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Physical Examination and Respiratory Assessment Worksheet

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following lists the four components of a physical examination?

a)

Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

b)

Inspection, diagnosis, treatment, follow-up

c)

History taking, inspection, diagnosis, auscultation

d)

Palpation, percussion, diagnosis, treatment

2.

Why is it important to review the history of present illness before performing a physical examination?

a)

It helps guide the physical examination and focus on relevant findings

b)

It allows the examiner to skip unnecessary steps in the examination

c)

It is required for insurance purposes only

d)

It ensures the patient is comfortable during the examination

3.

Which finding during examination of the head and neck is most likely to indicate respiratory distress?

a)

Nasal flaring

b)

Diaphoresis with no other symptoms

c)

Changes in pupillary size in response to light

d)

Deviated tracheal position

4.

What is the correct method for measuring jugular venous pressure?

a)

Position the patient at a 45-degree angle and observe the height of the jugular vein above the sternal angle

b)

Measure the pulse rate at the neck and compare to the radial pulse

c)

Ask the patient to hold their breath and observe the jugular vein

d)

Palpate the jugular vein while the patient is lying flat

5.

Which term describes a chest configuration where the sternum protrudes outward?

a)

Pectus carinatum

b)

Kyphosis with spinal curvature

c)

Barrel chest with increased diameter

d)

Flail chest with unstable segment

6.

Which breathing pattern is characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea?

a)

Cheyne-Stokes breathing

b)

Biot’s breathing with irregular rhythm

c)

Kussmaul’s breathing with consistent deep breaths

d)

Apneustic breathing with prolonged inspiration

7.

Which of the following is a primary muscle of inspiration?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Rectus abdominis with forced exhalation

c)

Trapezius with shoulder movement

d)

Latissimus dorsi with arm adduction

8.

What is the clinical significance of accessory muscle usage during breathing?

a)

Indicates increased work of breathing

b)

Shows normal relaxed respiration

c)

Suggests improved lung compliance

d)

Demonstrates voluntary breath holding

9.

Which term refers to a paradoxical inward movement of the abdomen during inspiration?

a)

Abdominal paradox

b)

Hoover sign with costal margin movement

c)

Peripheral cyanosis with blue extremities

d)

Respiratory alternans with alternating muscle use

10.

What does right sided heart failure indicate?

a)

Something bothering the lungs

b)

Something bothering the stomach

c)

Something bothering the diaphragm

d)

Congested heart failure

11.

What is the difference between peripheral and central cyanosis?

a)

Peripheral cyanosis affects extremities, central cyanosis affects mucous membranes

b)

Peripheral cyanosis affects the lips, central cyanosis affects the fingers

c)

Peripheral cyanosis is always more severe than central cyanosis

d)

Peripheral cyanosis is caused by heart failure, central cyanosis by lung disease

12.

What are the normal sodium values?

a)

120 to 135 mEq/L

b)

Normal 135 to 145 mEq/L

c)

145 to 155 mEq/L

d)

100 to 120 mEq/L

13.

What causes hypernatremia?

a)

Excessive water intake

b)

High sodium due to from loss of water

c)

Low sodium due to dehydration

d)

Low potassium levels

14.

What causes hyponatremia?

a)

Excessive water intake or sodium loss

b)

High sodium from dehydration

c)

Low potassium levels

d)

Low chloride levels

15.

What are the normal potassium values?

a)

2.5 to 3.5 mEq/L

b)

3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L

c)

5.5 to 6.0 mEq/L

d)

4.5 to 6.5 mEq/L

16.

What is hypokalemia?

a)

Low potassium

b)

High potassium

c)

High sodium

d)

Low chloride

17.

What is hyperkalemia?

a)

High potassium

b)

Low sodium

c)

High chloride

d)

Low glucose

18.

What are the normal chloride values?

a)

98 to 107 mEq/L

b)

100 to 120 mEq/L

c)

90 to 100 mEq/L

d)

105 to 115 mEq/L

19.

What is hypochloremia?

a)

Low chloride

b)

High chloride

c)

Low potassium

d)

Low sodium

20.

What is hyperchloremia?

a)

High chloride

b)

Low chloride

c)

Low potassium

d)

High glucose

21.

