wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PHARM FINAL PART 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A client has been prescribed an antibiotic. This medication is a naturally occurring substance that has been chemically modified. What is another name for this type of medication?
a)
Synthetic drug
b)
Semisynthetic drug
c)
Biotechnology drug
d)
Prototype drug
2.
A new medication for the treatment of Alzheimer disease is being administered to a select group of clients with the disease. This testing occurs in which phase?
a)
phase 1
b)
phase 2
c)
phase 3
d)
phase 4
3.
A client with a long-standing dermatologic health problem has been advised to use a drug with a local effect. The nurse should recognize what characteristic of this drug?
a)
It affects only the organ system in which it is metabolized.
b)
The drug requires application at multiple sites.
c)
It is effective only as long as it is in contact with skin.
d)
The drug acts primarily at the site where it is applied.
4.
The nurse is administering medications to a client and recognizes that a newly prescribed medication appears on the Beers Criteria list. Because this drug is on the Beers Criteria list, the nurse should recognize what associated implication?
a)
The medication should be avoided in older adult clients.
b)
The medication has not yet completed phase 3 testing.
c)
The medication has not yet completed phase 4 testing.
d)
The medication is contraindicated during pregnancy.
5.
An older adult client has an elevated serum creatinine level. This client is at greatest risk for which medication-related effect?
a)
Impaired excretion
b)
Increased absorption
c)
Delayed gastric emptying
d)
Idiosyncratic effects
6.
Which factor accounts for the increased risk for drug reactions among clients aged 65 years and older?
a)
Drugs more readily crossing the blood–brain barrier in older people
b)
Physiologic changes affecting all pharmacokinetic processes
c)
Increased drug-metabolizing enzymes in older people
d)
Diminished immune response
7.
The nurse has received an order for a medication to be administered buccally. What education should the nurse provide?
a)
"Put this under your tongue so it can be absorbed."
b)
"Let your saliva break down the medication before you swallow it."
c)
"Place the medication between your cheek and your gums and let it dissolve."
d)
"Inhale through your nose before you spray the medication."
8.
A client is being administered warfarin to decrease blood clotting. Which herbal supplement may contribute alteration in blood clotting mechanisms?
a)
St. John's wort
b)
Glucosamine
c)
Chondroitin
d)
Melatonin
9.
Which statement best describes drug efficacy and toxicity in pediatric clients?
a)
Drug requirements for infants have been studied extensively.
b)
Drug dosage is altered by disease state and weight in children.
c)
Children should be administered the same dose of aspirin as adults.
d)
Infants and children are at lowest risk for drug toxicity.
10.
Which factor has the most significant effect on a child's response to the administration of a medication?
a)
gender
b)
ethnicity
c)
body weight
d)
diet
11.
The nurse has received a new, signed medication order for a client that states "Metoprolol 25 mg PO bid." What is the nurse's best action?
a)
Administer the medication and assess for therapeutic effect.
b)
Contact the health care provider to clarify the order.
c)
Contact the health care provider to confirm the trade name of the medication.
d)
Contact pharmacy to validate the order.
12.
What is the primary failing that contributes to safety issues related to the practice of pediatric pharmacology?
a)
A lack of scientific understanding of the anatomy and physiology of children and infants
b)
The historical lack of pediatric participation in the drug testing process
c)
The fact that research grants in pharmacology have traditionally specified adult participation
d)
Assumptions that there are no physiologic differences between adults and children
13.
A toddler has been prescribed antibiotic treatment. To best assure the child's safety, the prescriber will be obliged to implement which intervention?
a)
Administer subtherapeutic doses in order to mitigate the potential for adverse effects.
b)
Choose a different antibiotic that has been extensively tested in children.
c)
Apply vigilant clinical judgement when administering the antibiotic to the child.
d)
Have the child's family sign informed consent forms absolving the care team from responsibility for adverse effects.
14.
