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2121 Exam 1 OT pt.1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is assessing a 6-year-old with recurrent nosebleeds. Which finding is the most common cause of epistaxis in children?

a)

Digital trauma from nose picking

b)

Esophageal varices

c)

Ruptured cerebral aneurysm

d)

Hemophilia A

2.

A client with COPD reports worsening symptoms. Which finding is expected?

a)

Bradycardia with bounding pulse

b)

Chronic productive cough

c)

Inspiratory stridor with drooling

d)

Sudden pleuritic chest pain after immobilization

3.

A client’s calcium level is 7.6 mg/dL. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?

a)

Constipation and lethargy

b)

Flaccid weakness with hyporeflexia

c)

Perioral tingling and muscle spasms

d)

Polyuria with renal calculi

4.

A nurse suspects fluid volume deficit in an older adult. Which assessment finding supports this?

a)

Jugular venous distention

b)

Crackles in both lung bases

c)

Bounding peripheral pulses

d)

Orthostatic hypotension

5.

Which situation places a client at greatest risk for metabolic alkalosis?

a)

Prolonged vomiting and NG suction

b)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

c)

Profuse diarrhea

d)

Renal failure with uremia

6.

A client receiving magnesium sulfate IV develops toxicity. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

a)

Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Abdominal cramping

d)

Tremors and tingling

7.

A postoperative client has ABGs: pH 7.30, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

8.

A nurse is teaching a client about obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which statement indicates understanding?

a)

“Antibiotics will cure my airway obstruction.”

b)

“I should avoid exercise to prevent fatigue.”

c)

“A bronchodilator is my first-line long-term treatment.”

d)

“Using CPAP can help keep my airway open at night.”

9.

A client reports new “curtain-like” vision loss in one eye. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Prepare the client for urgent ophthalmic evaluation

b)

Teach the client to use artificial tears

c)

Place a warm compress over the eye

d)

Encourage the client to rest the eyes and reassess later

10.

ABGs show: pH 7.50, PaCO2 28, HCO3- 24. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

11.

A nurse is teaching about hearing changes in older adults. Which finding is most consistent with presbycusis?

a)

Sudden hearing loss after a blast injury

b)

Conductive loss from fluid in the middle ear

c)

Gradual sensorineural hearing loss related to aging

d)

Hearing loss that resolves after cerumen removal

12.

Which description best explains the pathophysiology of primary open-angle glaucoma?

a)

Sudden complete blockage of aqueous outflow

b)

Inflammation of the optic nerve from infection

c)

Increased tear production causing corneal edema

d)

Decreased aqueous humor outflow at the trabecular meshwork

13.

A client has sodium 122 mEq/L and is confused. Which provider order should the nurse implement first?

a)

Initiate seizure precautions

b)

Encourage oral free water intake

c)

Administer hypotonic IV fluids

d)

Place the client in Trendelenburg position

14.

When performing the Rinne test, which result suggests conductive hearing loss in the tested ear?

a)

Air conduction (AC) > bone conduction (BC)

b)

AC = BC

c)

BC > AC

d)

No sound is heard by AC or BC

15.

A child has fever, sore throat, and strawberry tongue. Which organism is most associated with this presentation?

a)

Respiratory syncytial virus

b)

Group A β-hemolytic streptococci

c)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

d)

Candida albicans

16.

A child is 8 hours postoperative after tonsillectomy. Which finding is most concerning for hemorrhage?

a)

Refusal to drink cool liquids

b)

Complaint of sore throat

c)

White patches at tonsillar sites

d)

Frequent swallowing and throat clearing

17.

A client reports episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and a feeling of ear fullness. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Ménière’s disease

b)

Acute otitis media

c)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

d)

Allergic rhinitis

18.

A client is having an acute asthma attack with wheezing and dyspnea. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for rapid relief?

a)

Montelukast

b)

Fluticasone inhaler

c)

Albuterol inhaler

d)

Salmeterol inhaler

19.

A client with COPD has thick secretions and difficulty expectorating. Which order best helps thin bronchial secretions?

a)

Encourage increased oral fluids if not contraindicated

b)

Restrict fluids to 1 L/day

c)

Administer an antitussive routinely

d)

Limit humidification to prevent infection

20.

A client has potassium 6.2 mEq/L with peaked T waves. Which medication should the nurse expect first to stabilize cardiac membranes?

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Regular insulin with dextrose

c)

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

d)

IV calcium gluconate

21.

A client reports tingling around the mouth and has positive Trousseau sign after total thyroidectomy. Which complication is occurring?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hypermagnesemia

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

22.

