wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PHARSEM2-Pharmacology 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The study of substances that interact with living systems through chemical processes is called:

a)

Pharmacodynamics

b)

Pharmacokinetics

c)

Pharmacology

d)

Toxicology

2.

The term for substances used to prevent, diagnose, or treat diseases is:

a)

Pharmacotherapy

b)

Pharmacokinetics

c)

Drugs

d)

Placebo

3.

The molecular components of the body that drugs interact with to bring about their effects are called:

a)

Enzymes

b)

Ligands

c)

Receptors

d)

Proteins

4.

The science of drug preparation, dispensing, and proper utilization is known as:

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Pharmacy

c)

Pharmacokinetics

d)

Pharmacodynamics

5.

A drug that must be metabolized before becoming active is referred to as a:

a)

Placebo

b)

Ligand

c)

Prodrug

d)

Receptor antagonist

6.

Which of the following bonds is the strongest in drug-receptor interactions?

a)

Covalent

b)

Electrostatic

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Van der Waals

7.

Pharmacodynamics refers to:

a)

What the drug does to the body

b)

What the body does to the drug

c)

How drugs are absorbed and excreted

d)

Drug metabolism processes

8.

The type of receptor regulation where receptors decrease in number or become desensitized is called:

a)

Up-regulation

b)

Down-regulation

c)

Agonistic interaction

d)

Counterfeit mechanism

9.

A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity is classified as:

a)

Full agonist

b)

Partial agonist

c)

Inverse agonist

d)

Antagonist

10.

The inactive preparation given to satisfy a patient’s symbolic need for drug therapy is called:

a)

Prodrug

b)

Placebo

c)

Ligand

d)

Antagonist

11.

Which of the following is a type of drug-receptor interaction?

a)

Signal transduction

b)

Neutralization

c)

Colligative mechanism

d)

Direct chemical interaction

12.

A drug that mimics the effect of an endogenous ligand and produces the maximum response is a:

a)

Full agonist

b)

Partial agonist

c)

Inverse agonist

d)

Antagonist

13.

The specific receptor characteristic that determines its attraction to a ligand is called:

a)

Intrinsic activity

b)

Affinity

c)

Selectivity

d)

Potency

14.

The phenomenon where a drug competes with an agonist for the same receptor site in a reversible manner is:

a)

Irreversible antagonism

b)

Competitive antagonism

c)

Physiological antagonism

d)

Chemical antagonism

15.

Drugs with molecular weights between 100–1000 are considered:

a)

Too large for absorption

b)

Ideal for receptor binding

c)

Weak organic acids

d)

Inactive in biological systems

16.

Which of the following is an example of a structural protein targeted by drugs?

a)

Na/K ATPase

b)

Tubulin

c)

Cyclooxygenase

d)

GABA receptor

17.

What type of ligand produces effects that are opposite to the agonist?

a)

Full agonist

b)

Partial agonist

c)

Inverse agonist

d)

Antagonist

18.

The binding of a drug molecule to receptors resulting in a biological effect is represented as:

a)

Ligand → Receptor → Response

b)

Drug → Receptor → Drug-Receptor Complex → Effect

c)

Enzyme + Drug → Complex → Response

d)

Signal → Transduction → Effect

19.

Which term refers to the ability of a drug to evoke a biological response after binding to a receptor?

a)

Affinity

b)

Intrinsic activity

c)

Potency

d)

Selectivity

20.

A ligand that binds to a receptor and prevents agonist action without activating the receptor is:

a)

Full agonist

b)

Partial agonist

c)

Antagonist

d)

Inverse agonist

21.

The dose of a drug that produces a specific effect in 50% of the population is known as:

a)

TD50

b)

EC50

c)

ED50

d)

MSC

22.

The concentration of a drug in plasma required to produce a therapeutic effect is termed:

a)

Maximum safe concentration (MSC)

b)

Minimum effective concentration (MEC)

c)

Sub-therapeutic level

d)

Therapeutic index

23.

The parameter used to measure the relative safety of a drug is:

a)

Potency

b)

Efficacy

c)

Therapeutic Index

d)

Ceiling Dose

24.

Which of the following represents the highest dose that produces a maximum response?

a)

Potency

b)

Ceiling dose

c)

ED50

d)

Efficacy

25.

A graded dose-response curve is used to evaluate:

a)

Variation in drug response within a population

b)

Time taken for drug onset

c)

Increasing response with increasing drug dose

d)

Toxicity levels of a drug

26.