What is the normal pH range for acid-base balance?

a)

Acid = 7.35–7.45 = Alkaline

b)

Acid = 6.0–7.0 = Alkaline

c)

Acid = 7.0–8.0 = Alkaline

d)

Acid = 7.25–7.55 = Alkaline

22.

What does bicarbonate (HCO3−) play a part in?

a)

Acid-base balance

b)

Glucose regulation

c)

Potassium transport

d)

Water retention

23.

What happens when CO2 is high?

a)

Brings pH ↓, high bicarb level brings pH back up

b)

Brings pH ↑

c)

Reduces bicarb levels

d)

Has no effect

24.

What is metabolic alkalosis?

a)

Elevation

b)

Decrease

c)

Low pH

d)

Low bicarbonate

25.

What is metabolic acidosis?

a)

Decrease

b)

Elevation

c)

High pH

d)

High sodium

26.

What are normal blood sugar levels?

a)

Range from 70 to 99 mg/dL

b)

100 to 120 mg/dL

c)

60 to 90 mg/dL

d)

80 to 110 mg/dL

27.

What is hypoglycemia?

a)

Reduced blood glucose

b)

Elevated blood glucose

c)

High sodium

d)

Low potassium

28.

What is hyperglycemia?

a)

Elevated blood glucose

b)

Reduced blood glucose

c)

Low chloride

d)

High potassium

29.

What is the composition of blood?

a)

Cells (45%) and Plasma (55%)

b)

Plasma (70%) and Cells (30%)

c)

Cells (60%) and Plasma (40%)

d)

Plasma only

30.

What are the three main cell types in blood?

a)

WBC (leukocytes), RBC (erythrocytes), and platelets (thrombocytes)

b)

Plasma, lymph, and hormones

c)

WBC, glucose, and plasma

d)

Enzymes, proteins, and RBC

31.

What major test evaluates hematology and clotting ability?

a)

CBC

b)

BMP

c)

CMP

d)

ECG

32.

What does the CBC determine?

a)

Number of circulating red and white blood cells

b)

Amount of plasma

c)

Blood sugar levels

d)

Hemoglobin type only

33.

What does RBC evaluation check for?

a)

Size and amount of hemoglobin present

b)

Number of white blood cells

c)

Type of plasma proteins

d)

Antibody production

34.

Normal WBC count is:

a)

4.0 – 11.0

b)

2.0 – 5.0

c)

5.0 – 15.0

d)

3.0 – 8.0

35.

Segmented neutrophils normally make up what percentage?

a)

50 – 70

b)

40 – 60

c)

20 – 40

d)

70 – 90

36.

Eosinophils normally make up what percentage?

a)

1 – 3

b)

3 – 5

c)

5 – 7

d)

0 – 2

37.

Basophils normally make up what percentage?

a)

0 – 1

b)

1 – 3

c)

2 – 5

d)

0 – 5

38.

Lymphocytes normally make up what percentage?

a)

20 – 45

b)

10 – 20

c)

30 – 60

d)

50 – 70

39.

Monocytes normally make up what percentage?

a)

2 – 11

b)

5 – 15

c)

0 – 5

d)

10 – 20

40.

Neutrophils perform what function?

a)

Phagocytosis and die; last about 10 days

b)

Fight viruses

c)

Create antibodies

d)

Produce hemoglobin

41.

Eosinophils play a role in:

a)

Allergic reactions

b)

Blood clotting

c)

Oxygen transport

d)

Antibody production

42.

Basophils play a role in:

a)

Allergic reactions

b)

Fighting infections

c)

Transporting oxygen

d)

Platelet formation

43.

Lymphocytes are used to fight against:

a)

Viral, fungal, and tuberculosis infection

b)

Allergic reactions

c)

Oxygen deficiency

d)

Platelet loss

44.

Monocytes are the biggest WBC and convert to:

a)

A macrophage in lungs

b)

A platelet

c)

A neutrophil

d)

A lymphocyte

45.

Leukocytosis is:

a)

Increase in circulating WBC

b)

Decrease in WBC

c)

Increase in RBC

d)

Decrease in platelets

46.