A neonate has been prescribed a water-soluble drug for the treatment of an acute infection. The nurse recognizes that the percentage of body water in an infant is significantly higher than that of an adult. What implication does this have for pharmacotherapy of an infant and the nurse providing care?
a)
The drug will need to be emulsified before administration.
b)
The infant's fluid intake will be reduced before and after administration.
c)
The infant will have a fat-soluble drug substituted.
d)
The infant may require an increased dose of the drug.
15.
Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the status of drug elimination that is expected in neonates?
a)
C-reactive protein level
b)
Creatine kinase
c)
Serum albumin level
d)
Glomerular filtration rate
16.
Liquid oral acetaminophen has been prescribed for a young child who has a fever. When confirming the right dose, what term is most appropriate?
a)
160 mg
b)
One teaspoon
c)
One third of a tablespoon
d)
5 mL
17.
The nurse is preparing to administer a client's IM injection of analgesia. Which injection site should the nurse select?
a)
vastus lateralis
b)
deltoid
c)
dorsogluteal
d)
ventrogluteal
18.
When appraising an older adult's ability to excrete medications, what laboratory or diagnostic finding should the nurse prioritize?
a)
Renal ultrasound
b)
Complete blood count (CBC)
c)
Serum bilirubin and albumin levels
d)
Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
19.
An older adult client's most recent blood work includes the following data: alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 1.99 mkat/L (high) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 3.1 mkat/L (high). What implication do these data have for the client's pharmacokinetics?
a)
Distribution of drugs may be erratic.
b)
Absorption of drugs may be incomplete.
c)
Excretion of drugs may be delayed.
d)
Metabolism of drugs may be impaired.
20.
An older adult client has developed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and has consequently been prescribed albuterol, a beta2-adrenergic agonist. When administering this medication, the nurse should be aware that:
a)
the drug carries a higher potential for hepatotoxicity in this client than in a younger client.
b)
the drug may be less effective than in a younger client due to decreased beta-receptor function.
c)
the client will need to take a beta-adrenergic blocker concurrently to mitigate the likelihood of adverse effects.
d)
the client will need to have serial complete blood counts (CBCs) drawn following the initiation of therapy.
21.
The adult child of an older adult client states that the client has been taking alendronate for several years for the treatment of osteoporosis. The child tells the nurse that the client never reported nausea after taking this medication until recently. How should the nurse respond to the child's statement?
a)
"It could be that your parent's stomach empties more slowly than it used to, which is a normal result of aging."
b)
"As people get older, the medication travels down their esophagus more slowly than it is used to. This can cause nausea."
c)
"Because your parent has a higher body water percentage than a younger adult, the drug can cause nausea."
d)
"As people age, they have more of the receptors that trigger nausea. This is a normal change that accompanies the aging process."
22.
An older adult client has been prescribed a nitrate and a calcium channel blocker for the treatment of unstable angina. When performing health education to promote adherence to his or her medication regimen, the nurse should emphasize which point?
a)
The client will likely need medications until he or she no longer experiences signs of angina.
b)
The client should take medications as prescribed even if he or she feels well in the short term.
c)
Inconsistent medication use will likely cause the onset of hypertension.
d)
The client should gauge the day's dose based on how he or she feels in the morning.
23.
The home visiting nurse observes an older adult prepare to administer a prescribed 8 units of insulin glargine. The client squints and draws up 10 units into the syringe. Which intervention should the nurse implement to best assure safe medication administration?
a)
Provide a magnifying glass.
b)
Assess the client's near vision.
c)
Ask the client to redraw again.
d)
Review the markings on the syringe.
24.
A client has been administered heparin to prevent thromboembolism development status postmyocardial infarction. The client develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Which medication will be administered?
a)
Argatroban 9
b)
Vitamin K
c)
Calcium gluconate
d)
Aminocaproic acid
25.
A client has developed the formation of clots and has bruising. It is determined that there is a depletion of the client's coagulation factors and widespread bleeding. Which medication will be administered?
a)
Aminocaproic acid
b)
Heparin
c)
Warfarin
d)
Protamine sulfate
26.