Which client is at highest risk for metabolic acidosis?

a)

A client with prolonged vomiting

b)

A client receiving loop diuretics

c)

A client with acute anxiety and hyperventilation

d)

A client with diabetic ketoacidosis

23.

A client is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food should the client avoid?

a)

White rice

b)

Applesauce

c)

Baked potato

d)

Cucumber slices

24.

A client has potassium 2.9 mEq/L. Which instruction is priority to include?

a)

“Limit foods high in potassium.”

b)

“Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.”

c)

“Stop all cardiac monitoring.”

d)

“Expect diarrhea and abdominal cramping.”

25.

A school-age child has repeated epistaxis in winter. Which prevention teaching is best?

a)

Apply a thin layer of petroleum jelly inside the nares

b)

Use aspirin for pain to reduce inflammation

c)

Forcefully blow the nose after bleeding stops

d)

Pack the nostrils tightly with cotton daily

26.

A client with COPD is most likely to report which symptom pattern?

a)

Sudden onset high fever and pleuritic pain

b)

Chronic cough and exertional dyspnea

c)

Intermittent wheezing only with allergens

d)

Inspiratory crackles that resolve with antibiotics

27.

Which ECG change is most associated with hypocalcemia?

a)

Shortened QT interval

b)

Peaked T waves

c)

Prolonged QT interval

d)

Widened QRS with sine wave pattern

28.

Which finding is most consistent with fluid volume deficit?

a)

Increased skin turgor

b)

Elevated BNP

c)

Crackles and pink frothy sputum

d)

Tachycardia with weak, thready pulse

29.

Which medication history increases risk for metabolic alkalosis due to potassium depletion?

a)

Chronic loop diuretic use

b)

Metformin therapy

c)

Heparin infusion

d)

Acetaminophen use

30.

A client on magnesium sulfate has absent patellar reflexes. Which medication should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Naloxone

c)

Calcium gluconate

d)

Potassium chloride

31.

A postoperative client receiving opioids is somnolent with RR 8/min. Which acid-base change is most likely?

a)

Respiratory acidosis from hypoventilation

b)

Respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation

c)

Metabolic acidosis from diarrhea

d)

Metabolic alkalosis from antacid use

32.

Which client statement about OSA requires further teaching?

a)

“Weight loss can improve my symptoms.”

b)

“CPAP can reduce daytime sleepiness.”

c)

“Alcohol at bedtime can worsen apnea.”

d)

“Sleeping supine always prevents airway collapse.”

33.

A client with suspected retinal detachment reports flashing lights and floaters. Which instruction is priority?

a)

Avoid strenuous activity and seek urgent care today.

b)

Use OTC antihistamine drops for itching.

c)

Apply warm compresses four times daily.

d)

Wear dark glasses and wait 48 hours.

34.

ABGs: pH 7.20, PaCO2 58, HCO3− 24. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

35.

Which client is at greatest risk for hearing impairment related to ototoxicity?

a)

A client taking a loop diuretic

b)

A client taking calcium carbonate

c)

A client taking psyllium

d)

A client taking sucralfate

36.

Which manifestation is most associated with chronic open-angle glaucoma?

a)

Sudden severe eye pain with nausea

b)

Fixed mid-dilated pupil

c)

Gradual peripheral vision loss

d)

Rapid onset photophobia and purulent drainage

37.

A client has sodium 118 mEq/L. Which provider order should the nurse question?

a)

Seizure precautions

b)

Fluid restriction

c)

IV 3% sodium chloride as ordered

d)

Encourage hypotonic fluids between meals

38.

In a normal Rinne test, which finding should the nurse expect?

a)

Bone conduction louder than air conduction

b)

Air conduction louder than bone conduction

c)

No sound heard by either method

d)

Equal air and bone conduction

39.

A child with confirmed group A strep pharyngitis is prescribed antibiotics. What is the primary purpose?

a)

Prevent rheumatic fever

b)

Prevent otitis externa

c)

Prevent allergic rhinitis

d)

Prevent cataracts

40.

A child returns home after tonsillectomy. Which instruction is priority to reduce bleeding risk?

a)

Use a straw for all liquids

b)

Take ibuprofen every 6 hours scheduled

c)

Perform vigorous gargling after meals

d)

Avoid coughing, clearing the throat, and nose blowing

41.

Which manifestation is most consistent with Ménière’s disease?

a)

Vertigo with tinnitus and ear fullness

b)

Purulent ear drainage with fever

c)

Sudden complete loss of vision with pain

d)

Unilateral facial droop with slurred speech

42.

