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2121 Exam 1 OT pt.2

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A school-age child experiences frequent nosebleeds during winter months. Which factor most commonly contributes to epistaxis in this age group?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Digital trauma combined with dry nasal mucosa

c)

Esophageal varices

d)

Platelet dysfunction

2.

A nurse is assessing a client with long-standing COPD. Which symptom pattern is most characteristic?

a)

Intermittent wheezing with complete symptom resolution

b)

Sudden onset dyspnea with fever

c)

Chronic productive cough and exertional dyspnea

d)

Inspiratory stridor relieved by antibiotics

3.

A client’s serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Polyuria and kidney stones

b)

Constipation and lethargy

c)

Decreased deep tendon reflexes

d)

Perioral numbness and muscle spasms

4.

Which assessment finding best supports a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit?

a)

Jugular venous distention

b)

Crackles at lung bases

c)

Orthostatic hypotension

d)

Peripheral edema

5.

A client has continuous nasogastric suction postoperatively. Which acid–base imbalance is the nurse most concerned about?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

6.

A client receiving IV magnesium sulfate becomes lethargic with a respiratory rate of 10/min. Which finding is most concerning?

a)

Mild nausea

b)

Hyperactive reflexes

c)

Decreased urine output

d)

Respiratory depression

7.

ABGs show pH 7.29, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3− 25 mEq/L. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

8.

Which client statement demonstrates correct understanding of obstructive sleep apnea?

a)

“Antibiotics will correct my airway problem.”

b)

“Sleeping flat on my back prevents obstruction.”

c)

“CPAP helps keep my airway open while I sleep.”

d)

“Avoiding exercise will reduce my symptoms.”

9.

A client reports sudden painless vision loss described as a “curtain coming down.” What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Apply warm compresses

b)

Encourage eye rest

c)

Administer artificial tears

d)

Prepare for urgent ophthalmic evaluation

10.

ABGs reveal pH 7.49, PaCO2 29, HCO3− 23. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

11.

Which finding is most consistent with presbycusis?

a)

Sudden unilateral hearing loss

b)

Conductive hearing loss from fluid

c)

Gradual age-related sensorineural hearing loss

d)

Hearing loss relieved by cerumen removal

12.

What best explains the pathophysiology of primary open-angle glaucoma?

a)

Sudden closure of the anterior chamber angle

b)

Optic nerve infection

c)

Excess tear production

d)

Impaired aqueous humor outflow causing increased IOP

13.

A confused client has a sodium level of 121 mEq/L. Which order should the nurse implement first?

a)

Encourage free water intake

b)

Initiate seizure precautions

c)

Administer hypotonic IV fluids

d)

Place client in Trendelenburg

14.

During a Rinne test, which finding indicates conductive hearing loss?

a)

Air conduction louder than bone conduction

b)

No sound heard by either method

c)

Bone conduction louder than air conduction

d)

Equal air and bone conduction

15.

A child presents with fever, sore throat, and strawberry tongue. Which organism is most likely responsible?

a)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

b)

Candida albicans

c)

Respiratory syncytial virus

d)

Group A β-hemolytic streptococci

16.

Eight hours after tonsillectomy, which finding most strongly suggests hemorrhage?

a)

Mild throat pain

b)

White patches at incision site

c)

Refusal to drink fluids

d)

Frequent swallowing and throat clearing

17.

Vertigo, tinnitus, and ear fullness are classic findings of which disorder?

a)

Otitis media

b)

Allergic rhinitis

c)

Ménière’s disease

d)

Acute glaucoma

18.

Which medication provides rapid relief during an acute asthma attack?

a)

Fluticasone

b)

Salmeterol

c)

Montelukast

d)

Albuterol

19.

Which intervention best helps thin bronchial secretions in a client with COPD?

a)

Fluid restriction

b)

Routine antitussives

c)

Increased hydration if not contraindicated

d)

Avoid humidification

20.

A client has potassium 6.4 mEq/L with ECG changes. Which medication stabilizes cardiac membranes first?

a)

Regular insulin

b)

Sodium bicarbonate

c)

Calcium gluconate

d)

Kayexalate

21.

Perioral tingling and a positive Trousseau sign after thyroidectomy indicate which complication?

a)

Hypermagnesemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

22.