A 55-year-old client has been diagnosed with coronary artery disease and begun antiplatelet therapy. The client has asked the nurse why a "blood thinner like warfarin" hasn't been prescribed. What is the most likely rationale for the clinician's use of an antiplatelet agent rather than an anticoagulant?
a)
Antiplatelet agents do not require the client to undergo frequent blood work; anticoagulants require constant blood work to ensure safety.
b)
Antiplatelet agents are more effective against arterial thrombosis; anticoagulants are more effective against venous thrombosis.
c)
Antiplatelet agents are most effective in large vessels; anticoagulants are most effective in the small vessels of the peripheral circulation.
d)
Antiplatelet agents have fewer adverse effects than anticoagulants.
27.
A nurse at a long-term care facility is conducting a medication reconciliation for a client who has just moved into the facility. The client is currently taking clopidogrel. The nurse is most justified suspecting that this client has a history of what condition?
a)
Hemorrhagic cerebrovascular accident
b)
Hemophilia A
c)
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
d)
Myocardial infarction
28.
A 79-year-old client has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance with signs and symptoms of ischemic stroke. The care team would consider the immediate (STAT) administration of what drug?
a)
Low-molecular-weight heparin
b)
Vitamin K
c)
clopidogrel
d)
Alteplase
29.
Which single class drug is known to be most effective in reducing the major types of dyslipidemia?
a)
Statins
b)
Bile acid sequestrants
c)
Fibrates
d)
Niacin
30.
A client is taking cholestyramine and ezetimibe. What administration guideline is most important to teach this client?
a)
The two medications should be taken together.
b)
The ezetimibe inhibits cholesterol in the liver.
c)
The cholestyramine is administered 1 hour after ezetimibe.
d)
The administration of ezetimibe is 1 hour before cholestyramine.
31.
A hospital client's complex medical history includes a recent diagnosis of kidney cancer. Which medication is used to treat metastatic kidney cancer?
a)
Filgrastim
b)
Aldesleukin
c)
Interferon alfa-2b
d)
Darbepoetin alfa
32.
A client is administered a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF). What is the expected outcome of a G-CSF?
a)
Decreased risk of hemorrhage
b)
Decreased number of infections
c)
Decreased fatigue and increased energy
d)
Absence of thromboembolism
33.
A client who lives at home with chronic hepatitis B has been taking interferon alfa 2b for the past several weeks. Six hours after the most recent dose, the client reports a rapid onset of fatigue, headache, and malaise. No other objective symptoms of illness are apparent. Which is the nurse's best option?
a)
Encourage the client to take acetaminophen for this adverse effect.
b)
Document the finding and promptly inform the health care provider.
c)
Have the client present to the emergency department as soon as possible.
d)
Withhold the next dose of interferon alfa 2b.
34.
An adult client has been treated for strep throat with ampicillin by mouth. The client visits the occupational health nurse and reports vaginal itching. What organism is the cause of the vaginal itching?
a)
Klebsiella
b)
Enterobacter
c)
Candida
d)
Proteus
35.
A client with an infection has not responded appreciably to antibiotic therapy, and the nurse suspects antibiotic resistance. What phenomenon is known to contribute to acquired antibiotic resistance?
a)
Bacteria take on genetic material from healthy body cells, reducing antigen recognition.
b)
Microorganisms remain in resting (G0) phase during antibiotic treatment.
c)
Distribution of an antibiotic is insufficient to cause resolution of the infection.
d)
The strongest microorganisms survive antibiotic treatment, while the weakest are eradicated.
36.
A client is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent will reduce the number of polyps and decrease the risk of colon cancer?
a)
Ibuprofen
b)
Nabumetone
c)
Celecoxib
d)
Probenecid
37.
A child has symptoms of influenza, including a fever. Which medication should not be administered to the child because of the risk of Reye's syndrome?
a)
Acetaminophen
b)
Acetylsalicylic acid
c)
Ibuprofen
d)
Ascorbic acid
38.
