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Chapter 24 Pharm Final Review

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is candidiasis?

a)

A fungal infection caused by Candida fungi

b)

A bacterial infection of the skin

c)

A viral infection affecting the lungs

d)

A parasitic infection of the intestines

2.

Which of the following best describes dermatophytes?

a)

Fungal parasites that grow in or on the skin

b)

Bacteria that infect the bloodstream

c)

Viruses that cause respiratory infections

d)

Parasites that live in the digestive tract

3.

What are molds?

a)

Multicellular fungi that form fuzzy colonies

b)

Unicellular fungi of the genus Saccharomyces

c)

Single-celled organisms that cause disease

d)

Bacteria that thrive in moist environments

4.

What is the role of glucan in fungal cells?

a)

It is part of the thick cell wall

b)

It is a component of the cell membrane

c)

It is a type of protein found in the cytoplasm

d)

It is a sugar used for energy storage

5.

Which type of fungal infection is common in immunocompromised patients?

a)

Opportunistic infections

b)

Superficial infections

c)

Systemic infections

d)

Endemic infections

6.

What is a challenge in drug therapy for fungal infections?

a)

Fungal cells are similar to human cells, leading to high toxicity risk.

b)

Fungal cells are resistant to all drugs.

c)

Fungal infections are always mild and do not require treatment.

d)

Fungal cells are identical to bacterial cells.

7.

Which drug class binds ergosterol, causing membrane leakage or lysis?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Azoles

c)

Echinocandins

d)

Miscellaneous

8.

What is the route of administration for Amphotericin B deoxycholate in systemic infections?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Oral

c)

Topical

d)

Inhalation

9.

What is the initial serum half-life of Amphotericin B deoxycholate?

a)

Approximately 24 hours

b)

Approximately 48 hours

c)

Approximately 72 hours

d)

Approximately 12 hours

10.

Which drug class blocks ergosterol synthesis, leading to defective membrane and cell death?

a)

Azoles

b)

Polyenes

c)

Echinocandins

d)

Miscellaneous

11.

What is the primary action of Amphotericin B?

a)

Binds to fungal cell membrane sterols, altering permeability

b)

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

c)

Blocks viral replication

d)

Enhances immune response

12.

Which of the following is a preferred use of lipid formulations of Amphotericin B?

a)

Patients with preexisting abnormal kidney function

b)

Patients with normal kidney function

c)

Patients with mild infections

d)

Patients with bacterial infections

13.

What is a key characteristic of lipid formulations of Amphotericin B compared to the deoxycholate form?

a)

They cause less damage to normal tissues

b)

They are less expensive

c)

They are interchangeable

d)

They have a shorter duration of action

14.

For which condition is Amphotericin B NOT recommended according to the black box warning?

a)

Noninvasive disease

b)

Progressive infections

c)

Potentially fatal infections

d)

Fungal infections

15.

What is a necessary precaution when administering amphotericin B to children?

a)

Monitor for respiratory arrest

b)

Monitor electrolytes due to magnesium wasting

c)

Monitor for cardiac arrest

d)

Monitor for leukopenia

16.

Why are lipid formulations of amphotericin B preferred for older adults?

a)

They are more effective

b)

They are less nephrotoxic

c)

They are cheaper

d)

They are easier to administer

17.

What is a known contraindication for the use of amphotericin B?

a)

Respiratory arrest

b)

Cardiac arrest

c)

Known allergy to amphotericin B

d)

Hypokalemia

18.

What should be monitored weekly to reduce nephrotoxicity when using amphotericin B?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Serum creatinine and BUN

c)

Heart rate

d)

Blood glucose levels

19.

Which adverse effect is associated with amphotericin B?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hyperlipidemia

20.

Which of the following is true about the interactions of amphotericin B?

a)

Many herbs can increase its effects.

b)

No known herb interactions are reported.

c)

It has no drug interactions.

d)

It should not be used with any other medication.

21.

What is the recommended time frame for infusing amphotericin B after reconstitution?

a)

Within 2 hours

b)

Within 4 hours

c)

Within 8 hours

d)

Within 12 hours

22.

Why should a separate IV line be used when administering amphotericin B?

a)

To prevent mixing with other medications

b)

To ensure faster delivery

c)

To avoid using dextrose

d)

To reduce the risk of phlebitis

23.

What should be monitored to assess the therapeutic effects of amphotericin B?

a)

Blood pressure levels

b)

Symptom improvement and infection control

c)

Heart rate

d)

Respiratory rate

24.

