuropathy

e)

Stroke

40.

Which insulin types are considered rapid-acting? (Select all that apply.)

a)

NPH

b)

Aspart

c)

Glargine

d)

Lispro

e)

Regular

41.

Starvation is associated with

a)

loss of visceral protein.

b)

low serum albumin levels.

c)

loss of somatic fat and protein.

d)

generalized edema.

42.

The process of metabolizing proteins to provide energy is called

a)
glycogenolysis.
b)
  1. glycolysis.

c)

gluconeogenesis.

d)

proteolysis.

43.

The process of producing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources is called

a)

glycolysis

b)

gluconeogenesis

c)

proteolysis

d)
  1.  glycogenolysis.

44.

Acute physiologic stress is associated with

a)

preferential use of glycogen

b)

catabolism of body proteins

c)

decreased basal metabolic rate

d)

conservation of body energy stores

45.

The main source of energy for the body comes from

a)

proteins

b)

fats

c)

carbohydrates

d)

water

46.

During times of fasting, the body uses _______ as a source of energy.

a)
fat
b)

protein

c)

carbohydrates

d)

glucagon

47.

A body mass index of 25.5 is considered to be

a)

morbidly obese

b)

normal

c)

overweight

d)

obese

48.

Pathophysiology includes all of the following elements except:

a)

etiology.

b)

clinical manifestations.

c)

mechanisms of pathogenesis.

d)

clinical management.

49.

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a disorder in which immune cells are infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and are subsequently destroyed, leading to increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections. What is the etiologic factor in AIDS?

a)

Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections

b)

Destruction of immune cells

c)

Human immunodeficiency virus

d)

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

50.

Understanding the epidemiology of a disease is essential for effective:

a)

prevention.

b)

therapy.

c)

treatment.

d)

diagnosis.

51.

Which of the following is an example of primary prevention?

a)

Childhood immunization for communicable diseases

b)

Routine Papanicolaou (Pap) smear of the cervix

c)

Amniocentesis to detect genetic abnormality in the fetus

d)

Range-of-motion exercises to reverse disuse atrophy in the stroke patient

52.

Examples of factors influencing epidemiologic patterns include all of the following except:

a)

geographic location.

b)

occupation.

c)

socioeconomic status.

d)

intelligence.

53.

Which of the following is an example of a clinical sign of disease?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Dizziness

c)

Cough

d)

Pain

54.

The development of heart failure from untreated hypertension would be an example of a/an:

a)

sequela.

b)

exacerbation.

c)

complication.

d)

chronic phase.

55.

Evidence-based treatments are:

a)

derived from an understanding of pathophysiology.

b)

based on the results of sound clinical research.

c)

drawn from anecdotal reports about what treatment is effective.

d)

based on personal experience.

56.

Which of the following findings would indicate that a patient may be experiencing a “fight-or-flight” reaction to a stressor?

a)

Constricted pupils

b)

Low blood pressure

c)

Increased heart rate

d)

Frequent sighing or yawning

57.

In which of Selye’s stages of stress response would a patient be if he or she were experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Alarm

b)

Resistance

c)

Exhaustion

d)

Illness

58.

A stressor that stimulates the release of endorphins in the central nervous system is likely to be interpreted as

a)

pleasurable.

b)

painful.

c)

unimportant.

d)

noxious.

59.

Several hormones are released during stress and serve to increase blood glucose levels. These include all of the following except

a)

cortisol.

b)

growth hormone.

c)

epinephrine.

d)

testosterone.

60.

Indicators that a person who is experiencing stress has achieved resistance include

a)

elevated levels of serum cortisol.

b)

heart rate returned to baseline.

c)

sleepiness.

d)

absence of catecholamine secretion.

61.

Behavioral indicators that coping is ineffective include all of the following except

a)

sleeping more.

b)

major depression.

c)

inability to concentrate.

d)

anorexia.

62.

The effects of gender on the stress response are

a)

greatest in the elderly.

b)

related to the effect of sex hormones.

c)

noncontributory.

d)

consistent across the lifespan.

63.

Cortisol

a)

is released from the anterior pituitary gland.

b)

has an anabolic effect on somatic muscle.

c)

promotes the creation of glucose from amino acids.

d)

increases lactate formation.

64.

Growth hormone release is increased by stress, and one of its effects is

a)

increased glucose availability.

b)

increased protein catabolism.

c)

decreased perception of stress.

d)

decreased endorphin release.

65.

Which of the following tissues has a limited capacity for replacement of damaged cells?

a)

Epithelium

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Connective tissue

d)

Nervous tissue

66.

Apoptosis is a physiologic process in which a cell

a)

divides to form two identical daughter cells.

b)

undergoes programmed cell death.

c)

becomes malignant.

d)

converts to a different cell type.

67.

Hydropic swelling is a sign of cellular injury associated with

a)

necrosis.

b)

Na+ K+ pump dysfunction.

c)

apoptosis.

d)

aging.

68.

Which of the following is not a reversible cellular adaptation?

a)

Atrophy

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Hyperplasia

d)

Necrosis

69.

Glandular tissue normally responds to increased functional demand by

a)

hypertrophy.

b)

hyperplasia.

c)

metaplasia.

d)

neoplasia.

70.