The time required for a drug to start producing its pharmacological response is called:

a)

Onset of action

b)

Onset time

c)

Duration of action

d)

Intensity of action

27.

The parameter that measures the maximum pharmacologic response produced by a drug is:

a)

Potency

b)

Therapeutic Range

c)

Intensity of Action

d)

Efficacy

28.

Which of the following is an example of a quantal dose-response parameter?

a)

ED50

b)

MEC

c)

Emax

d)

MSC

29.

The time period during which a drug’s plasma concentration remains above the minimum effective concentration (MEC) is referred to as:

a)

Duration of action

b)

Intensity of action

c)

Onset time

d)

Therapeutic range

30.

The graphical relationship between the increasing fraction of a population showing a response and progressively increasing doses is represented by:

a)

Graded dose-response curve

b)

Quantal dose-response curve

c)

Time-response curve

d)

Therapeutic index curve

31.

The combination of two drugs that results in an effect equal to the sum of their individual effects is called:

a)

Synergism

b)

Potentiation

c)

Summation

d)

Antagonism

32.

A situation where the total effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects is:

a)

Potentiation

b)

Summation

c)

Synergism

d)

Antagonism

33.

When one drug enhances the effect of another drug without having an effect of its own, it is known as:

a)

Summation

b)

Synergism

c)

Potentiation

d)

Antagonism

34.

A drug combination where the effect of one drug cancels the effect of another is called:

a)

Potentiation

b)

Synergism

c)

Summation

d)

Antagonism

35.

The ratio between the lethal dose (LD50) and the effective dose (ED50) of a drug is:

a)

Standard margin of safety

b)

Therapeutic index

c)

Margin of error

d)

Potency ratio

36.

A condition where a drug produces an unusual or unexpected response in an individual is:

a)

Hyperreactivity

b)

Idiosyncrasy

c)

Hypersensitivity

d)

Tolerance

37.

A rapid decrease in drug responsiveness after repeated administration is called:

a)

Tolerance

b)

Hypersensitivity

c)

Tachyphylaxis

d)

Idiosyncrasy

38.

The time period during which a drug's plasma concentration is above the minimum effective concentration is referred to as:

a)

Onset time

b)

Intensity of action

c)

Duration of action

d)

Therapeutic range

39.

The percentage by which the effective dose for 99% of the population must be increased to cause lethal effects in 1% of the population is:

a)

Therapeutic index

b)

Margin of safety

c)

Lethal dose ratio

d)

Dose-response percentage

40.

An increased intensity of a drug's effect for a given dose, compared to the effect seen in most individuals, is referred to as:

a)

Hyperreactivity

b)

Hyporeactivity

c)

Tolerance

d)

Idiosyncrasy

41.

What does pharmacokinetics describe?

a)

What the drug does to the body

b)

What the body does to the drug

c)

The interaction of drugs with receptors

d)

The therapeutic use of drugs

42.

Which transport mechanism requires energy and moves substances against their concentration gradient?

a)

Passive transport

b)

Active transport

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Convective transport

43.

The fraction or percentage of a drug dose that reaches systemic circulation is known as:

a)

Half-life

b)

Bioavailability

c)

Elimination

d)

Metabolism

44.

Which type of drug transport involves drug movement through water-filled pores or channels?

a)

Vesicular transport

b)

Convective transport

c)

Ion-pair transport

d)

Carrier-mediated transport

45.

What is the main advantage of the intravenous (IV) route of administration?

a)

Immediate drug action

b)

Convenient for self-administration

c)

Avoids first-pass metabolism

d)

Both A and C

46.

Which is NOT an example of an enteral route of drug administration?

a)

Oral

b)

Sublingual

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Rectal

47.

What is the purpose of transdermal drug delivery systems like patches?

a)

Provide immediate relief

b)

Allow sustained drug release over time

c)

Avoid systemic circulation

d)

Enhance drug solubility

48.

The first transdermal product introduced for use was:

a)

Fentanyl patch

b)

Nicotine patch

c)

Scopolamine patch

d)

Nitroglycerin patch

49.

What is the main characteristic of facilitated diffusion?

a)

Requires ATP

b)

Moves substances along a concentration gradient

c)

Non-specific transport

d)

Involves vesicle formation

50.