A client with acute asthma exacerbation is tachypneic and wheezing. Which order should the nurse implement first?

a)

Administer albuterol via nebulizer

b)

Teach pursed-lip breathing

c)

Obtain a sputum culture

d)

Encourage oral fluids

43.

A client with COPD asks how to loosen secretions. Which teaching is best?

a)

Increase daily water intake unless contraindicated.

b)

Restrict fluids to reduce swelling.

c)

Use cold, dry air at home to limit moisture.

d)

Avoid humidification and coughing exercises.

44.

A client has symptomatic hypercalcemia. Which provider order should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Oral calcium carbonate

b)

Vitamin D supplements

c)

Restrict oral and IV fluids

d)

IV normal saline and loop diuretics

45.

A client develops numbness and tingling with tetany. Which lab result is most likely?

a)

Calcium 7.8 mg/dL

b)

Calcium 11.2 mg/dL

c)

Sodium 150 mEq/L

d)

Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

46.

Which condition is a risk factor for metabolic acidosis?

a)

Excess antacid ingestion

b)

Prolonged vomiting

c)

Diuretic-induced potassium loss

d)

Lactic acidosis from shock

47.

A client is teaching low-potassium choices. Which meal selection is best?

a)

Banana and orange juice

b)

Tomato soup and baked potato

c)

Grilled chicken with white rice

d)

Spinach salad with avocado

48.

A client with hypokalemia is receiving IV potassium chloride. Which action is required?

a)

Give IV push for rapid correction

b)

Administer undiluted in a syringe pump

c)

Infuse using an infusion pump

d)

Mix with dextrose only and run wide open

49.

A child with epistaxis is actively bleeding. Which nursing action is priority?

a)

Have the child sit upright and lean forward

b)

Place the child supine with head extended

c)

Pack the nostrils with dry gauze immediately

d)

Insert an oral airway

50.

Which assessment finding supports COPD rather than asthma?

a)

Reversible symptoms triggered by allergens

b)

Episodic symptoms with symptom-free intervals

c)

Chronic productive cough with long smoking history

d)

Onset in childhood with eczema history

51.

A client with hypocalcemia is at highest risk for which complication?

a)

Seizures

b)

Renal calculi

c)

Constipation

d)

Bone fractures from hypercalcemia

52.

Which finding is expected with fluid volume deficit from hemorrhage?

a)

Decreased hematocrit

b)

Decreased serum osmolality

c)

Decreased urine specific gravity

d)

Bradycardia with hypertension

53.

Which client is most likely to develop metabolic alkalosis?

a)

A client with prolonged NG suction

b)

A client with severe diarrhea

c)

A client with DKA

d)

A client with renal failure

54.

A client has magnesium toxicity. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

a)

Hyperactive bowel sounds

b)

Increased blood pressure

c)

Positive Chvostek sign

d)

Hypotension and muscle weakness

55.

A postoperative client’s ABGs show pH 7.57, PaCO2 46, HCO3− 38. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

56.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to reduce OSA complications. Which instruction is most appropriate?

a)

Sleep with multiple pillows to flex the neck

b)

Stop CPAP once symptoms improve

c)

Avoid sedatives and alcohol near bedtime

d)

Take aspirin nightly to improve airway patency

57.

A client with glaucoma asks why vision is affected. Which explanation is best for open-angle glaucoma?

a)

“Increased IOP damages the optic nerve over time.”

b)

“Sudden blockage causes acute pain and redness.”

c)

“Vision loss occurs from retinal detachment episodes.”

d)

“The lens becomes opaque and scatters incoming light.”

58.

ABGs: pH 7.18, PaCO2 38, HCO3− 15. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

59.

A nurse suspects presbycusis in an older adult. Which statement is most expected?

a)

“I slowly have trouble hearing high-pitched sounds.”

b)

“I have sudden severe vertigo with vomiting.”

c)

“My hearing improves after I yawn.”

d)

“I have ear pain and purulent drainage.”

60.

A client with severe hyponatremia becomes increasingly restless. Which intervention is priority?

a)

Encourage increased oral water intake

b)

Place on seizure precautions

c)

Administer hypotonic IV fluids

d)

Give potassium supplements

61.

A nurse is teaching the purpose of the Rinne test. Which statement is correct?

a)

“It compares air conduction to bone conduction.”

b)

“It measures intraocular pressure.”

c)

“It detects retinal detachment.”

d)

“It measures visual acuity.”