Ischemic death of tissue in visceral organs such as the heart typically produces

a)

coagulative necrosis.

b)

liquefactive necrosis.

c)

caseous necrosis.

d)

fat necrosis.

71.

Cellular injury that results in the production of excessive serum lactate levels is attributable to

a)

immunologic injury.

b)

nutritional injury.

c)

hypoxic injury.

d)

mechanical injury.

72.

Age-related changes in body systems can be described as

a)

disease processes.

b)

decreased functional reserve.

c)

reversible injury.

d)

compensatory.

73.

When muscle cells decrease in size because of prolonged bed rest, this is called

a)

disuse atrophy.

b)

disuse hypertrophy.

c)

denervation atrophy.

d)

ischemic atrophy.

74.

Hypoxia caused by ischemia results in all of the following except

a)

reduced ATP production.

b)

lactic acidosis.

c)

hydropic swelling.

d)

increased membrane pump activity.

75.

All of the following hormones increase blood glucose levels except

a)

cortisol.

b)

oxytocin.

c)

growth hormone.

d)

norepinephrine.

76.

Type 1 diabetes mellitus differs from type 2 in that type 1 is

a)

usually diagnosed in middle or later adulthood.

b)

associated with insulin resistance.

c)

the most common form of diabetes.

d)

from an absolute deficiency of insulin production.

77.

Ketoacidosis is uncommon in type 2 diabetes because

a)

dehydration is less severe.

b)

endogenous insulin prevents lipolysis and production of ketone bodies.

c)

metabolic acidosis does not occur.

d)

liver breakdown of stored glycogen does not produce fatty acids.

78.

Women who develop gestational diabetes

a)

will probably remain diabetic following delivery of their babies.

b)

give birth to babies with low birth weights who are hyperglycemic.

c)

are primarily treated with any of the available oral agents.

d)

are likely to experience it with subsequent pregnancies.

79.

Microvascular complications occurring with chronic hyperglycemia in diabetes mellitus include all of the following except

a)

peripheral arterial disease.

b)

retinopathy.

c)

nephropathy.

d)

neuropathy.

80.

A sign of early diabetic nephropathy is

a)

anuria.

b)

glycosuria.

c)

hypertension.

d)

microalbuminuria.

81.

Neuropathy of sensory nerves seen in diabetes mellitus is usually

a)

bilateral and may affect hands and feet.

b)

asymptomatic, painless.

c)

completely reversible with better diabetes management.

d)

controlled by medications that increase insulin production.

82.

Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed when two fasting blood glucose samples are found to be greater than or equal to

a)

100 mg/dL.

b)

110 mg/dL.

c)

126 mg/dL.

d)

140 mg/dL.

83.

Exercise for the patient with type 2 diabetes may result in

a)

improved renal function.

b)

decreased insulin resistance.

c)

decreased risk of eating disorder development.

d)

increased low-density lipid levels.

84.

Signs or symptoms of hypoglycemia include all of the following except

a)

pallor.

b)

tremors.

c)

fever.

d)

altered consciousness.

85.

Which of the following is true regarding complications of diabetes in children?

a)

Neuropathies are common and develop early in the disease.

b)

Diabetic ketoacidosis rarely occurs.

c)

Dehydration is a major concern when hyperglycemia is severe.

d)

Manifestations of hypoglycemia in very young children are identical to those seen in adults.

86.

In the elderly population, complications of diabetes and aging increase the risk for the development of

a)

hyperglycemia.

b)

hypoglycemia.

c)

diabetic ketoacidosis.

d)

heart disease.

87.

Measures of glycosylated hemoglobin, such as hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C), are used to monitor blood glucose control over the past

a)

24 hours.

b)

week.

c)

month.

d)

3 months.

88.

Many diabetic patients are managed with basal-bolus insulin therapy, in which a long-acting insulin covers _______________ needs for insulin.

a)

basal

b)

acute

c)

nighttime

d)

mealtime

89.

All of the following complications of diabetes mellitus result from excessive insulin exposure that contributes to macrovascular atherosclerosis except

a)

coronary artery disease.

b)

peripheral arterial disease.

c)

stroke.

d)

retinopathy.

90.

Polyuria associated with diabetes is due to

a)

the polydipsia.

b)

the osmotic effects of glycosuria.

c)

increased protein catabolism.

d)

the loss of electrolytes.

91.

Excessive ketone production may produce what laboratory finding?

a)

Increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide

b)

Decreased hematocrit

c)

Decreased pH

d)

Increased BUN level

92.

The rapid, deep respirations associated with ketoacidosis (Kussmaul respirations) are the result of the body’s attempt to

a)

compensate for metabolic acidosis.

b)

combat hypoxemia.

c)

increase the partial pressure of oxygen.

d)

improve the level of consciousness.

93.

In type 1 diabetes, insulin therapy will be required. All of the following statements regarding pediatric considerations in the administration of insulin and monitoring of blood glucose levels are true except

a)

adequate treatment is essential to ensure normal growth and maturation.

b)

insulin injections should be given only in the abdomen.

c)

an intensive regimen of at least three injections per day helps to avoid chronic complications.

d)

if doses are very small, a diluent may be needed to ensure adequate drug delivery.

94.

The best laboratory test to monitor how well blood sugar levels are being managed over time is

a)

testing for glucose in the urine.

b)

the fasting blood glucose level.

c)

spot checking the blood glucose level.

d)

the glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1C) test.