Which adverse effect should be monitored during IV administration of amphotericin B?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Phlebitis

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Tachycardia

25.

Which of the following practices is recommended to prevent reinfection or spreading of infections?

a)

Avoid cleaning the bathroom regularly

b)

Use topical amphotericin without caution

c)

Practice good hygiene

d)

Keep home filled with potted plants

26.

What is a potential side effect of using topical amphotericin?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Staining of clothes

c)

Improved vision

d)

Enhanced energy levels

27.

Which type of drugs can increase the risk of kidney damage when used with nephrotoxic antibiotics?

a)

Antineoplastic agents

b)

Cardiac glycosides

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Antihistamines

28.

What is a common adverse effect of oral nystatin?

a)

Headache

b)

Nausea

c)

Rash

d)

Dizziness

29.

How is nystatin typically used for treating candidiasis?

a)

Systemically for all types of infections

b)

Only topically for oral, intestinal, and vaginal candidiasis

c)

As an injection for rapid effect

d)

Inhaled for respiratory infections

30.

What is the primary method of administration for Fluconazole?

a)

Oral or intravenous (IV)

b)

Topical application

c)

Inhalation

d)

Subcutaneous injection

31.

Which enzyme does Fluconazole interact with?

a)

Cytochrome P450 (CYP)

b)

Amylase

c)

Lactase

d)

Lipase

32.

What is a potential use of Fluconazole in AIDS patients?

a)

Long-term suppression of cryptococcal meningitis

b)

Treatment of bacterial infections

c)

Management of hypertension

d)

Reduction of cholesterol levels

33.

What should women planning pregnancy do if taking a dose of Fluconazole greater than 400 mg/day?

a)

Use contraception

b)

Increase the dose

c)

Discontinue use

d)

Take with food

34.

What is the primary route of excretion for Fluconazole?

a)

Urine

b)

Feces

c)

Sweat

d)

Breath

35.

What is the recommended action for adjusting fluconazole dosage in patients with creatinine clearance ≤ 50 mL/min?

a)

Increase the dose by 50%

b)

Reduce the dose by 50%

c)

Maintain the same dose

d)

Discontinue the medication

36.

Which of the following is a common side effect of fluconazole?

a)

Elevated liver enzymes

b)

Nausea

c)

Hepatic necrosis

d)

Alopecia

37.

According to the FDA Alert (2016), what is the risk associated with fluconazole use during pregnancy?

a)

Increased risk of birth defects

b)

Increased risk of miscarriage

c)

No risk associated

d)

Increased risk of alopecia

38.

Why should fluconazole be used cautiously in patients with liver disease?

a)

It may cause alopecia

b)

It may cause hepatotoxicity

c)

It is not effective in these patients

d)

It is poorly absorbed

39.

What is the contraindication for fluconazole use mentioned in the document?

a)

Pregnancy

b)

Liver disease

c)

Hypersensitivity

d)

Renal impairment

40.

Which enzyme do azoles primarily inhibit, increasing the effects/toxicity of many drugs?

a)

CYP2C9

b)

CYP3A4

c)

CYP1A2

d)

CYP2D6

41.

What is the maximum IV infusion rate for fluconazole?

a)

100 mg/hour

b)

150 mg/hour

c)

200 mg/hour

d)

250 mg/hour

42.

Which of the following is a therapeutic effect of azoles in treating systemic infections?

a)

Increased fever

b)

Decreased fever

c)

Increased diarrhea

d)

Increased rash

43.

What should be monitored every 1–2 months to check for hepatotoxicity when using azoles?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Hepatic enzymes (AST, ALT)

c)

Heart rate

d)

Blood glucose levels

44.

What is a key patient teaching point when administering azoles?

a)

Avoid all physical activity

b)

Practice good hand hygiene

c)

Increase sugar intake

d)

Avoid all dairy products

45.

Which of the following should be avoided to prevent mold production?

a)

Fresh flowers

b)

Air conditioning

c)

Frequent meals

d)

Scheduled tests

46.

What should be done daily to maintain cleanliness in the bathroom?

a)

Use air fresheners

b)

Clean with bleach

c)

Use non-slip mats

d)

Open windows

47.

What is a side effect of Itraconazole that requires monitoring?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

GI upset

c)

Improved vision

d)

Weight loss

48.

Which drug is associated with a BLACK BOX WARNING for heart failure risks?

a)

Ketoconazole

b)

Posaconazole

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Itraconazole

49.