A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected overdose of acetaminophen. What potential adverse effect should the nurse first address?
a)
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
b)
hepatotoxicity
c)
gastrointestinal bleeding
d)
acute confusion
39.
A perinatal nurse is preparing a dose of IV indomethacin for administration to a neonate. What is the most plausible indication for this treatment?
a)
Patent ductus arteriosus
b)
Tetralogy of Fallot
c)
Patent foramen ovale
d)
Cardiomyopathy
40.
A client diagnosed with osteoarthritis has been prescribed meloxicam. Which instruction should the client be given to assure the medication's safe administration?
a)
Take the medication on an empty stomach to maximize absorption.
b)
Take 1 hour before other medications or 2 hours after.
c)
Avoid activities that would be unsafe if drowsy.
d)
Take the medication at bedtime to minimize adverse effects.
41.
Which physiologic action increases a client's stress-related release of cortisol?
a)
Negative feedback mechanism
b)
Stimulation of the hypothalamus
c)
Release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
d)
Atrophy of the adrenal cortex
42.
A client suffers from recurrent sinus infections and has been prescribed an inhaled medication. Which medication will be prescribed to decrease sinus inflammation?
a)
Cortisone
b)
Prednisone
c)
Dexamethasone (Decadron)
d)
Mometasone (Nasonex)
43.
A client, admitted with an acute asthma attack, has been using inhaled corticosteroids two times daily for several years. Based on this information in the client's history, what should the nurse anticipate will be required in the client's care?
a)
The client will require an antibiotic to treat infection.
b)
The client will require high doses of systemic drugs.
c)
The client will need to be evaluated by a pulmonologist.
d)
The client will have diminished tidal volume after treatment.
44.
An adult client is preparing to begin corticosteroid treatment for rheumatoid arthritis. When teaching this client about the appropriate use of corticosteroids, the nurse should include what teaching point?
a)
"You will likely gain some weight after you start taking this drug."
b)
"Try to eat as many organic and natural foods as possible while taking this drug."
c)
"You might have some slight bleeding in your stool after you start this drug."
d)
"Ensure that you vary the times that you take your drug in order to maximize effectiveness."
45.
A client has a history of a life-threatening anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G. Which medication should not be administered to this client?
a)
Lactulose
b)
Ketoconazole
c)
Kanamycin
d)
Cefadroxil
46.
Ampicillin-sulbactam is administered to a client with Staphylococcus aureus. What type of anti-infective is ampicillin-sulbactam?
a)
Extended-spectrum antipseudomonal penicillin
b)
Penicillin–beta-lactamase inhibitor combination
c)
Cephalosporin
d)
Aminopenicillin
47.
How does adding a beta-lactamase inhibitor agent help achieve a therapeutic effect when prescribed for otitis media?
a)
It extends the spectrum of antibacterial activity of penicillin.
b)
It extends the spectrum of the beta-lactamase inhibitor.
c)
It decreases the side effects of high-dose penicillin.
d)
It increases the absorption of the penicillin.
48.
What organ system is responsible for the excretion of cefotaxime sodium from the body?
a)
Respiratory
b)
Hepatic
c)
Renal
d)
Gastrointestinal
49.
When conducting health education for a client prescribed an oral penicillin for an infection caused by gram-negative bacilli, the nurse should emphasize which instructions?
a)
The need to take the medication on an empty stomach
b)
The fact that a mild rash frequently follows the first few doses
c)
The need to reduce fluid intake for the duration of treatment
d)
The fact that the drug should be discontinued once symptoms subside
50.
Which drug is a first-generation cephalosporin used as a surgical prophylaxis?
a)
Cefotetan
b)
Cefoxitin
c)
Ceftriaxone
d)
Cefazolin
51.
What aspect of a client's history would contraindicate imipenem–cilastatin drug therapy?
a)
The client has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus.
b)
The client is showing signs and symptoms of fluid volume excess.
c)
The client's most recent creatinine level was 140 mmol/L (high).
d)
The client has a documented allergy to penicillin.