Neutrophilia is:

a)

Increase in leukocytes due to neutrophils

b)

Decrease in RBC

c)

Decrease in platelets

d)

Increase in monocytes

47.

Leukopenia is:

a)

Abnormal decrease in circulating WBC

b)

Increase in WBC

c)

Increase in platelets

d)

Decrease in hemoglobin

48.

Neutropenia is:

a)

A drop in WBC caused by decrease in neutrophils

b)

A rise in RBC

c)

An increase in WBC

d)

A drop in platelets

49.

Bands are:

a)

Immature versions of neutrophils

b)

Mature lymphocytes

c)

Platelet fragments

d)

Plasma cells

50.

If bands increase significantly, what does this indicate?

a)

Body is under stress; this is called a left shift

b)

Infection resolved

c)

Dehydration

d)

Anemia

51.

Eosinophilia/Basophilia occurs with:

a)

Similar disorders that cause eosinophilia

b)

Viral infections

c)

Anemia

d)

Leukemia only

52.

Blasts are:

a)

Immature white blood cells in general

b)

Mature red blood cells

c)

Plasma proteins

d)

Platelets

53.

Where are RBCs produced?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Liver

c)

Spleen

d)

Lungs

54.

Life span of RBCs:

a)

120 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

180 days

55.

Anemia means:

a)

Low RBC count

b)

High RBC count

c)

Low WBC count

d)

High hemoglobin

56.

Hypochromic means:

a)

Not the right amount of hemoglobin

b)

Too many platelets

c)

Low WBC count

d)

High iron

57.

Polycythemia means:

a)

Abnormal increase in number of circulating RBCs

b)

Decrease in RBCs

c)

Decrease in platelets

d)

Decrease in WBCs

58.

Low platelet count is called:

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Anemia

d)

Neutropenia

59.

Low platelet count causes:

a)

More bleeding

b)

Faster clotting

c)

High hemoglobin

d)

High sodium

60.

Three screening coagulation tests are:

a)

APTT, PT/INR, and Platelet count

b)

Hemoglobin, Hematocrit, and Glucose

c)

Sodium, Potassium, and Chloride

d)

CBC, ABG, and BMP

61.

APTT test is used to:

a)

See clotting

b)

Measure glucose

c)

Detect WBCs

d)

Count RBCs

62.

PT/INR test is used to:

a)

End bleeding

b)

Check cholesterol

c)

Detect infection

d)

Measure blood sugar

63.

What is D-Dimer used for?

a)

Test used for clotting to see breakdown of fibrin clots that form in the vasculature

b)

Measure glucose

c)

Detect anemia

d)

Measure sodium

64.

What are murmurs?

a)

Irregular heartbeats

b)

Blood flowing back through valves

c)

Fluid in lungs

d)

Air trapped in the abdomen

65.

Examination of the abdomen is performed to:

a)

Detect bone fractures

b)

Inspect and palpate for distention

c)

Listen for bowel sounds

d)

Observe skin color

66.

Hepatomegaly refers to:

a)

Enlarged heart

b)

Large liver

c)

Fluid retention in the abdomen

d)

Enlarged spleen

67.

Left heart failure is usually caused from:

a)

Valve damage

b)

Congested Heart Failure

c)

Left side heart failure

d)

High blood pressure

68.

An abnormal collection of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is known as:

a)

Edema

b)

Hemothorax

c)

Ascites

d)

Pericardial effusion

69.

Digital clubbing is a sign of:

a)

Liver disease

b)

Cardiopulmonary disease

c)

Kidney disorder

d)

Skin infection

70.

Peripheral cyanosis refers to discoloration in:

a)

Lips and eyes

b)

Hands and feet

c)

Neck and chest

d)

Abdomen

71.

Pedal edema may be a sign of:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Heart failure

c)

Stroke

d)

Asthma

72.

Pedal edema is common in:

a)

Diabetic patients

b)

Right heart failure and COPD patients

c)

Stroke patients

d)

Pregnant women only

73.

Capillary refill is when color returns and lets us know the status of:

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Circulation

c)

Oxygen intake

d)

Heart rhythm

74.