Which client is at highest risk for metabolic acidosis?

a)

Client with prolonged vomiting

b)

Client with loop diuretic use

c)

Client with anxiety-induced hyperventilation

d)

Client with diabetic ketoacidosis

23.

Which food should be avoided on a low-potassium diet?

a)

Applesauce

b)

White rice

c)

Baked potato

d)

Cucumber

24.

A client’s potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L. Which instruction is priority?

a)

Limit potassium-rich foods

b)

Discontinue cardiac monitoring

c)

Expect diarrhea

d)

Increase dietary potassium intake

25.

Which prevention strategy best reduces recurrent epistaxis in children?

a)

Aspirin for inflammation

b)

Petroleum jelly applied inside nares

c)

Daily nasal packing

d)

Forceful nose blowing

26.

Which symptom pattern supports COPD rather than asthma?

a)

Childhood onset

b)

Allergy-triggered episodes

c)

Chronic cough with smoking history

d)

Complete symptom resolution between attacks

27.

Which ECG change is associated with hypocalcemia?

a)

Short QT interval

b)

Peaked T waves

c)

Prolonged QT interval

d)

Widened QRS

28.

Which finding best supports fluid volume deficit?

a)

Elevated BNP

b)

Weak, rapid pulse

c)

Crackles with frothy sputum

d)

Peripheral edema

29.

Chronic use of which medication increases risk for metabolic alkalosis?

a)

Metformin

b)

Heparin

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Loop diuretics

30.

A client with absent patellar reflexes on magnesium sulfate should receive which medication?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Sodium bicarbonate

d)

Potassium chloride

31.

A somnolent post-op client has RR 8/min. Which acid–base change is most likely?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

32.

Which statement indicates a need for further teaching about OSA?

a)

“Weight loss can help.”

b)

“CPAP reduces daytime sleepiness.”

c)

“Alcohol can worsen apnea.”

d)

“Sleeping on my back prevents airway collapse.”

33.

Which symptom is most consistent with chronic open-angle glaucoma?

a)

Sudden eye pain

b)

Purulent drainage

c)

Gradual peripheral vision loss

d)

Fixed dilated pupil

34.

ABGs show pH 7.22, PaCO2 60, HCO3− 26. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

35.

Which medication class is associated with ototoxicity?

a)

Calcium supplements

b)

Fiber laxatives

c)

Loop diuretics

d)

Antacids

36.

A sodium level of 118 mEq/L is noted. Which order should the nurse question?

a)

Seizure precautions

b)

Fluid restriction

c)

Hypertonic saline

d)

Encourage free water

37.

A normal Rinne test result shows:

a)

Bone conduction > air conduction

b)

Air conduction > bone conduction

c)

No sound heard

d)

Equal conduction bilaterally

38.

Antibiotics are prescribed for strep throat primarily to prevent:

a)

Otitis externa

b)

Cataracts

c)

Rheumatic fever

d)

Ménière’s disease

39.

Which discharge instruction is most important after tonsillectomy?

a)

Use a straw

b)

Take ibuprofen around the clock

c)

Gargle vigorously

d)

Avoid coughing and throat clearing

40.

A client with Ménière’s disease reports sudden severe vertigo. Which nursing action is the priority to reduce injury risk?

a)

Assist the client to lie down and implement fall precautions

b)

Encourage the client to ambulate to “retrain balance”

c)

Provide bright lighting to improve visual orientation

d)

Initiate chest physiotherapy

41.

A client with COPD is using pursed-lip breathing. Which outcome indicates the technique is effective?

a)

Increased inspiratory wheezing

b)

Decreased anxiety only

c)

Prolonged exhalation with improved ventilation

d)

Increased respiratory rate with shallow breaths

42.

A client has serum calcium 12.1 mg/dL. Which assessment finding is most consistent with hypercalcemia?

a)

Hyperactive bowel sounds and diarrhea

b)

Constipation and lethargy

c)

Perioral tingling and tetany

d)

Positive Trousseau sign

43.

A nurse suspects fluid volume deficit. Which additional finding best supports this diagnosis?

a)

Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hr

b)

Bounding pulses

c)

Urine specific gravity 1.030

d)

Jugular venous distention

44.

A client has been vomiting for 2 days. Which ABG trend is most likely?

a)

pH ↓, HCO3− ↓

b)

pH ↑, HCO3− ↑

c)

pH ↓, PaCO2 ↑

d)

pH ↑, PaCO2 ↓

45.