Which parameter refers to the time it takes for the drug concentration to decrease by half in the blood?

a)

Bioavailability

b)

Therapeutic index

c)

Half-life

d)

Elimination rate

51.

Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Histamine

c)

Tryptophan

d)

Vasopressin

e)

Two of the above

52.

Which of the following is TRUE about Autacoids: I. Local hormones II. Systemic III. Short half-life IV. Endogenous compounds

a)

I and III

b)

II, III, IV

c)

I, III, IV

d)

AOTA

53.

Which of the following is TRUE about Prostaglandins:

a)

Vasoconstrictor

b)

Inflammation

c)

Pain

d)

AOTA

54.

This polypeptide autacoid is responsible for an increase synthesis of Prostaglandin:

a)

Vasopeptide

b)

Substance P

c)

Bradykinin

d)

Kinin

55.

An organic nitrogenous compound involved in local immune responses and is also considered as a neurotransmitter:

a)

Serotonin

b)

Histamine

c)

Prostaglandin

d)

Eicosanoid

56.

Which of the following is TRUE about ADH:

a)

Vasoactive peptide

b)

Substance P

c)

Vasopressin

d)

Adenosine

57.

Produced by macrophages as part of the inflammatory response. It causes vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.

a)

Prostaglandin

b)

Platelet activating factor

c)

Thromboxane

d)

Serotonin

58.

They are released by leukocytes during the inflammatory response. They are vasoconstrictors and also increase the permeability of the capillary wall.

a)

Prostaglandin

b)

Platelet activating factor

c)

Plasma

d)

Leukotrienes

59.

Autacoids take part into the following except:

a)

Anaphylactic reaction

b)

Gastric acid secretion

c)

Inflammation

d)

Asthma

60.

In CNS, autacoids are responsible for the following, except: I. Wakefulness II. decrease appetite III. temperature regulation IV. Secretion of vasopressin

a)

I, II

b)

I, III

c)

IV only

d)

II only

61.

Which receptor is involved in gastric acid secretion?

a)

H1

b)

H2

c)

H3

d)

H4

62.

What is the primary precursor for histamine?

a)

Histidine

b)

Glycine

c)

L-histidine decarboxylase

d)

Tryptophan

63.

The classic "triple response" of histamine includes:

a)

Flare, edema, and itch

b)

Wheal, flare, and red spot

c)

Rash, swelling, and pain

d)

Vasodilation, rash, and itch

64.

The primary location of H3 receptors is in:

a)

Parietal cells of the stomach

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Leukocytes and mast cells

d)

Central nervous system

65.

What is the role of H4 receptors?

a)

Chemotactic responses of leukocytes

b)

Modulating neurotransmission

c)

Promoting gastric acid secretion

d)

Blocking histamine release

66.

First-generation H1 antihistamines are characterized by:

a)

High sedative effects

b)

Low lipid solubility

c)

Lack of autonomic receptor-blocking effects

d)

Non-sedative properties

67.

Which drug is considered the first transdermal product?

a)

Fexofenadine

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Loratadine

d)

Promethazine

68.

A second-generation antihistamine that is truly non sedating is:

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Chlorpheniramine

c)

Fexofenadine

d)

Cyclizine

69.

Diphenhydramine is commonly used for:

a)

Motion sickness

b)

Parkinsonism symptoms

c)

Gastric acid reduction

d)

Seasonal allergies

70.

Which receptor mediates chemotaxis of eosinophils?

a)

H1

b)

H2

c)

H3

d)

H4

71.

Histamine is metabolized primarily by which enzyme?

a)

Monoamine oxidase

b)

Diamine oxidase

c)

Tyrosine hydroxylase

d)

Two of the above

72.

A histamine receptor involved in vasodilation and bronchoconstriction is:

a)

H1

b)

H2

c)

H3

d)

H4

73.

Which histamine antagonist is useful in serotonin syndrome?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Cyproheptadine

c)

Fexofenadine

d)

Cetirizine

74.

The therapeutic use of H2 blockers includes:

a)

Reducing motion sickness

b)

Decreasing gastric acid secretion

c)

Treating serotonin syndrome

d)

Relieving bronchospasm

75.

Which drug is classified as an ethanolamine and is highly sedating?

a)

Promethazine

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Fexofenadine

d)

Cetirizine

76.

What effect is primarily associated with H1 receptor activation?

a)

Gastric acid secretion

b)

Chemotaxis

c)

Pain and itching

d)

Presynaptic modulation

77.