Which of the following drugs is metabolized by CYP3A4 and eliminated in feces?

a)

Posaconazole

b)

Voriconazole

c)

Isavuconazole

d)

Caspofungin

50.

What is a common side effect of Voriconazole?

a)

Nausea

b)

Transient visual disturbances

c)

Headache

d)

Abdominal pain

51.

Which drug is unique in shortening the QTc interval?

a)

Posaconazole

b)

Voriconazole

c)

Isavuconazole

d)

Caspofungin

52.

What is the prototype drug for Echinocandins?

a)

Posaconazole

b)

Voriconazole

c)

Isavuconazole

d)

Caspofungin

53.

How is Caspofungin primarily excreted from the body?

a)

Through sweat

b)

Through urine and feces

c)

Through saliva

d)

Through tears

54.

What is the primary action of Caspofungin?

a)

Inhibits fungal DNA synthesis

b)

Inhibits the synthesis of the fungal cell wall

c)

Inhibits fungal protein synthesis

d)

Inhibits fungal RNA synthesis

55.

For which condition is Caspofungin NOT used?

a)

Invasive aspergillosis

b)

Candida infections

c)

Febrile neutropenia

d)

Bacterial pneumonia

56.

At what age is Caspofungin approved for use in children?

a)

Older than 1 month

b)

Older than 3 months

c)

Older than 6 months

d)

Older than 12 months

57.

What is a potential adverse effect of caspofungin?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Fever

c)

Weight gain

d)

Improved vision

58.

Which of the following is a contraindication for administering caspofungin?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hypersensitivity

d)

Asthma

59.

What should be monitored when caspofungin is given with tacrolimus?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Heart rate

c)

Serum blood levels

d)

Respiratory rate

60.

How should caspofungin be administered?

a)

Orally with food

b)

Intravenously, incompatible with dextrose

c)

Intramuscularly with saline

d)

Subcutaneously with water

61.

What is recommended for caspofungin dosage in patients with hepatic insufficiency?

a)

Increase the dose

b)

No change in dose

c)

Dose reduction

d)

Double the dose

62.

What symptoms are expected to decrease with the treatment mentioned in the document?

a)

Increased appetite and energy

b)

Decreased fungal growth and reduced symptoms such as malaise, fever, and GI complaints

c)

Improved vision and hearing

d)

Enhanced muscle strength and endurance

63.

At what dosage should patients be monitored for nausea, vomiting, and infusion site phlebitis?

a)

10 mg daily

b)

25 mg daily

c)

50 mg daily

d)

100 mg daily

64.

Which adverse effects should be monitored at a dosage of 50-70 mg?

a)

Increased appetite and weight gain

b)

Fever, headache, lab abnormalities

c)

Improved sleep and relaxation

d)

Enhanced cognitive function

65.

What should patients be instructed about regarding histamine reactions?

a)

They are harmless and require no action

b)

They should be ignored unless severe

c)

They should be aware of the possibility and report any cardiac symptoms immediately

d)

They should only report them during follow-up visits

66.

Which drug increases serum effects when administered with caspofungin?

a)

Anidulafungin

b)

Micafungin

c)

Cyclosporine

d)

Rifampin

67.

What is the function of Anidulafungin (Eraxis) as mentioned in the document?

a)

It is a pain reliever

b)

It is a semisynthetic antifungal that inhibits glucan synthase

c)

It is a blood pressure medication

d)

It is a sedative

68.

What is a significant risk associated with the use of pyrimidine analogs if used in error?

a)

Low blood pressure

b)

High risk of patient harm

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Improved kidney function

69.

Which organ systems are affected by the adverse effects of pyrimidine analogs?

a)

Respiratory and digestive

b)

Hematologic, kidney, and hepatic

c)

Nervous and muscular

d)

Skeletal and integumentary

70.

What type of monitoring is required when using pyrimidine analogs?

a)

Blood pressure and heart rate

b)

Complete blood count and liver enzymes

c)

Respiratory rate and oxygen levels

d)

Blood sugar and cholesterol levels

71.

What is the prototype drug for pyrimidine analogs?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Flucytosine

c)

Penicillin

d)

Ciprofloxacin

72.

How is flucytosine primarily absorbed in the body?

a)

Through the skin

b)

Via the GI tract

c)

Through inhalation

d)

Via intravenous injection

73.

What is the half-life of flucytosine in patients with normal kidney function?

a)

10–15 hours

b)

2–5 hours

c)

20–25 hours

d)

30–35 hours

74.