A client receiving magnesium sulfate for a clinical condition develops diminished deep tendon reflexes. Which action is most appropriate?

a)

Increase the infusion rate

b)

Administer naloxone

c)

Stop the infusion and prepare to administer calcium gluconate

d)

Give potassium chloride

46.

A postoperative client is hypoventilating after opioid administration. Which ABG is most expected initially?

a)

pH 7.28, PaCO2 58, HCO3− 24

b)

pH 7.52, PaCO2 28, HCO3− 24

c)

pH 7.48, PaCO2 32, HCO3− 22

d)

pH 7.18, PaCO2 38, HCO3− 14

47.

A client with OSA asks what change is most important to avoid worsening nighttime obstruction. Which instruction is best?

a)

“Take a sedative at bedtime to reduce awakenings.”

b)

“Avoid alcohol and sedatives near bedtime.”

c)

“Sleep flat on your back to keep your airway straight.”

d)

“Stop CPAP once symptoms improve.”

48.

A client with suspected retinal detachment reports floaters and flashes after eye trauma. Which action is priority?

a)

Provide antibiotic eye drops

b)

Instruct the client to avoid urgent care unless pain develops

c)

Arrange immediate ophthalmic evaluation

d)

Apply warm compresses every 4 hours

49.

ABGs: pH 7.33, PaCO2 62, HCO3− 32. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

b)

Compensated respiratory alkalosis

c)

Compensated respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis with no compensation

50.

An older adult reports gradual difficulty hearing high-pitched voices. Which change is most consistent with presbycusis?

a)

Progressive sensorineural hearing loss associated with aging

b)

Conductive hearing loss from otitis media

c)

Hearing loss that resolves after irrigation

d)

Sudden unilateral deafness after trauma

51.

A client with chronic open-angle glaucoma asks why treatment is lifelong. Which response is best?

a)

“Treatment prevents bacterial infection from spreading.”

b)

“Glaucoma is cured once pressure normalizes.”

c)

“Managing IOP reduces ongoing optic nerve damage.”

d)

“Treatment restores lost peripheral vision permanently.”

52.

A client has sodium 119 mEq/L with headache and confusion. Which nursing action is the priority?

a)

Encourage oral free water

b)

Initiate seizure precautions

c)

Provide potassium-rich foods

53.

A nurse performs a Rinne test. Which result indicates normal hearing?

a)

BC > AC

b)

AC = BC

c)

AC > BC

d)

No sound by AC or BC

54.

A client with suspected streptococcal pharyngitis is being evaluated. Which action is appropriate?

a)

Start antibiotics before collecting a throat specimen

b)

Obtain ordered throat culture/rapid test before antibiotics when possible

c)

Treat with aspirin for fever reduction

d)

Teach that antibiotics are never indicated

55.

A child 10 hours post-tonsillectomy is restless and swallowing repeatedly. Which action is priority?

a)

Offer red popsicles to assess bleeding amount

b)

Document as expected post-op behavior

c)

Notify the provider immediately for suspected hemorrhage

d)

Encourage vigorous gargling

56.

A client with Ménière’s disease asks what causes the classic symptoms. Which explanation is best?

a)

Fluid accumulation in the inner ear disrupts hearing and balance.

b)

Infection of the middle ear destroys the ossicles.

c)

Overgrowth of cerumen blocks the cochlea.

d)

Cerebral vasospasm reduces blood flow to the retina.

57.

A nurse is preparing medications for an acute asthma exacerbation. Which medication is the priority for rapid bronchodilation?

a)

Montelukast

b)

Fluticasone

c)

Salmeterol

d)

Albuterol

58.

A COPD client has thick, tenacious sputum. Which intervention is most effective to support secretion clearance?

a)

Restrict oral fluids to reduce sputum production

b)

Encourage hydration and provide humidification if not contraindicated

c)

Administer sedating antitussives routinely

d)

Maintain strict bedrest to reduce oxygen demand

59.

A client has potassium 6.9 mEq/L. Which provider order should the nurse anticipate to shift potassium into cells?

a)

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

b)

IV furosemide

c)

Regular insulin with dextrose

d)

Oral potassium supplement

60.

Twelve hours after total thyroidectomy, a client develops tingling and audible stridor. Which complication is the nurse most concerned about?

a)

Hypocalcemia causing laryngospasm

b)

Hyperkalemia causing constipation

c)

Hypernatremia causing edema

d)

Respiratory alkalosis causing diarrhea

61.