Which receptor type is coupled with Gq protein and uses IP3 as a second messenger?

a)

H1

b)

H2

c)

H3

d)

H4

78.

Which drug is a prototype H2 blocker?

a)

Ranitidine

b)

Cimetidine

c)

Famotidine

d)

Nizatidine

79.

An example of an H1 blocker used for chemotherapy-induced vomiting is:

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Meclizine

c)

Promethazine

d)

Cyclizine

80.

The primary therapeutic application of H2 antagonists is:

a)

Treating asthma

b)

Reducing gastric acid secretion

c)

Preventing serotonin syndrome

d)

Relieving chemotherapy-induced vomiting

81.

Which of the following is the precursor for serotonin?

a)

Histidine

b)

Glutamine

c)

Tryptamine

d)

Tryptophan

82.

Serotonin is metabolized primarily by which enzyme?

a)

Monoamine oxidase (MAO)

b)

Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

c)

Acetylcholinesterase

d)

Histamine-N-methyltransferase

83.

Which serotonin receptor is associated with mediating synaptic inhibition via increased potassium conductance?

a)

5-HT1

b)

5-HT2

c)

5-HT3

d)

5-HT4

84.

Antagonists at which serotonin receptor are most effective as antiemetic drugs?

a)

5-HT1

b)

5-HT2

c)

5-HT3

d)

5-HT4

85.

The following drug is a 5-HT2 receptor antagonist:

a)

Ondansetron

b)

Ketanserin

c)

Granisetron

d)

Sumatriptan

86.

What physiological effect is primarily mediated by 5-HT4 receptors?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Intestinal motility

c)

Platelet aggregation

d)

Appetite suppression

87.

Which receptor mediates a reduction in appetite and has been used in the treatment of obesity?

a)

5-HT1B

b)

5-HT2C

c)

5-HT3

d)

5-HT4

88.

Drugs targeting which serotonin receptor are commonly used to treat migraines?

a)

5-HT1B/1D receptor agonists

b)

5-HT2 receptor antagonists

c)

5-HT3 receptor antagonists

d)

5-HT4 receptor agonists

89.

Which serotonin receptor is unique for mediating excitation through a gated cation channel?

a)

5-HT1

b)

5-HT2

c)

5-HT3

d)

5-HT4

90.

What is the major metabolite of serotonin detected in urine?

a)

Tryptamine

b)

5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)

c)

Dopamine

d)

Catecholamine

91.

Which syndrome involves high fever, skeletal muscle effects, and cardiovascular abnormalities associated with serotonin agonists?

a)

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

b)

Malignant Hyperthermia

c)

Serotonin Syndrome

d)

Carcinoid Syndrome

92.

Which drug is used for irritable bowel syndrome associated with diarrhea?

a)

Ondansetron

b)

Alosetron

c)

Ketanserin

d)

Sumatriptan

93.

The triphasic blood pressure response caused by serotonin involves all the following phases except:

a)

Initial hypotension

b)

Intermediate hypertension

c)

Sustained tachycardia

d)

Secondary hypotension

94.

What is the final pharmacological effect of serotonin on the triphasic blood pressure response in skeletal muscle?

a)

Vasoconstriction

b)

Vasodilation

c)

Venoconstriction

d)

No effect

95.

Which receptor is involved in mediating bronchoconstriction associated with carcinoid syndrome?

a)

5-HT1

b)

5-HT2

c)

5-HT3

d)

5-HT4

96.

Which serotonin receptor subtype is coupled to Gi proteins?

a)

5-HT1

b)

5-HT2

c)

5-HT3

d)

5-HT4

97.

Which drug is an irreversible 5-HT2 receptor blocker?

a)

Ondansetron

b)

Phenoxybenzamine

c)

Cyproheptadine

d)

Granisetron

98.

Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

a)

Sumatriptan: 5-HT1B/1D agonist

b)

Ondansetron: 5-HT3 antagonist

c)

Ketanserin: 5-HT1A agonist

d)

Cyproheptadine: 5-HT2 antagonist

99.

What is the main storage site of serotonin in the body?

a)

Enterochromaffin cells

b)

CNS neurons

c)

Platelets

d)

All of the above

100.

Which condition is primarily treated using ergotamine derivatives?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Migraines

c)

Irritable bowel syndrome

d)

Depression