62.

A child with suspected streptococcal pharyngitis has a throat culture pending. Which action is appropriate?

a)

Start aspirin therapy for fever control

b)

Teach that antibiotics are never indicated

c)

Obtain the culture before starting antibiotics if possible

d)

Discontinue fluids to reduce throat irritation

63.

A post-tonsillectomy child is bleeding. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Place the child prone

b)

Offer red popsicles to assess bleeding

c)

Prepare for discharge teaching

d)

Notify the surgeon immediately

64.

Which finding most strongly supports Ménière’s disease rather than BPPV?

a)

Vertigo triggered by rolling over in bed

b)

Nystagmus with head movement

c)

Tinnitus with ear fullness and hearing loss

d)

Lightheadedness that improves with sitting

65.

A client with acute asthma attack is prescribed a short-acting beta agonist. What is the expected action?

a)

Rapid bronchodilation

b)

Long-term airway remodeling prevention

c)

Decreased mucus viscosity by hydrating secretions

d)

Suppression of cough reflex

66.

A client with COPD is prescribed a mucolytic. What is the primary expected benefit?

a)

Decrease airway inflammation permanently

b)

Cure emphysema

c)

Reverse chronic bronchitis pathology

d)

Break up/thin thick mucus for easier expectoration

67.

A client has hyperkalemia. Which teaching is appropriate?

a)

Avoid potassium-containing salt substitutes

b)

Increase bananas and oranges

c)

Hold diuretics and increase spironolactone

d)

Use potassium supplements daily

68.

A client has hypocalcemia. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Restrict dietary calcium

b)

Administer calcitonin

c)

Encourage high-dose thiazide diuretics

d)

Administer IV calcium gluconate via infusion pump if severe

69.

Which client is at highest risk for metabolic acidosis?

a)

Client with prolonged diarrhea

b)

Client with recurrent vomiting

c)

Client using antacids daily

d)

Client on loop diuretics

70.

A client on a low-potassium diet asks which snack is best. Which is correct?

a)

Dried apricots

b)

Avocado slices

c)

Apple slices

d)

Baked sweet potato

71.

A client with hypokalemia is at risk for which cardiac complication?

a)

Dysrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia

b)

Peaked T waves

c)

Widened QRS from hyperkalemia

d)

Severe hypertension with bounding pulse

72.

A child has epistaxis. Which action is appropriate during active bleeding?

a)

Tilt the head backward

b)

Apply pressure to the soft part of the nose

c)

Insert a nasopharyngeal airway

d)

Encourage forceful nose blowing

73.

Which COPD finding is expected on assessment?

a)

Chronic dyspnea and decreased exercise tolerance

b)

Sudden onset drooling and tripod positioning

c)

High-pitched inspiratory stridor only

d)

Fine crackles that clear with coughing only

74.

A client has calcium 12.0 mg/dL. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?

a)

Tetany

b)

Hyperactive bowel sounds with diarrhea

c)

Constipation and fatigue

d)

Positive Trousseau sign

75.

A nurse is caring for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which provider order is most appropriate initially?

a)

Isotonic IV fluids as prescribed

b)

Loop diuretic therapy

c)

Fluid restriction

d)

Hypertonic saline bolus for all clients

76.

Which assessment finding is most consistent with metabolic alkalosis?

a)

Kussmaul respirations

b)

Numbness/tingling with muscle weakness

c)

Warm, flushed skin with fruity breath

d)

Deep rapid breathing with hypotension

77.

A client receiving magnesium sulfate is being monitored. Which finding suggests worsening toxicity?

a)

Decreased respiratory rate

b)

Hyperactive reflexes

c)

Abdominal cramping

d)

Tremors

78.

A postoperative client is at risk for acid-base changes. Which monitoring is most appropriate when respiratory depression is suspected?

a)

Serum sodium every hour

b)

Stool guaiac testing

c)

Peak flow measurement

d)

ABG evaluation and continuous pulse oximetry

79.

Which teaching best helps a client with OSA reduce nighttime obstruction?

a)

“Avoid sedatives at bedtime.”

b)

“Drink alcohol before sleep to relax.”

c)

“Stop CPAP when you feel better.”

d)

“Sleep flat on your back every night.”

80.

A client’s ABGs show pH 7.33, PaCO2 67, HCO3− 37. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

b)

Compensated respiratory acidosis

c)

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

d)

Compensated metabolic alkalosis

81.