52.
An older adult client responded well to inpatient treatment with a third-generation cephalosporin. After being largely symptom free for 48 hours, the client has developed a fever of 38.6°C and an elevated white cell count. What phenomenon may account for this client's current clinical presentation?
a)
The client may be infected with microorganisms that were resistant to the cephalosporin.
b)
The client may be experiencing a delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity reaction to the cephalosporin.
c)
The client may be developing glomerulonephritis secondary to the nephrotoxic cephalosporin.
d)
The cephalosporin may have initially caused leukopenia and made the client susceptible to secondary infection.
53.
A client is diagnosed with an infection attributable to the gram-negative microorganism Pseudomonas. Which anti-infective agent is most reliable in treating this microorganism?
a)
Aminoglycoside
b)
Antifungal
c)
Aminopenicillin
d)
GABA analog
54.
A client has been prescribed ciprofloxacin IV for the treatment of cellulitis. After initiating the infusion of the client's first scheduled dose, the client develops a pronounced rash on the chest and arms. How should the nurse respond initially to this event?
a)
Discontinue the infusion and inform the health care provider promptly.
b)
Slow down the rate so that the infusion takes place over 2 hours.
c)
Administer oral diphenhydramine to the client during the infusion.
d)
Administer an STAT dose of acetylcysteine.
55.
A client is seen in the clinic after a bite from a tick. The client has a rash over the arms and legs and arthritic pain in the joints. What drug would the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe?
a)
Ibuprofen
b)
Tetracycline
c)
Phenazopyridine
d)
Nitrofurantoin
56.
A client is administered a sulfonamide for a urinary tract infection. Which intervention is most appropriate to increase alkalinity of the client's urine and so increasing the medication's effectiveness?
a)
Provide at least 2000 mL of water daily.
b)
Administer sodium bicarbonate.
c)
Recommend a tub bath every evening.
d)
Provide orange juice daily.
57.
A public health nurse interacts with many members of the community who are at risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse should anticipate the use of tetracycline in a client who is diagnosed with what STI?
a)
Vaginitis
b)
Chlamydia
c)
Human papillomavirus
d)
Trichomoniasis
58.
The nurse is educating a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection about the prescribed trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (TMP–SMZ). The client has a history of type 2 diabetes and currently takes a sulfonylurea. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification?
a)
"I will monitor my blood sugar carefully since the drug may lower it."
b)
"I will take the drug with 8 ounces of water before or after meals."
c)
"The drug will not affect the herbal supplement, ginseng, that I take."
d)
"If a rash develops, the drug will be discontinued and my prescriber notified."
59.
The nurse is caring for a client who developed malaria while abroad and who is being treated with sulfadiazine. To prevent adverse effects of treatment, the nurse should perform which action?
a)
Ensure the client's fluid intake is sufficient to produce 1.5 liters of urine daily.
b)
Protect the client from any indirect or direct sunlight until treatment is complete.
c)
Apply moisturizer to dependent skin surfaces three times daily.
d)
Ensure visitors wear gowns and face masks.
60.
The health care provider prescribed an antibacterial drug to a client for treatment of acne. What drug does the nurse expect to be prescribed?
a)
Chloramphenicol
b)
Clindamycin
c)
Daptomycin
d)
Tigecycline
61.
A 22-year-old college student allergic to penicillin is being treated with oral erythromycin for a chlamydial infection. What assessment should the nurse prioritize during this client's course of treatment to monitor for adverse reactions?
a)
assessment of the client's apical heart rate
b)
assessment of the client's hearing
c)
assessment of the client's peripheral pulses
d)
assessment of the client's cardiac function
62.
A client, being treated in the intensive care unit, has been diagnosed with ventilator-associated pneumonia. Culture and sensitivity testing of the client's sputum indicates that erythromycin is a treatment option. Which nursing assessment is most appropriate to rule out contraindications for this medication therapy?
a)
Review lab results to confirm normal liver function.
b)
Question the client about any history of gastrointestinal upset.
c)
Review the medical chart for a history of nephrotoxic signs or symptoms.
d)
Confirm the ability to safely swallow oral medication.
