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WorksheetsPHARSEM2-Pharmacology 1
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
The study of substances that interact with living systems through chemical processes is called:
Pharmacodynamics
Pharmacokinetics
Pharmacology
Toxicology
The term for substances used to prevent, diagnose, or treat diseases is:
Pharmacotherapy
Pharmacokinetics
Drugs
Placebo
The molecular components of the body that drugs interact with to bring about their effects are called:
Enzymes
Ligands
Receptors
Proteins
The science of drug preparation, dispensing, and proper utilization is known as:
Pharmacology
Pharmacy
Pharmacokinetics
Pharmacodynamics
A drug that must be metabolized before becoming active is referred to as a:
Placebo
Ligand
Prodrug
Receptor antagonist
Which of the following bonds is the strongest in drug-receptor interactions?
Covalent
Electrostatic
Hydrogen
Van der Waals
Pharmacodynamics refers to:
What the drug does to the body
What the body does to the drug
How drugs are absorbed and excreted
Drug metabolism processes
The type of receptor regulation where receptors decrease in number or become desensitized is called:
Up-regulation
Down-regulation
Agonistic interaction
Counterfeit mechanism
A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity is classified as:
Full agonist
Partial agonist
Inverse agonist
Antagonist
The inactive preparation given to satisfy a patient’s symbolic need for drug therapy is called:
Prodrug
Placebo
Ligand
Antagonist
Which of the following is a type of drug-receptor interaction?
Signal transduction
Neutralization
Colligative mechanism
Direct chemical interaction
A drug that mimics the effect of an endogenous ligand and produces the maximum response is a:
Full agonist
Partial agonist
Inverse agonist
Antagonist
The specific receptor characteristic that determines its attraction to a ligand is called:
Intrinsic activity
Affinity
Selectivity
Potency
The phenomenon where a drug competes with an agonist for the same receptor site in a reversible manner is:
Irreversible antagonism
Competitive antagonism
Physiological antagonism
Chemical antagonism
Drugs with molecular weights between 100–1000 are considered:
Too large for absorption
Ideal for receptor binding
Weak organic acids
Inactive in biological systems
Which of the following is an example of a structural protein targeted by drugs?
Na/K ATPase
Tubulin
Cyclooxygenase
GABA receptor
What type of ligand produces effects that are opposite to the agonist?
Full agonist
Partial agonist
Inverse agonist
Antagonist
The binding of a drug molecule to receptors resulting in a biological effect is represented as:
Ligand → Receptor → Response
Drug → Receptor → Drug-Receptor Complex → Effect
Enzyme + Drug → Complex → Response
Signal → Transduction → Effect
Which term refers to the ability of a drug to evoke a biological response after binding to a receptor?
Affinity
Intrinsic activity
Potency
Selectivity
A ligand that binds to a receptor and prevents agonist action without activating the receptor is:
Full agonist
Partial agonist
Antagonist
Inverse agonist
The dose of a drug that produces a specific effect in 50% of the population is known as:
TD50
EC50
ED50
MSC
The concentration of a drug in plasma required to produce a therapeutic effect is termed:
Maximum safe concentration (MSC)
Minimum effective concentration (MEC)
Sub-therapeutic level
Therapeutic index
The parameter used to measure the relative safety of a drug is:
Potency
Efficacy
Therapeutic Index
Ceiling Dose
Which of the following represents the highest dose that produces a maximum response?
Potency
Ceiling dose
ED50
Efficacy
A graded dose-response curve is used to evaluate:
Variation in drug response within a population
Time taken for drug onset
Increasing response with increasing drug dose
Toxicity levels of a drug
The time required for a drug to start producing its pharmacological response is called:
Onset of action
Onset time
Duration of action
Intensity of action
The parameter that measures the maximum pharmacologic response produced by a drug is:
Potency
Therapeutic Range
Intensity of Action
Efficacy
Which of the following is an example of a quantal dose-response parameter?