An older adult reports difficulty hearing in crowded rooms. Which nursing action best supports communication?

a)

Face the client, speak clearly, and reduce background noise

b)

Speak loudly from behind the client

c)

Use medical jargon to avoid repetition

d)

Turn on the television for distraction

82.

A client with chronic open-angle glaucoma is prescribed timolol eye drops. What is the primary goal?

a)

Paralyze the ciliary body

b)

Dilate the pupil for exam

c)

Decrease intraocular pressure

d)

Treat bacterial conjunctivitis

83.

A client with sodium 124 mEq/L is lethargic. Which order should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Fluid restriction

b)

Hypotonic IV fluids

c)

Encourage free water

d)

High-dose potassium supplements

84.

Which finding is expected with conductive hearing loss on Rinne testing?

a)

Air conduction greater than bone conduction

b)

Bone conduction greater than air conduction

c)

No sound heard by either method

d)

Equal air and bone conduction in both ears

85.

A child with strep throat is being monitored for complications. Which complication is most important to prevent with timely antibiotics?

a)

Rheumatic fever

b)

Cataracts

c)

Ménière’s disease

d)

COPD

86.

Which assessment finding after tonsillectomy requires immediate intervention?

a)

Small amounts of old dark blood in saliva

b)

Frequent swallowing and tachycardia

c)

Mild throat pain rated 4/10

d)

White fibrin tissue at incision sites

87.

Which statement best explains Ménière’s disease manifestations?

a)

Inner ear fluid accumulation disrupts hearing and balance

b)

Middle ear infection causes tympanic membrane rupture

c)

Outer ear inflammation blocks sound transmission

d)

Excess cerumen permanently damages the cochlea

88.

A client in acute asthma exacerbation has an order set. Which medication is for immediate relief?

a)

Inhaled corticosteroid daily

b)

Leukotriene modifier nightly

c)

Short-acting beta agonist

d)

Long-acting beta agonist only

89.

A client with COPD is receiving guaifenesin. Which outcome indicates effectiveness?

a)

Sputum is thinner and easier to expectorate

b)

Respiratory rate decreases to 8/min

c)

Wheezing stops permanently

d)

ABGs normalize immediately

90.

A client has hyperkalemia. Which medication removes potassium through the GI tract?

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Regular insulin

c)

IV calcium gluconate

d)

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

91.

A client develops hypocalcemia after thyroidectomy. Which complication is the priority concern?

a)

Laryngospasm causing airway compromise

b)

Constipation

c)

Polyuria

d)

Bone fractures

92.

Which finding is a risk factor for metabolic acidosis based on decreased bicarbonate?

a)

Prolonged diarrhea

b)

Excess antacid ingestion

c)

NG suction

d)

Loop diuretic therapy

93.

A nurse is evaluating a low-potassium diet plan. Which client choice shows correct understanding?

a)

“I’ll choose applesauce instead of orange juice.”

b)

“I’ll use salt substitutes to season food.”

c)

“I’ll eat baked potatoes more often.”

d)

“I’ll snack on bananas daily.”

94.

A client with hypokalemia is being discharged. Which statement requires follow-up?

a)

“I will report palpitations right away.”

b)

“I will take potassium exactly as prescribed.”

c)

“I will increase foods like bananas and oranges.”

d)

“If I miss a dose, I’ll double my next potassium dose.”

95.

A child has recurrent epistaxis and nasal itching. Which cause is most likely?

a)

Allergic irritation with frequent rubbing

b)

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

96.

Which COPD assessment finding is most consistent with chronic bronchitis?

a)

Chronic productive cough

b)

Sudden onset stridor

c)

High fever and pleuritic chest pain

d)

Purulent conjunctival drainage

97.

A client with hypocalcemia receives IV calcium gluconate. Which monitoring is priority?

a)

Cardiac rhythm monitoring

b)

Visual acuity testing

c)

Throat culture

d)

Peak flow measurement

98.

A nurse suspects fluid volume deficit. Which lab trend supports this?

a)

Decreased hematocrit

b)

Decreased BUN

c)

Increased BUN

d)

Decreased urine specific gravity

99.

Which cause is most associated with metabolic alkalosis in a hospitalized client?

a)

Nasogastric suctioning

b)

Lactic acidosis

c)

Renal failure

d)

Profuse diarrhea

100.

A client is receiving magnesium sulfate and shows toxicity. Which intervention is the priority?

a)

Increase the infusion rate

b)

Place in Trendelenburg position

c)

Administer oral magnesium supplements

d)

Stop the infusion and prepare to give calcium gluconate