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2121 Exam 2 OT 2

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is reviewing ECG results for a client with a potassium level of 6.4 mEq/L. Which ECG finding should the nurse expect?

a)

Flattened T waves

b)

Prominent U waves

c)

Peaked T waves

d)

Prolonged QT interval

2.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving spironolactone. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to hold the medication and notify the provider?

a)

Blood pressure 110/68 mm Hg

b)

Potassium 5.8 mEq/L

c)

Heart rate 76/min

d)

Sodium 138 mEq/L

3.

A client with hyperkalemia secondary to acute kidney injury is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Which finding indicates the medication is having its intended effect?

a)

Increased urine output

b)

Decreased serum potassium level

c)

Decreased blood glucose level

d)

Improved ECG rhythm immediately

4.

A nurse is teaching a client about medications that increase potassium levels. Which medication should the nurse include as a potassium-sparing diuretic?

a)

Hydrochlorothiazide

b)

Furosemide

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Mannitol

5.

A nurse is assessing a client who is most at risk for developing peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which history finding is the strongest risk factor?

a)

Long-term cigarette smoking

b)

Daily oral contraceptive use

c)

Sedentary job with 8-hr shifts

d)

Family history of varicose veins

6.

A nurse is identifying modifiable risk factors for PAD in a client with intermittent claudication. Which finding is the priority contributor to PAD progression?

a)

Body mass index of 29

b)

Long-standing diabetes mellitus

c)

Smoking 1 pack per day

d)

Age older than 60 years

7.

A nurse is screening clients for PAD risk. Which client has the highest risk profile?

a)

30-year-old with asthma using an inhaler

b)

52-year-old with migraines and normal BP

c)

41-year-old who exercises daily with LDL 90 mg/dL

d)

67-year-old with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia

8.

A nurse is teaching a client with PAD about long-term risk reduction. Which instruction targets a major PAD risk factor?

a)

Increase potassium-rich foods daily

b)

Begin daily hot foot soaks

c)

Keep legs elevated above the heart when resting

d)

Maintain blood pressure, glucose, and lipid control as prescribed

9.

A nurse is differentiating arterial insufficiency from venous insufficiency. Which finding is most consistent with arterial disease?

a)

Brown discoloration at the ankles

b)

Warm legs with edema that improves with elevation

c)

Diminished pedal pulses with cool skin

d)

Weeping drainage from a shallow ulcer near the medial malleolus

10.

A client reports leg pain that worsens when the legs are elevated and improves when dangling at the bedside. Which disorder is most consistent with this report?

a)

Peripheral arterial disease

b)

Peripheral venous disease

c)

Cellulitis

d)

Lymphedema

11.

A nurse assesses a client with chronic venous insufficiency. Which manifestation is most expected?

a)

Pain that improves with dependency

b)

Ulcer on the tip of the toe

c)

Cool, pale skin with hair loss

d)

Edema with aching that improves with leg elevation

12.

A client has a shallow, irregular ulcer near the medial malleolus with moderate drainage. Which underlying disorder is most likely?

a)

Arterial insufficiency

b)

Venous insufficiency

c)

Acute arterial occlusion

d)

Neuropathy only

13.

A nurse is assessing a client for PAD manifestations. Which finding most strongly supports PAD?

a)

Warm skin temperature and bounding pulses

b)

Bilateral ankle edema that improves with elevation

c)

Shiny, hairless lower legs with diminished pedal pulses

d)

Calf tenderness with redness along a vein

14.

A client reports calf pain while walking that is relieved by rest. Which interpretation is most consistent with this pattern?

a)

Venous stasis pain

b)

Intermittent claudication

c)

Neuropathic pain

d)

Musculoskeletal strain

15.

A client with PAD reports severe foot pain at night. Which nursing instruction is most appropriate to improve perfusion?

a)

Elevate the legs above heart level

b)

Apply a heating pad to the feet

c)

Keep legs dependent at the bedside

d)

Apply compression stockings tightly

16.