63.
A client, hospitalized with active tuberculosis, is receiving antitubercular drug therapy but has not experienced the expected therapeutic effects. The nurse will collaborate with the care provider to rule out what possible cause?
a)
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
b)
Drug-resistant tuberculosis
c)
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
d)
Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
64.
A client is prescribed isoniazid and rifampin for the treatment of active tuberculosis (TB). The client's medication education should stress that initial symptom improvement is likely to take how long?
a)
48 hours
b)
A week to 10 days
c)
2 to 3 weeks
d)
4 to 6 weeks
65.
A 23-year-old client is prescribed zidovudine for treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement indicates that the client has understood the client teaching regarding the action of this medication?
a)
"Zidovudine inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease."
b)
"Zidovudine therapy may result in the development of resistant strains."
c)
"Zidovudine slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it."
d)
"Zidovudine prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections."
66.
A client is prescribed zanamivir to treat influenza B. The client has a history of asthma. For which symptom should the nurse assess?
a)
Bradycardia
b)
Pneumonia
c)
Bronchospasm
d)
Pulmonary embolism
67.
A client is being treated with amphotericin B for a severe fungal infection. How long does the nurse expect drug therapy to last?
a)
1 to 2 weeks
b)
3 to 6 weeks
c)
4 to 12 weeks
d)
15 to 18 weeks
68.
A client is prescribed nystatin suspension for an oral fungal infection. The nurse should provide the client with information concerning which adverse effect associated with this form of nystatin?
a)
Local irritation
b)
Burning
c)
Nausea
d)
Urinary urgency
69.
A client who is diagnosed with a fungal infection is prescribed itraconazole. Prior to administration, the nurse notes that the client is taking carbamazepine for a seizure disorder. Based on this medication regimen, what information should the nurse provide to the client?
a)
The client is likely to experience seizures.
b)
The client's carbamazepine should be discontinued.
c)
The client's antiseizure medication should be changed.
d)
The client will require a higher dosage of itraconazole.
70.
A client is being treated with caspofungin for a systemic fungal infection related to Aspergillus. Prior to the administration of the first parenteral dose, the nurse notes that the client's serum hepatic levels are elevated. How will these serum hepatic enzymes affect the administration of caspofungin?
a)
The dose will need to be increased.
b)
The dose will need to be decreased.
c)
The dose will require a serum trough.
d)
The medication should not be given.
71.
A client is being treated for a fungal infection with IV amphotericin B. In order to monitor for adverse effects, the nurse should consistently monitor the client's levels of which component?
a)
Sodium
b)
Hemoglobin
c)
Calcium
d)
Leukocytes
72.
An adult client has begun treatment with fluconazole. The nurse should recognize the need to likely discontinue the drug if the client develops which sign or symptom?
a)
Jaundice
b)
Weight gain
c)
Iron deficiency anemia
d)
Hematuria
73.
When administering the azoles in the home setting, the home health nurse should prioritize educational interventions that address what nursing diagnosis?
a)
Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy
b)
Risk for acute confusion related to antifungal therapy
c)
Risk for infection related to antifungal therapy
d)
Risk for falls related to antifungal therapy
74.
Caspofungin has been prescribed for a client diagnosed with invasive aspergillosis. The nurse should teach the client to promptly report what symptom associated with an adverse reaction?
a)
Cardiac distress
b)
Diaphoresis
c)
Dry mouth
d)
Muscle pain
75.
A nature photographer will be embarking on a trip overseas and is beginning a protocol for malaria prophylaxis involving 500 mg of chloroquine phosphate. What instruction should the nurse include in this client's health education?
a)
"Make sure you take your pill on the same day each week."
b)
"It's not unusual to develop a rash on your trunk and arms, but this isn't cause for concern."
c)
"You'll need to plan ahead so that you take your chloroquine on an empty stomach."
d)
"We'll need to provide you with enough syringes and teach you how to inject the drug."