ED50
MEC
Emax
MSC
The time period during which a drug’s plasma concentration remains above the minimum effective concentration (MEC) is referred to as:
Duration of action
Intensity of action
Onset time
Therapeutic range
The graphical relationship between the increasing fraction of a population showing a response and progressively increasing doses is represented by:
Graded dose-response curve
Quantal dose-response curve
Time-response curve
Therapeutic index curve
The combination of two drugs that results in an effect equal to the sum of their individual effects is called:
Synergism
Potentiation
Summation
Antagonism
A situation where the total effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects is:
Potentiation
Summation
Synergism
Antagonism
When one drug enhances the effect of another drug without having an effect of its own, it is known as:
Summation
Synergism
Potentiation
Antagonism
A drug combination where the effect of one drug cancels the effect of another is called:
Potentiation
Synergism
Summation
Antagonism
The ratio between the lethal dose (LD50) and the effective dose (ED50) of a drug is:
Standard margin of safety
Therapeutic index
Margin of error
Potency ratio
A condition where a drug produces an unusual or unexpected response in an individual is:
Hyperreactivity
Idiosyncrasy
Hypersensitivity
Tolerance
A rapid decrease in drug responsiveness after repeated administration is called:
Tolerance
Hypersensitivity
Tachyphylaxis
Idiosyncrasy
The time period during which a drug's plasma concentration is above the minimum effective concentration is referred to as:
Onset time
Intensity of action
Duration of action
Therapeutic range
The percentage by which the effective dose for 99% of the population must be increased to cause lethal effects in 1% of the population is:
Therapeutic index
Margin of safety
Lethal dose ratio
Dose-response percentage
An increased intensity of a drug's effect for a given dose, compared to the effect seen in most individuals, is referred to as:
Hyperreactivity
Hyporeactivity
Tolerance
Idiosyncrasy
What does pharmacokinetics describe?
What the drug does to the body
What the body does to the drug
The interaction of drugs with receptors
The therapeutic use of drugs
Which transport mechanism requires energy and moves substances against their concentration gradient?
Passive transport
Active transport
Facilitated diffusion
Convective transport
The fraction or percentage of a drug dose that reaches systemic circulation is known as:
Half-life
Bioavailability
Elimination
Metabolism
Which type of drug transport involves drug movement through water-filled pores or channels?
Vesicular transport
Convective transport
Ion-pair transport
Carrier-mediated transport
What is the main advantage of the intravenous (IV) route of administration?
Immediate drug action
Convenient for self-administration
Avoids first-pass metabolism
Both A and C
Which is NOT an example of an enteral route of drug administration?
Oral
Sublingual
Subcutaneous
Rectal
What is the purpose of transdermal drug delivery systems like patches?
Provide immediate relief
Allow sustained drug release over time
Avoid systemic circulation
Enhance drug solubility
The first transdermal product introduced for use was:
Fentanyl patch
Nicotine patch
Scopolamine patch
Nitroglycerin patch
What is the main characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
Requires ATP
Moves substances along a concentration gradient
Non-specific transport
Involves vesicle formation
Which parameter refers to the time it takes for the drug concentration to decrease by half in the blood?
Bioavailability
Therapeutic index
Half-life
Elimination rate
Which of the following does not belong to the group?
Dopamine
Histamine
Tryptophan
Vasopressin
Two of the above
Which of the following is TRUE about Autacoids: I. Local hormones II. Systemic III. Short half-life IV. Endogenous compounds
I and III
II, III, IV
I, III, IV
AOTA
Which of the following is TRUE about Prostaglandins:
Vasoconstrictor
Inflammation
Pain
AOTA
This polypeptide autacoid is responsible for an increase synthesis of Prostaglandin:
Vasopeptide
Substance P
Bradykinin
Kinin
An organic nitrogenous compound involved in local immune responses and is also considered as a neurotransmitter:
Serotonin
Histamine
Prostaglandin
Eicosanoid
Which of the following is TRUE about ADH:
Vasoactive peptide
Substance P
Vasopressin
Adenosine
Produced by macrophages as part of the inflammatory response. It causes vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.
Prostaglandin
Platelet activating factor
Thromboxane
Serotonin
They are released by leukocytes during the inflammatory response. They are vasoconstrictors and also increase the permeability of the capillary wall.
Prostaglandin
Platelet activating factor
Plasma
Leukotrienes
Autacoids take part into the following except:
Anaphylactic reaction
Gastric acid secretion
Inflammation
Asthma
In CNS, autacoids are responsible for the following, except: I. Wakefulness II. decrease appetite III. temperature regulation IV. Secretion of vasopressin
I, II
I, III
IV only
II only
Which receptor is involved in gastric acid secretion?
H1
H2
H3
H4
What is the primary precursor for histamine?
Histidine
Glycine
L-histidine decarboxylase
Tryptophan
The classic "triple response" of histamine includes:
Flare, edema, and itch
Wheal, flare, and red spot
Rash, swelling, and pain
Vasodilation, rash, and itch
The primary location of H3 receptors is in:
Parietal cells of the stomach
Smooth muscle
Leukocytes and mast cells
Central nervous system
What is the role of H4 receptors?
Chemotactic responses of leukocytes
Modulating neurotransmission
Promoting gastric acid secretion
Blocking histamine release
First-generation H1 antihistamines are characterized by:
High sedative effects
Low lipid solubility
Lack of autonomic receptor-blocking effects
Non-sedative properties
Which drug is considered the first transdermal product?