A nurse is teaching a client with PAD about foot care. Which instruction is most appropriate?

a)

Soak feet in hot water daily

b)

Inspect feet daily using a mirror if needed

c)

Use a heating pad if feet feel cold

d)

Trim toenails into rounded corners to prevent ingrown nails

17.

A nurse is assessing for manifestations of peripheral venous disease. Which finding is most expected?

a)

Pain that worsens with walking and improves with rest

b)

Pallor and dependent rubor

c)

Cool, thin skin with absent pulses

d)

Aching heaviness with edema that improves with elevation

18.

A nurse is differentiating venous disease from PAD. Which assessment finding most supports venous insufficiency?

a)

Ulcer on toes with minimal drainage

b)

Brown discoloration and edema near the ankles

c)

Decreased capillary refill with cool extremity

d)

Pain worse with leg elevation

19.

A client has chronic venous insufficiency. Which report is most consistent with venous disease rather than PAD?

a)

"My pain gets worse when I elevate my legs."

b)

"My toes look pale when I lift my leg."

20.

A client has venous stasis ulcers. Which intervention is most appropriate to promote healing?

a)

Keep legs dependent for comfort

b)

Apply heating pads to improve blood flow

c)

Restrict ambulation to prevent pain

d)

Encourage frequent leg elevation and use prescribed compression

21.

A nurse is performing neurovascular checks after a lower-extremity procedure. Which finding requires immediate provider notification?

a)

Capillary refill 2 seconds

b)

Warm skin temperature

c)

Absent pedal pulse in the affected extremity

d)

Mild tingling that resolves after repositioning

22.

A nurse is trending neurovascular status. Which assessment set is the priority for early identification of acute ischemia?

a)

Bowel sounds, urine output, temperature

b)

Pain, pallor, pulses, paresthesia

c)

Respiratory rate, lung sounds, oxygen saturation

d)

Appetite, nausea, bowel movements

23.

A client reports increasing leg pain after cast application and says the leg “feels tight,” with new numbness in the toes. Which action is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Elevate the extremity and apply ice

b)

Give prescribed analgesic and reassess in 30 minutes

c)

Encourage ambulation to improve circulation

d)

Perform an immediate full neurovascular assessment and notify the provider

24.

A nurse is documenting reassessment after an intervention for impaired perfusion. Which finding best indicates improved tissue perfusion?

a)

Capillary refill improving from 5 seconds to 2 seconds

b)

Increasing numbness in toes

c)

Skin becoming cooler to touch

d)

Increased pain with passive movement

25.

A nurse is completing a history on a client at highest risk for developing peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which finding is the most significant risk factor?

a)

Long-term cigarette smoking

b)

History of seasonal allergies

c)

Daily yoga practice

d)

Calcium supplement use

26.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client with PAD about risk reduction. Which change is the priority to slow disease progression?

a)

Increase potassium intake

b)

Stop smoking completely

c)

Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day

d)

Use heating pads on the legs daily

27.

A nurse is evaluating risk factors in four clients. Which client is at greatest risk for PAD?

a)

24-year-old with asthma using an inhaler

b)

39-year-old with migraines

c)

61-year-old with diabetes and hypertension

d)

52-year-old with lactose intolerance

28.

A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client with PAD. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

“I’ll check my feet every day.”

b)

“I’ll wear cotton socks.”

c)

“I’ll avoid walking barefoot.”

d)

“I’ll use a heating pad if my feet feel cold.”

29.

A nurse is assessing a client with a history of peripheral vascular disorders. Which assessment finding is most consistent with arterial insufficiency rather than venous insufficiency?

a)

Brown discoloration at the ankles

b)

Warm skin with edema

c)

Diminished pedal pulses

d)

Weeping drainage from a leg ulcer

30.

A nurse is caring for a client with peripheral vascular disorder and new numbness in the foot. Which action is the priority?

a)

Place the client in Trendelenburg position

b)

Apply compression stockings

c)

Perform a neurovascular assessment immediately

d)

Massage the calf to improve circulation

31.