76.
A client has been diagnosed with amebiasis. What signs and symptoms would the nurse most likely expect to assess?
a)
Red rash
b)
Severe diarrhea
c)
Intermittent fever
d)
Dizziness and confusion
77.
A client, taking metronidazole for the past 4 days, reports to the nurse that the most recent dose caused the client to feel "flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach." What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon?
a)
"Do you know if you've ever had an allergic reaction to penicillin?"
b)
"Did you drink any alcoholic beverages around the time of taking the drug?"
c)
"Did you take this dose on an empty stomach?"
d)
"Are you taking any over-the-counter antihistamines?"
78.
A client with a diagnosis of amebiasis has nearly completed the prescribed course of metronidazole. Which of the nurse's assessment findings would most clearly suggest successful treatment?
a)
formed stools
b)
afebrile state
c)
healed skin lesions
d)
absence of headache and neck pain
79.
The nurse is caring for a client who will begin a prophylactic course of hydroxychloroquine prior to a trip to a region where malaria is endemic. Which teaching will the nurse provide?
a)
Start the medication 2 weeks before leaving and continue for 8 weeks after returning.
b)
Start the medication on the day of arrival in the destination country, and weekly thereafter.
c)
Begin taking the medication at the earliest sign of malaise, headache, or fever.
d)
Take the medication at the same time each day and continue until leaving the region.
80.
The nurse is completing the medication reconciliation of a new client and observes that the client completed a course of treatment with artemether/lumefantrine earlier in the year. The nurse will recognize the client's history of which diagnosis?
a)
malaria
b)
giardiasis
c)
pediculosis
d)
trichomoniasis
81.
The nurse is providing education regarding lifestyle changes to a client diagnosed with hypertension. What diet should the nurse recommend as most appropriate for this client?
a)
lean sausage, baked beans, and coleslaw
b)
grilled hamburger, baked french fries, and diet soda
c)
grilled chicken, peas, and baked potato
d)
ham sandwich, low-fat potato chips, and cookie
82.
An older adult client who resides in a care facility has been prescribed antihypertensives for the first time following many years of generally good health. When administering the first dose of the prescribed antihypertensive medication to an older adult, the nurse should recognize the related risk to which possible side effect?
a)
Falls
b)
Infection
c)
Acute confusion
d)
Impaired oxygenation
83.
What is the mechanism of action for medications prescribed to treat a rapid arrhythmia?
a)
Reducing automaticity
b)
Increasing conduction
c)
Repolarizing myocardial cells
d)
Reducing refractory period
84.
The nurse is administering procainamide to a client with a tachyarrhythmia. Which finding indicates a need to reduce the medication dose?
a)
immobility
b)
hypertension
c)
renal impairment
d)
chronic diarrhea
85.
A client is admitted to the emergency department with a ventricular arrhythmia associated with an acute myocardial infarction. What assessment should the nurse make prior to administering a bolus of lidocaine IV?
a)
Assess for lidocaine administration in the client's history.
b)
Determine the client's ability to swallow.
c)
Assess the client's nutritional history for allergies.
d)
Determine if the client has had a reaction to local anesthesia.
86.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving amiodarone. Which assessment would be considered a priority?
a)
Urine outputs
b)
Heart rate checks
c)
Lung sounds
d)
Muscle rigidity
87.
The health care provider has prescribed a class IV calcium channel blocker for a client diagnosed with acute supraventricular tachycardia. Which drug does this nurse expect to be prescribed?
a)
Bethanechol chloride
b)
Chlorambucil
c)
Diltiazem
d)
Midazolam hydrochloride
88.
The nurse is preparing to administer adenosine to a client. What is the rationale for administering adenosine as a bolus?
a)
It undergoes an unusually high first-pass effect.
b)
Bolus administration lessens the risk of potential adverse effects.
c)
It has an exceptionally short half-life.
d)
A sudden, high serum level provides a long-lasting effect.