Which client condition is most strongly associated with metabolic acidosis?

a)

Prolonged vomiting

b)

Nasogastric suction

c)

Severe diarrhea

d)

Excess antacid use

62.

A client is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which selection should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

a)

Banana

b)

Applesauce

c)

White rice

d)

Cucumber slices

63.

A client with potassium 2.7 mEq/L is prescribed IV potassium chloride. Which action is required?

a)

Administer IV push for rapid correction

b)

Infuse using an IV pump and never give IV push

c)

Mix with sterile water only

d)

Run the infusion wide open

64.

A child has an active nosebleed. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Tilt the head back and swallow blood

b)

Lie supine with head extended

c)

Sit upright, lean forward, and pinch the soft part of the nose

d)

Blow the nose forcefully to clear clots

65.

Which clinical finding is most consistent with chronic bronchitis-type COPD?

a)

Chronic productive cough

b)

Sudden pleuritic chest pain with absent breath sounds

c)

Fever with rusty sputum

d)

Inspiratory stridor with drooling

66.

A client with hypocalcemia is at greatest risk for which complication?

a)

Renal calculi

b)

Constipation

c)

Seizures

d)

Hypertension

67.

A client with fluid volume deficit is expected to have which lab trend?

a)

Decreased BUN

b)

Increased BUN

c)

Decreased hematocrit

d)

Decreased serum osmolality

68.

A nurse is assessing a client for metabolic alkalosis. Which history most supports this diagnosis?

a)

Prolonged diarrhea

b)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

c)

Recurrent vomiting

d)

Acute renal failure

69.

A client receiving magnesium sulfate shows toxicity. Which finding is most urgent?

a)

Respiratory rate 10/min

b)

Absent deep tendon reflexes

c)

Urine output 20 mL/hr

d)

Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg

70.

ABGs: pH 7.52, PaCO2 46, HCO3− 36. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

71.

A client with OSA asks why CPAP is prescribed. Which response is best?

a)

It prevents infection in the airway.

b)

It increases mucus clearance from the lungs.

c)

It splints the airway open during sleep.

d)

It cures apnea so lifestyle changes aren’t needed.

72.

A client on timolol eye drops for glaucoma has a history of asthma. Which action is most appropriate?

a)

Teach the client to use the drops more frequently

b)

Assess for bronchospasm and notify the provider about the history

c)

Tell the client asthma is unrelated to eye medications

d)

Hold all glaucoma medications permanently without notification

73.

ABGs: pH 7.36, PaCO2 60, HCO3− 33. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Compensated respiratory acidosis

b)

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

c)

Compensated metabolic alkalosis

d)

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

74.

Which teaching best supports communication with an older adult who has hearing loss?

a)

Speak quickly to shorten the interaction

b)

Face the client and reduce background noise

c)

Speak loudly from behind the client

d)

Use complex terms to avoid repeating yourself

75.

Which finding is most consistent with chronic open-angle glaucoma?

a)

Sudden severe eye pain and halos

b)

Rapid onset unilateral headache with vomiting

c)

Gradual peripheral vision loss

d)

Purulent discharge and crusting

76.

A client with sodium 120 mEq/L is nauseated and confused. Which order should the nurse question?

a)

Fluid restriction

b)

Neuro checks

c)

Seizure precautions

d)

Encourage oral free water intake

77.

Which Rinne test result is consistent with conductive hearing loss?

a)

AC > BC

b)

AC = BC

c)

BC > AC

d)

No sound heard by AC or BC

78.

A client treated for streptococcal pharyngitis asks why finishing antibiotics matters. Which response is best?

a)

It prevents rheumatic fever and other complications.

b)

It prevents COPD from developing.

c)

It prevents cataracts.

d)

It cures Ménière’s disease.

79.

A child is discharged after tonsillectomy. Which instruction is priority to reduce bleeding risk?

a)

Use a straw for all fluids

b)

Avoid coughing, throat clearing, and nose blowing

c)

Perform vigorous gargling after meals

d)

Take ibuprofen on a schedule

80.

A client reports tinnitus and episodic vertigo. Which additional finding best supports Ménière’s disease?

a)

Ear fullness and fluctuating hearing loss

b)

Purulent ear drainage and fever

c)

Sudden severe eye pain

d)

Nosebleeds with bruising

81.