A client reports calf pain when walking that resolves with rest. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

a)

Venous stasis

b)

Intermittent claudication from PAD

c)

Cellulitis

d)

Deep vein thrombosis

32.

A nurse is planning care for a client with peripheral vascular disorder. Which intervention is most appropriate for a client with arterial insufficiency?

a)

Elevate legs above the heart for long periods

b)

Apply sequential compression devices continuously

c)

Encourage dangling legs in a dependent position to relieve pain

d)

Apply tight elastic bandages from toes upward

33.

A nurse is assessing a client who reports leg pain when walking and relief with rest. Which additional finding supports PAD?

a)

Bounding pulses

b)

Warm, reddened lower legs

c)

Shiny, hairless skin on lower extremities

d)

Bilateral ankle swelling that improves with elevation

34.

A client with PAD has foot pain at night. Which position should the nurse recommend to improve tissue perfusion?

a)

Elevate legs on pillows above heart level

b)

Keep legs dependent at the bedside

c)

Lie flat with legs straight

d)

Apply cold packs to reduce pain

35.

A nurse is assessing a client’s lower extremities. Which finding is the priority indicator of decreased arterial tissue perfusion?

a)

2+ pitting edema at ankles

b)

Warm skin temperature

c)

Capillary refill of 6 seconds in toes

d)

Brown discoloration at the gaiter area

36.

A nurse is teaching a client with PAD about foot care. Which instruction is most appropriate?

a)

“Use a heating pad to warm your feet.”

b)

“Soak feet in hot water daily.”

c)

“Trim toenails into rounded corners.”

d)

“Inspect feet daily using a mirror if needed.”

37.

A nurse is assessing a client with peripheral venous disease. Which finding is most expected?

a)

Pain worse with leg elevation

b)

Pallor with dependent positioning

c)

Cold, numb toes with absent pulses

d)

Edema and aching that improves with elevation

38.

A nurse is differentiating venous vs arterial disease. Which finding supports peripheral venous disease rather than PAD?

a)

Intermittent claudication

b)

Thin, shiny skin with hair loss

c)

Ulcer on the tips of toes

d)

Brown discoloration near the ankles

39.

A client has heaviness in legs, ankle swelling, and a shallow ulcer near the medial malleolus. Which nursing instruction is the priority?

a)

Avoid compression because it decreases arterial flow

b)

Keep legs in a dependent position at rest

c)

Wear prescribed compression stockings consistently

d)

Apply heating pads to increase circulation

40.

A nurse performs a neurovascular check on a post-procedure client. Which finding requires immediate provider notification?

a)

Capillary refill 2 seconds

b)

Warm skin temperature

c)

Tingling in toes with palpable pulses

d)

Absent pedal pulse in the affected extremity

41.

A nurse is completing neurovascular checks after a lower-extremity procedure. Which assessment components are priority to trend for early ischemia?

a)

Bowel sounds and urine output

b)

Pain, pallor, pulses, paresthesia

c)

Lung sounds and respiratory rate

d)

Blood glucose and skin turgor

42.

A nurse notes increasing pain in a client’s leg after a cast application. The client reports numbness and “tightness.” Which action is the priority?

a)

Elevate the leg and apply ice

b)

Administer prescribed pain medication

c)

Perform an immediate full neurovascular assessment

d)

Encourage the client to ambulate

43.

A nurse is documenting neurovascular reassessment findings. Which finding best indicates improvement in tissue perfusion?

a)

Increased pain with passive movement

b)

Capillary refill improving from 5 seconds to 2 seconds

c)

Increasing numbness in the toes

d)

Skin becoming cooler to touch

44.

A nurse is reviewing a client’s history: BP 148/92, waist circumference increased, triglycerides 280 mg/dL, HDL 32 mg/dL, fasting glucose 110 mg/dL. Which teaching is the priority to reduce progression to type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease?

a)

Begin a low-carb diet and stop all fats

b)

Increase physical activity and focus on weight reduction

c)

Start insulin therapy now to prevent complications

d)

Restrict fluids to reduce blood pressure

45.