89.
An adult client with no known history of cardiovascular disease presents with atrial flutter. The client is prescribed propafenone PO 150 mg every 8 hours for 24 hours. What is the cardiac care nurse's priority assessment during this period?
a)
Every 1-hour monitoring of potassium levels
b)
Blood pressure monitoring every 10 minutes
c)
Echocardiography
d)
Continuous ECG monitoring
90.
A client with recurrent ventricular fibrillation has been prescribed oral amiodarone on an ongoing basis. What safety education will the nurse prioritize?
a)
the need to consult with the health care provider before taking new medications
b)
the need for continuous cardiac monitoring for the duration of treatment
c)
avoiding high-tyramine foods
d)
the importance of maintaining adequate sodium and potassium intake
91.
A client reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the neck. The pain lasts 5 minutes and then subsides with relaxation. What is the most likely cause of the chest pain?
a)
Myocardial infarction
b)
Intermittent claudication
c)
Hypertension
d)
Angina pectoris
92.
A client with a long-standing diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a beta-blocker for the treatment of angina. The nurse should consequently prioritize assessment for what health problem?
a)
bronchospasm
b)
pulmonary edema
c)
pleural effusion
d)
pneumonia
93.
The nurse has completed administering an oral dose of 30 mg of long-lasting nifedipine. What principle should guide the nurse's follow-up assessment?
a)
Nifedipine has the potential to induce arrhythmias
b)
Nifedipine does not affect heart rate, so this assessment is not normally necessary.
c)
The client's heart rate will be at its lowest approximately 45 minutes to 1 hour after oral administration of nifedipine.
d)
The client's blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation should be assessed 15, 30, and 60 minutes after administration.
94.
The nurse is providing education to a client who has been prescribed bisoprolol. During teaching, the nurse explains that the drug achieves a therapeutic effect in what way?
a)
Decreasing heart rate
b)
Increasing the force of myocardial contractions
c)
Prolonging the QT interval
d)
Shortening the time required for repolarization
95.
A client with a diagnosis of angina has been prescribed nifedipine sustained-release 30 mg orally once per day. Prior to administration, the nurse will perform which assessment?
a)
blood pressure
b)
oxygen saturation
c)
pain assessment
d)
chest auscultation
96.
A client is administered epinephrine in conjunction with a local anesthetic. What effect will epinephrine produce?
a)
Decreased cerebral circulation
b)
Decreased coronary circulation
c)
Increased vasoconstrictive effects
d)
Increased bronchoconstriction
97.
A child who is allergic to bee stings is stung by a bee at school. The school nurse administers epinephrine. Why is epinephrine the drug of choice for this client?
a)
It has a long half-life.
b)
It has an effect on the adrenal gland.
c)
It has a rapid onset.
d)
It is inexpensive and affordable.
98.
A client is receiving IV norepinephrine for treatment of shock. What is the goal of administration?
a)
Increased heart rate
b)
Increased blood pressure
c)
Increased cardiac output
d)
Increased cardiac contractibility
99.
The nurse is administering norepinephrine intravenous (IV) to an adult client diagnosed with septic shock. The client suddenly develops redness and edema at the right forearm IV site. The client's systolic blood pressure (SBP) is 88 mm Hg. Which action would the nurse implement first?
a)
Increase infusion and reassess SBP in 2 minutes.
b)
Stop the infusion and administer diluted phentolamine.
c)
Assess urine output, and report to prescriber if less than 30 mL/h.
d)
Establish a new IV site with at least 20-gauge needle.
100.
A client has been diagnosed with shock and the health care provider has prescribed "dobutamine 10 mcg/kg/min IV." What is the nurse's most appropriate action?
a)
Administer the medication as prescribed.
b)
Clarify with the health care provider that the medication is intended for continuous infusion.
c)
Obtain the frequency of dose administration from the health care provider.
d)
Confirm that the health care provider intends to prescribe dobutamine and not dopamine.