For what purpose is flucytosine used in combination with amphotericin B?

a)

To treat bacterial infections

b)

For systemic fungal infections

c)

To reduce inflammation

d)

For viral infections

75.

What is a necessary precaution when using the medication in children?

a)

Use with acetaminophen

b)

Use with ibuprofen

c)

Use with amphotericin B or another antifungal

d)

Use with aspirin

76.

What is the medication metabolized to, which may cause adverse effects during pregnancy?

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Fluorouracil

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Aspirin

77.

What is the black box warning associated with this medication?

a)

Use with extreme caution in liver impairment

b)

Use with extreme caution in kidney impairment

c)

Use with extreme caution in heart disease

d)

Use with extreme caution in diabetes

78.

What is the recommended dosage adjustment for patients with a creatinine clearance of 10–20 mL/min?

a)

Dose every 6 hours

b)

Dose every 12 hours

c)

Dose every 24 hours

d)

Dose every 48 hours

79.

Which adverse effect is related to higher doses and occurs after 10 to 26 days of therapy?

a)

Nausea

b)

Bone Marrow Depression

c)

Rash

d)

Photosensitivity

80.

What is the effect of food on the absorption of flucytosine?

a)

Increases the extent of absorption

b)

Decreases the rate of absorption

c)

Increases the rate of absorption

d)

Decreases the extent of absorption

81.

Which medication is known to increase serum levels of flucytosine?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Amphotericin B

c)

Penicillin

d)

Ciprofloxacin

82.

What should be monitored to detect bone marrow depression when administering flucytosine?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Heart rate

c)

Leukocyte, differential, and platelet counts

d)

Liver enzymes

83.

What is the recommended oral dose of flucytosine for cryptococcal meningoencephalitis?

a)

25 mg/kg every 4 hours

b)

25 mg/kg every 6 hours

c)

50 mg/kg every 6 hours

d)

50 mg/kg every 4 hours

84.

What should patients report when taking flucytosine?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Unusual bleeding such as bleeding of the gums or mouth

c)

Increased energy levels

d)

Decreased thirst

85.

What is the prototype drug for miscellaneous antifungal agents for superficial mycoses?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Itraconazole

86.

How is Griseofulvin absorbed in the body?

a)

Through the skin

b)

Through the GI tract

c)

Through the lungs

d)

Through the bloodstream

87.

What is the serum half-life of Griseofulvin?

a)

1 to 5 hours

b)

5 to 10 hours

c)

9 to 24 hours

d)

24 to 48 hours

88.

What action does Griseofulvin have on cell division?

a)

Enhances cell division

b)

Disrupts metaphase of cell division by binding to keratin

c)

Inhibits DNA synthesis

d)

Promotes cell growth

89.

For which type of infections is Griseofulvin used?

a)

Bacterial infections

b)

Viral infections

c)

Dermatophyte infections of the scalp and nails

d)

Parasitic infections

90.

What is a key consideration for males after Griseofulvin therapy?

a)

Avoid alcohol for 6 months

b)

Avoid fathering children for at least 6 months

c)

Avoid driving for 6 months

d)

Avoid exercise for 6 months

91.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of the medication mentioned in the document?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Dizziness

c)

Weight gain

d)

Improved vision

92.

What is a contraindication for the use of the medication?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Liver disease

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

93.

How should the medication be administered to reduce gastric upset?

a)

On an empty stomach

b)

With meals

c)

Before bedtime

d)

With a glass of milk

94.

What should be monitored as an adverse effect of the medication?

a)

Increased energy

b)

CNS depression

c)

Enhanced memory

d)

Weight loss

95.

What is the recommended storage condition for the medication?

a)

In the refrigerator

b)

At 15°C to 30°C

c)

In direct sunlight

d)

Below 10°C

96.

Which of the following should be monitored due to the risk of hepatotoxicity when using certain antifungal medications?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Liver enzymes

c)

Heart rate

d)

Blood sugar levels

97.

What should patients avoid to prevent adverse effects when taking certain antifungal medications?

a)

High-fat foods

b)

Sunlight or extreme artificial light

c)

Alcohol

d)

Dairy products

98.

Which drug can increase the effects of griseofulvin and may cause breakthrough bleeding?

a)

Rifampin

b)

Estrogen

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Aspirin

99.

What is a common adverse effect of Terbinafine (Lamisil)?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Headache

c)

Weight gain

d)

Hypertension