A client with metabolic syndrome asks why the provider is “so worried” even though they “don’t have diabetes yet.” Which nurse response is best?

a)

“Metabolic syndrome usually resolves on its own.”

b)

“It means your pancreas has already stopped making insulin.”

c)

“It signals insulin resistance and raises your risk for heart disease and diabetes.”

d)

“It only increases risk if your A1c is already above 7%.”

46.

A client has metabolic syndrome and takes a thiazide diuretic for hypertension. The nurse notes fasting glucose has increased over the last month. What is the nurse’s best action?

a)

Teach the client to skip breakfast to lower glucose

b)

Reinforce lifestyle changes and notify the provider of the trend

c)

Treat the client for hypoglycemia immediately

d)

Instruct the client to stop the diuretic abruptly

47.

A client receives lispro at 0730 but their breakfast tray is delayed until 0815. Which action is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Give the client a carbohydrate source immediately

b)

Hold the next dose of long-acting insulin

c)

Encourage the client to ambulate until the tray arrives

d)

Administer regular insulin instead

48.

A nurse is evaluating a client’s understanding of long vs short acting insulin. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

“Regular insulin starts working immediately, so I can take it after meals.”

b)

“Glargine peaks strongly, so I need a snack at its peak time.”

c)

“NPH is cloudy and has a peak, so I watch for lows later on.”

d)

“Lispro lasts all day, so I only need it once daily.”

49.

A nurse receives an order to give an IV insulin infusion for rapid glucose reduction. Which insulin type is appropriate for IV administration?

a)

NPH insulin

b)

Regular insulin

c)

Insulin glargine U-100

d)

Premixed 70/30 insulin

50.

A nurse is reconciling home meds for a client with diabetes. Which order is most consistent with a long-acting (basal) insulin?

a)

Insulin lispro (Humalog) 6 units subcut before each meal

b)

Regular insulin 8 units subcut 30 min before breakfast

c)

NPH insulin 10 units subcut at 0700 and 1900

d)

Insulin glargine U-100 (Lantus) 18 units subcut at bedtime

51.

A client is NPO for a procedure at 1000. The provider orders the client’s usual insulin regimen. Which insulin is the nurse most likely to question holding because it is short/rapid acting and meal-related?

a)

Insulin lispro

b)

Insulin glargine U-100

c)

Insulin detemir

d)

Insulin degludec

52.

A nurse is teaching a client how to identify which insulin is “meal-time” versus “all-day.” Which client statement shows correct understanding?

a)

“Glargine is my mealtime insulin because it works fast.”

b)

“Regular insulin is my basal insulin because it lasts 24 hours.”

c)

“Lispro is a mealtime insulin because it starts working quickly.”

d)

“NPH is mealtime insulin because it has no peak.”

53.

A client with atrial fibrillation is being discharged on warfarin. The nurse is reviewing home meds and finds the client also takes levothyroxine daily. Which instruction is most important to include?

a)

“Have your INR checked more often when a new medication is added.”

b)

“Take warfarin with food to prevent stomach upset.”

c)

“Increase foods high in vitamin K to prevent bleeding.”

d)

“Stop levothyroxine until your INR stabilizes.”

54.

A client on a continuous heparin infusion suddenly develops bleeding at the IV site and gums. The provider prescribes the antidote. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

a)

Vitamin K (phytonadione)

b)

Protamine sulfate

c)

Alteplase

d)

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

55.

A client is receiving anticoagulant therapy after a DVT. Which assessment finding requires the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Heart rate 96/min after ambulation

b)

Mild bruising at venipuncture sites

c)

Dark, concentrated urine after poor intake

d)

Black, tarry stools

56.

A client on warfarin has an INR 5.2 and reports “my gums bleed when I brush.” Which action is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Hold the next dose and notify the provider

b)

Give the scheduled dose and recheck INR tomorrow

c)

Encourage more leafy greens for the next week

d)

Administer protamine sulfate per protocol

57.