A client in acute asthma distress arrives with audible wheezing and accessory muscle use. Which action is priority?

a)

Provide detailed inhaler teaching

b)

Administer a rescue bronchodilator as prescribed

c)

Schedule spirometry

d)

Obtain routine labs first

82.

A client with COPD is prescribed guaifenesin. Which outcome indicates the medication is effective?

a)

Respiratory rate drops to 8/min

b)

Wheezing stops permanently

c)

Sputum becomes thinner and easier to expectorate

d)

ABGs normalize immediately

83.

A client has symptomatic hypocalcemia. Which provider order should the nurse anticipate if symptoms are severe?

a)

IV calcium gluconate with cardiac monitoring

b)

Oral vitamin D only

c)

Restrict calcium intake

d)

Administer calcitonin

84.

Which client is at highest risk for metabolic acidosis due to bicarbonate loss?

a)

Client with prolonged diarrhea

b)

Client with prolonged vomiting

c)

Client with NG suction

d)

Client taking loop diuretics

85.

A client on magnesium sulfate has diminished reflexes. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Increase infusion rate

b)

Stop the infusion and notify the provider

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Give oral magnesium

86.

A nurse suspects postoperative hypoventilation. Which ABG change occurs first?

a)

HCO3− falls

b)

PaCO2 rises

c)

pH rises

d)

PaCO2 falls

87.

Which non-pharmacologic intervention is most important for long-term improvement of OSA?

a)

Weight loss when appropriate

b)

Drinking alcohol to sleep deeper

c)

Sleeping supine nightly

d)

Using sedatives at bedtime

88.

A client reports slowly worsening peripheral vision loss with no pain. Which disorder is most likely?

a)

Acute otitis media

b)

Open-angle glaucoma

c)

Ménière’s disease

d)

Allergic rhinitis

89.

ABGs: pH 7.24, PaCO2 24, HCO3− 10. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

90.

An older adult asks why hearing aids help with presbycusis. Which explanation is best?

a)

They amplify sound to compensate for decreased sensorineural function

b)

They cure inner-ear degeneration

c)

They drain middle ear fluid permanently

d)

They reverse blast injury damage

91.

A nurse explains open-angle glaucoma. Which statement is accurate?

a)

“It is typically painless and can progress silently.”

b)

“It always causes sudden severe pain.”

c)

“It is caused by bacterial infection.”

d)

“It resolves without treatment.”

92.

A client with sodium 121 mEq/L is restless and nauseated. Which action is appropriate?

a)

Encourage free water intake

b)

Implement seizure precautions and frequent neuro checks

c)

Administer hypotonic IV fluids

d)

Provide potassium supplements first

93.

A nurse documents Rinne results: “AC > BC bilaterally.” What does this indicate?

a)

Conductive hearing loss

b)

Sensorineural hearing loss

c)

Normal finding

d)

Severe otitis media

94.

A child treated for strep throat develops joint pain and chest discomfort 2 weeks later. Which complication is most concerning?

a)

Rheumatic fever

b)

Cataracts

c)

Ménière’s disease

d)

COPD

95.

A child post-tonsillectomy vomits bright red blood. What is the nurse’s best action?

a)

Offer clear liquids and reassess in 30 minutes

b)

Notify the surgeon immediately and prepare for intervention

c)

Document as expected post-op finding

d)

Encourage gargling to clear blood

96.

Which symptom cluster most strongly supports Ménière’s disease?

a)

Episodic vertigo + tinnitus + ear fullness/hearing loss

b)

Sudden severe eye pain + halos + nausea

c)

Nosebleeds + petechiae + bruising

d)

Wheezing + hives + lip swelling

97.

A nurse is prioritizing interventions for an acute asthma attack. Which action should occur first?

a)

Teach trigger avoidance

b)

Administer a rescue bronchodilator

c)

Provide long-term controller education

d)

Schedule pulmonary testing

98.

Which client instruction best supports COPD secretion clearance at home?

a)

“Restrict fluids to dry up secretions.”

b)

“Use controlled coughing and drink fluids if allowed.”

c)

“Avoid humidification to prevent infection.”

d)

“Take sedating cough suppressants routinely.”

99.

A client is following a low-potassium diet. Which snack is best?

a)

Orange slices

b)

Baked sweet potato

c)

Banana

d)

Apple slices