Fexofenadine
Scopolamine
Loratadine
Promethazine
A second-generation antihistamine that is truly non sedating is:
Diphenhydramine
Chlorpheniramine
Fexofenadine
Cyclizine
Diphenhydramine is commonly used for:
Motion sickness
Parkinsonism symptoms
Gastric acid reduction
Seasonal allergies
Which receptor mediates chemotaxis of eosinophils?
H1
H2
H3
H4
Histamine is metabolized primarily by which enzyme?
Monoamine oxidase
Diamine oxidase
Tyrosine hydroxylase
Two of the above
A histamine receptor involved in vasodilation and bronchoconstriction is:
H1
H2
H3
H4
Which histamine antagonist is useful in serotonin syndrome?
Diphenhydramine
Cyproheptadine
Fexofenadine
Cetirizine
The therapeutic use of H2 blockers includes:
Reducing motion sickness
Decreasing gastric acid secretion
Treating serotonin syndrome
Relieving bronchospasm
Which drug is classified as an ethanolamine and is highly sedating?
Promethazine
Diphenhydramine
Fexofenadine
Cetirizine
What effect is primarily associated with H1 receptor activation?
Gastric acid secretion
Chemotaxis
Pain and itching
Presynaptic modulation
Which receptor type is coupled with Gq protein and uses IP3 as a second messenger?
H1
H2
H3
H4
Which drug is a prototype H2 blocker?
Ranitidine
Cimetidine
Famotidine
Nizatidine
An example of an H1 blocker used for chemotherapy-induced vomiting is:
Diphenhydramine
Meclizine
Promethazine
Cyclizine
The primary therapeutic application of H2 antagonists is:
Treating asthma
Reducing gastric acid secretion
Preventing serotonin syndrome
Relieving chemotherapy-induced vomiting
Which of the following is the precursor for serotonin?
Histidine
Glutamine
Tryptamine
Tryptophan
Serotonin is metabolized primarily by which enzyme?
Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
Acetylcholinesterase
Histamine-N-methyltransferase
Which serotonin receptor is associated with mediating synaptic inhibition via increased potassium conductance?
5-HT1
5-HT2
5-HT3
5-HT4
Antagonists at which serotonin receptor are most effective as antiemetic drugs?
5-HT1
5-HT2
5-HT3
5-HT4
The following drug is a 5-HT2 receptor antagonist:
Ondansetron
Ketanserin
Granisetron
Sumatriptan
What physiological effect is primarily mediated by 5-HT4 receptors?
Vasodilation
Intestinal motility
Platelet aggregation
Appetite suppression
Which receptor mediates a reduction in appetite and has been used in the treatment of obesity?
5-HT1B
5-HT2C
5-HT3
5-HT4
Drugs targeting which serotonin receptor are commonly used to treat migraines?
5-HT1B/1D receptor agonists
5-HT2 receptor antagonists
5-HT3 receptor antagonists
5-HT4 receptor agonists
Which serotonin receptor is unique for mediating excitation through a gated cation channel?
5-HT1
5-HT2
5-HT3
5-HT4
What is the major metabolite of serotonin detected in urine?
Tryptamine
5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)
Dopamine
Catecholamine
Which syndrome involves high fever, skeletal muscle effects, and cardiovascular abnormalities associated with serotonin agonists?
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Malignant Hyperthermia
Serotonin Syndrome
Carcinoid Syndrome
Which drug is used for irritable bowel syndrome associated with diarrhea?
Ondansetron
Alosetron
Ketanserin
Sumatriptan
The triphasic blood pressure response caused by serotonin involves all the following phases except:
Initial hypotension
Intermediate hypertension
Sustained tachycardia
Secondary hypotension
What is the final pharmacological effect of serotonin on the triphasic blood pressure response in skeletal muscle?
Vasoconstriction
Vasodilation
Venoconstriction
No effect
Which receptor is involved in mediating bronchoconstriction associated with carcinoid syndrome?
5-HT1
5-HT2
5-HT3
5-HT4
Which serotonin receptor subtype is coupled to Gi proteins?
5-HT1
5-HT2
5-HT3
5-HT4
Which drug is an irreversible 5-HT2 receptor blocker?
Ondansetron
Phenoxybenzamine
Cyproheptadine
Granisetron
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
Sumatriptan: 5-HT1B/1D agonist
Ondansetron: 5-HT3 antagonist
Ketanserin: 5-HT1A agonist
Cyproheptadine: 5-HT2 antagonist
What is the main storage site of serotonin in the body?
Enterochromaffin cells
CNS neurons
Platelets
All of the above
Which condition is primarily treated using ergotamine derivatives?
Nausea and vomiting
Migraines
Irritable bowel syndrome
Depression