A client receiving heparin develops sudden shortness of breath and their platelet count drops from 220,000/mm3 to 88,000/mm3. Which action is most appropriate?

a)

Give aspirin to prevent clot formation

b)

Continue heparin and recheck platelets in 6 hr

c)

Start warfarin immediately at a loading dose

d)

Stop heparin and notify the provider (possible HIT)

58.

A client on warfarin says they started an “anti-inflammatory natural supplement” for joint pain. Which is the best nursing response based on bleeding risk?

a)

“That’s fine—supplements don’t affect warfarin.”

b)

“Take it only at night to reduce interaction.”

c)

“Stop it and call your provider—some supplements increase bleeding.”

d)

“Increase vitamin K foods to balance it out.”

59.

Which discharge statement shows a client on anticoagulant therapy needs further teaching?

a)

“I’ll use a soft toothbrush.”

b)

“I’ll call if I notice blood in my urine.”

c)

“I’ll avoid contact sports.”

d)

“I’ll take ibuprofen for headaches instead of acetaminophen.”

60.

A client on warfarin reports they are starting CoQ10. Which outcome is the nurse most concerned about?

a)

Increased sedation and falls

b)

Decreased warfarin effect leading to higher clot risk

c)

Severe hypoglycemia

d)

Acute kidney injury

61.

The nurse is titrating an IV heparin infusion. Which lab is used to evaluate and adjust the infusion?

a)

INR

b)

aPTT

c)

Hemoglobin A1c

d)

Troponin

62.

A client taking warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation asks how to handle diet. Which instruction is best?

a)

Avoid all foods with vitamin K completely

b)

Increase vitamin K foods to “protect the blood”

c)

Keep vitamin K intake consistent from day to day

d)

Eat vitamin K foods only on days you skip warfarin

63.

A client on anticoagulant therapy calls the clinic reporting new symptoms. Which symptom is most concerning and requires immediate evaluation?

a)

Mild gum bleeding after flossing

b)

Small ecchymosis on forearm

c)

Sudden severe headache

d)

Occasional nausea after meals

64.

A client on warfarin says they’ve started resveratrol and saw palmetto supplements. What is the nurse’s priority concern?

a)

Reduced warfarin effectiveness causing clotting

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Increased blood glucose

d)

Increased bleeding risk from additive antiplatelet effects

65.

A client on IV heparin develops excessive bleeding after a recent dose increase. Before administering the antidote, which action is most appropriate?

a)

Give vitamin K IM

b)

Increase the infusion rate to maintain therapeutic levels

c)

Stop/hold the heparin infusion and notify the provider

d)

Switch the client to aspirin immediately

66.

A client on warfarin has an INR that has been stable for months. They suddenly develop easy bruising and epistaxis. Which “new change” is most likely to contribute and should be reported?

a)

Starting a daily multivitamin without iron

b)

Eating the same salad every night like usual

c)

Taking warfarin at bedtime instead of morning

d)

Adding levothyroxine after a new hypothyroidism diagnosis

67.

A client receiving anticoagulant therapy asks what “counts” as dangerous bleeding. Which instruction is best?

a)

“Only heavy bleeding matters—small bleeding is expected.”

b)

“Bleeding is only dangerous if your blood pressure drops.”

c)

“If you have bruising, stop the medication immediately.”

d)

“Report bleeding that doesn’t stop, black stools, vomiting blood, or severe headache.”

68.

A client on warfarin asks which herbal products can increase bleeding risk. Which list is most correct?

a)

Feverfew, garlic, ginger, ginkgo

b)

Iron, calcium, magnesium, zinc

c)

Echinacea, melatonin, vitamin C, niacin

d)

CoQ10, folic acid, riboflavin, biotin

69.

The nurse is monitoring a client on IV heparin. Which assessment finding requires holding the infusion and notifying the provider?

a)

aPTT slightly below goal range

b)

Active bleeding with hypotension

c)

Mild pain at IV site without swelling

d)

Platelets 210,000/mm3

70.