The three phases of laboratory testing are:

a)

Chemical, Biological, and Statistical

b)

Preanalytical, Analytical, and Post-analytical

c)

Testing, Reviewing, and Storing

d)

Primary, Secondary, and Final

75.

The preanalytical phase includes:

a)

The precautions of making sure everything is right and in order

b)

Running the lab test

76.

The analytical phase involves:

a)

Data recording

b)

Cultural testing performed by laboratory scientists

c)

Reporting and interpretation

d)

Cleaning specimens

77.

The post-analytical phase involves:

a)

Reporting and interpretation of results

b)

Collection of samples

c)

Patient diagnosis

d)

Equipment sterilization

78.

What does TP stand for?

a)

True probability

b)

True positive

c)

Test prediction

d)

Total precision

79.

What does FN stand for?

a)

False neutral

b)

False negative

c)

False normal

d)

Faulty neuron

80.

What does TN stand for?

a)

True normal

b)

True negative

c)

Test negative

d)

Total neutral

81.

What does FP stand for?

a)

False positive

b)

Failed process

c)

Faulty patient

d)

Final procedure

82.

Sensitivity measures:

a)

Frequency of false results

b)

Frequency of positive test results in patients with disease

c)

Frequency of negative results

d)

Rate of lab errors

83.

Specificity measures:

a)

Frequency of negative test results in patients without disease

b)

Frequency of positive test results

c)

Frequency of repeated tests

d)

Number of lab retests

84.

COPD patients often display which feature?

a)

Jaw tension

b)

Lips puckered (whistle type)

c)

Nose flaring

d)

Open-mouth breathing

85.

Kyphosis (hump back) has an abnormal:

a)

Lateral curvature

b)

Anteroposterior curvature

c)

Vertical curvature

d)

Oblique curvature

86.

Scoliosis refers to:

a)

Forward-leaning curvature

b)

Side-to-side curvature of the spine

87.

Barrel chest occurs when

a)

Air is not released every time the patient breathes

b)

The lungs collapse

c)

The chest wall caves in

d)

The ribs become stiff

88.

Vocal fremitus phrase

a)

“Breathe in deeply”

b)

“Ninety-nine”

c)

“One-two-three”

d)

“Hold your breath”

89.

Increased vocal fremitus indicates

a)

Fluid or solid tissue (white)

b)

Air

c)

Gas bubbles

d)

Mucus blockage

90.

Crackles are

a)

Discontinuous abnormal lung sounds

b)

Continuous abnormal lung sounds

c)

Normal lung sounds

d)

High-pitched breath sounds

91.

Wheezes are

a)

Continuous abnormal lung sounds

b)

Discontinuous abnormal lung sounds

c)

Normal vesicular sounds

d)

Absence of breath sounds

92.

Describe Atelectasis on a X-ray

a)

lung volume loss

b)

lung volume gain

c)

Paralized arm

d)

Damaged diaphram

93.

What protect you from radiation

a)

Time

b)

Distance

c)

Shielding

d)

gloves

94.

Hot spots

a)

(PET) Tumors or areas of high metabolic activity

b)

Wifi Connection

c)

Radiation spots disappearing

d)

Ultrasound

95.

Look for pleural fluid (Laying on side and take image)

a)

Lateral Decubitus

b)

Expiratory

c)

Apical Lordoctic

d)

67

96.

Expiratory

a)

Front to back

b)

Top Apical region

c)

To see a small Pneumothorax

d)

Pleural fluid

97.

Anterior Posterior(AP)

a)

Front to back

b)

Back to front

c)

Side to side

d)

Side to front

98.

Posteroanterior(PA)

a)

From front of body to back

b)

From back of body to front

c)

From side to side

d)

67

99.

dense substance appear light or white i.e..) bones

a)

Radio lucent

b)

Radio Paque

c)

Radio

d)

Lightening imaging

100.

Radio Lucent

a)

Black on X-ray, air like high density substance

b)

White on X-ray, air like low density substance

c)

Black on X-ray, air like low density substance

d)

White on X-ray, air like high density substance

101.

What is needed for Pulmonary embolisms(V/Q) ; look at what areas are being ventilated

a)

MRI

b)

CT scan

c)

Lung perfusion scan

d)

X-ray