A client on warfarin says, “I’m switching to a supplement for inflammation—glucosamine.” What is the best nursing action?

a)

Tell the client it’s safe because it’s not a prescription medication

b)

Tell the client to double their warfarin dose for 3 days

c)

Teach to consult the provider/pharmacist and monitor INR closely

d)

Instruct the client to take glucosamine at least 4 hours apart from warfarin

71.

A client is receiving anticoagulant therapy and is scheduled for a procedure the next morning. Which nursing action is most appropriate to reduce harm?

a)

Give the morning dose early so levels “wear off”

b)

Verify which anticoagulant is ordered and clarify hold parameters with the provider

c)

Stop all anticoagulants permanently

d)

Replace the anticoagulant with aspirin without an order

72.

A client with fatigue and weight gain has a TSH of 12 mIU/L. The provider prescribes levothyroxine. Which follow-up lab is the nurse’s priority to evaluate whether the dose is working?

a)

TSH

b)

Troponin

c)

CK-MB

d)

BNP

73.

A client started levothyroxine 2 weeks ago. They ask if they should “get my TSH checked tomorrow to see if it’s working.” What is the best nurse response?

a)

Recheck TSH in 6–8 weeks after starting therapy to assess response

b)

Check TSH tomorrow to adjust the dose quickly

c)

Stop the medication and recheck TSH in 2 days

d)

Double the dose for 1 week and then measure TSH

74.

A client with hypothyroidism is taking levothyroxine. Which assessment finding most strongly suggests the client may be over-replaced (dose too high), requiring provider notification?

a)

Bradycardia and constipation

b)

Cold intolerance and weight gain

c)

Palpitations and heat intolerance

d)

Dry skin and menorrhagia

75.

A client’s TSH is very low after a recent levothyroxine dose increase. The nurse should anticipate which complication is most important to screen for in an older adult?

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Neutropenia

d)

Pulmonary embolism

76.

A client asks why TSH is used to "track thyroid meds." Which explanation is most accurate?

a)

TSH rises when the body has too much thyroid hormone.

b)

TSH rises when the body has too little thyroid hormone.

c)

TSH is made in the thyroid gland and directly measures T4.

d)

TSH is only useful in hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism.

77.

A client has suspected hyperthyroidism. Which lab pattern best supports this?

a)

High TSH, low T4

b)

Low TSH, high T4

c)

High TSH, high T4

d)

Low TSH, low T4

78.

A client has suspected primary hypothyroidism. Which lab pattern best supports this?

a)

High TSH, low T4

b)

Low TSH, high T4

c)

Low TSH, low T4

d)

Normal TSH, high T4

79.

A client has a pituitary disorder and symptoms of hypothyroidism. Which pattern is most consistent with secondary hypothyroidism (pituitary problem)?

a)

High TSH, low T4

b)

Low TSH, high T4

c)

Low/normal TSH, low T4

d)

High TSH, high T4

80.

A client’s TSH is normal but they still have classic thyroid symptoms. The provider orders free T4 rather than total T4. Why is free T4 the better "real-time" indicator?

a)

Free T4 reflects the hormone available to tissues, not protein-bound hormone.

b)

Free T4 is only used in thyroid cancer.

c)

Total T4 is never accurate in any situation.

d)

Free T4 rises only when the thyroid gland is removed.

81.

A client is being evaluated for thyroid function. Which situation can make thyroid labs misleading unless the provider interprets carefully?

a)

Eating a high-protein breakfast

b)

Taking binding agents like iron/calcium close to levothyroxine

c)

Drinking caffeine with water

d)

Using acetaminophen weekly

82.

A client with hypothyroidism says, "I take my levothyroxine with breakfast and my multivitamin because it’s easier." What is the nurse’s best instruction?

a)

"That’s perfect—food improves absorption."

b)

"Take levothyroxine on an empty stomach, and separate it from iron/calcium by about 4 hours."

c)

"Switch to nighttime only if you also take antacids."

d)

"Crush the tablet and mix it into milk."

83.

A client taking levothyroxine reports chest pain and a racing heartbeat. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Tell the client this is expected for the first month

b)

Instruct the client to stop the medication permanently

c)

Assess vital signs/apical pulse and notify the provider (possible overmedication/cardiac stress)

d)

Give PRN insulin to prevent hyperglycemia

84.

Which client statement indicates correct understanding of levothyroxine therapy?

a)

"Once I feel better, I can stop it."

b)

"I should take it only on days I feel tired."

c)

"If my brand changes, I should tell my provider because my dose may need adjustment."

d)

"This medication is used mainly for weight loss."

85.

The nurse reviews a medication list for a client newly prescribed levothyroxine. Which concurrent medication requires the most immediate monitoring plan because levothyroxine can increase its effect?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Furosemide

c)

Metformin

d)

Albuterol

86.

A client with hypothyroidism is also diabetic. After starting levothyroxine, which change should the nurse anticipate may be needed?

a)

Lower insulin requirements because metabolism slows

b)

Higher insulin requirements because metabolism increases with thyroid replacement

c)

Stop insulin because thyroid replacement corrects diabetes

d)

Switch to only sliding-scale insulin permanently

87.

A client arrives with chest pressure and diaphoresis. Which lab is the priority to evaluate for myocardial injury?

a)

BNP

b)

Troponin

c)

Potassium

d)

D-dimer

88.

A client’s troponin is normal on arrival but the provider still suspects MI. What is the nurse’s best understanding?

a)

One normal troponin completely rules out MI

b)

Troponin must be repeated because early values can be negative depending on timing

c)

Troponin is only elevated in heart failure, not MI

d)

CK-MB is always elevated before symptoms start

89.

A client has chest pain after a cardiac procedure yesterday. Troponin is mildly elevated, but the provider is most concerned about reinfarction. Which lab is most useful for detecting a new MI when troponin may still be elevated from the prior injury?

a)

CK-MB

b)

Sodium

c)

WBC

d)

HbA1c

90.

A client with crushing chest pain has ST changes and is anxious. Which set of findings is most concerning for progression to cardiogenic shock (low cardiac output)?

a)

Warm skin, bounding pulses, BP 148/92

b)

Cool clammy skin, weak pulses, decreasing urine output

c)

Pink frothy sputum with BP 150/88

d)

Bradycardia with BP 132/84 and no symptoms

91.

A client with suspected MI asks why they keep drawing "heart labs." Which explanation is best?

a)

"Troponin and CK-MB rise only with dehydration."

b)

"These labs help show whether heart muscle cells were injured and are leaking proteins into blood."

c)

"These labs only diagnose angina, not MI."

92.

A client is scheduled for coronary angiography. Which nursing action is the priority before the procedure?

a)

Encourage potassium-rich foods

b)

Assess for iodine/contrast allergy and check kidney function (risk for contrast nephropathy)

c)

Give high-dose diuretics to prevent fluid overload

d)

Hold all blood pressure medications for 72 hours

93.

After coronary angiography via femoral access, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

Mild tenderness at insertion site

b)

Small bruise at insertion site

c)

Cool, pale leg with weak distal pulses on the affected side

d)

Heart rate 88 and BP 128/76

94.

A client is going for a cardiac catheterization. Which provider order should the nurse question first if the client has significant renal impairment?

a)

IV 0.9% sodium chloride

b)

Iodinated contrast administration without a renal-risk plan

c)

NPO status prior to procedure

d)

Baseline creatinine draw

95.

A nurse is monitoring a client after angiography who reports sudden back/flank pain and has falling BP and rising HR. Which complication is the nurse most concerned about?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Retroperitoneal bleeding

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Pulmonary embolism

96.

A client is getting a cardiac stress test tomorrow and asks what it’s for. Which response is best?

a)

“It directly removes coronary plaque.”

b)

“It helps evaluate how your heart responds to increased workload and can suggest ischemia.”

c)

“It replaces the need for ECGs and troponins.”

d)

“It’s only used to diagnose pericardial effusion.”