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2205 Exam 2 pt.3

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which cardinal movement occurs when the fetal head turns to align with the pelvic outlet?

a)

Flexion

b)

Restitution

c)

Internal rotation

d)

Extension

2.

Immediately after the head is born, the head rotates to align with the shoulders. This is called:

a)

Descent

b)

Engagement

c)

Expulsion

d)

Restitution/external rotation

3.

A client has strong contractions but no descent; the fetus is suspected large and the pelvis possibly small. This is most consistent with:

a)

Shoulder dystocia

b)

Cephalopelvic disproportion (passageway vs passenger mismatch)

c)

Normal latent phase

d)

Precipitous labor

4.

A nurse wants to reduce aortocaval compression in labor. Best position?

a)

High Fowler’s with legs straight

b)

Trendelenburg

c)

Flat supine

d)

Left lateral tilt/side-lying

5.

A client with PPROM has foul-smelling fluid and maternal fever. Priority action?

a)

Notify provider; anticipate antibiotics and close maternal/fetal monitoring

b)

Stop temperature checks

c)

Increase vaginal exams

d)

Begin oxytocin without evaluation

6.

A client’s GBS culture is positive. Which intrapartum plan is most appropriate when there is no allergy?

a)

Ceftriaxone for all cases regardless

b)

No antibiotics if membranes intact

c)

IV penicillin/ampicillin per protocol during labor

d)

Oral antibiotics after delivery only

7.

A client with penicillin anaphylaxis is GBS positive. Best nursing action?

a)

Give penicillin anyway

b)

Decide based on nitrazine result

c)

Hold antibiotics until postpartum

d)

Notify provider for appropriate alternative antibiotic selection per protocol

8.

Which labor finding best indicates transition?

a)

2–3 cm with mild irregular contractions

b)

8–10 cm with intense contractions/pressure and irritability

c)

4–6 cm with moderate contractions

d)

10 cm with delivery

9.

A nurse assesses station at 0. This means the presenting part is:

a)

2 cm below the ischial spines

b)

Crowning

c)

At the level of the ischial spines

d)

2 cm above the ischial spines

10.

A client is at +2 station. Best interpretation?

a)

Below the ischial spines and descending toward delivery

b)

At the ischial spines

c)

Head floating

d)

Above the ischial spines

11.

Which fetal presentation is most compatible with uncomplicated vaginal delivery?

a)

Transverse lie

b)

Face mentum posterior

c)

Shoulder

d)

Vertex/cephalic

12.

A nurse documents LOA. This indicates:

a)

Cord left anterior

b)

Occiput left anterior (generally favorable)

c)

Breech sacrum left anterior

d)

Mentum left anterior

13.

External cephalic version is attempted. Which complication requires immediate stop and evaluation?

a)

Temporary discomfort

b)

Persistent fetal bradycardia/nonreassuring tracing

c)

Maternal mild nausea

d)

Mild uterine irritability that resolves

14.

Which condition makes cord prolapse more likely after amniotomy?

a)

Unengaged presenting part/high station

b)

Thin meconium

c)

Vertex LOA

d)

Engaged head

15.

A nurse reviews nonreassuring fetal status. Which is a major risk with excessive oxytocin?

a)

Increased fetal oxygen delivery

b)

Decreased contraction intensity

c)

Tachysystole leading to reduced uteroplacental perfusion and fetal hypoxia/acidemia

d)

Increased fetal breathing movements

16.

A client has recurrent variables and minimal variability despite interventions; the cervix is complete and +2 station. Best next expectation?

a)

Stop monitoring

b)

Continue labor for 6 hours

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Operative vaginal delivery may be considered if conditions are met (provider decision)

17.

Which newborn assessment is most urgent after vacuum delivery?

a)

Hair pattern

b)

Tooth eruption schedule

c)

Neuro status, scalp injury signs, and respiratory status

d)

Fontanel closure timeline only

18.

A client has dysfunctional labor from hypotonic contractions. Best intervention?

a)

Oxytocin titration with close monitoring (if no contraindication)

b)

Stop all fluids

c)

Terbutaline

d)

Methylergonovine during labor

19.

A client has hypertonic uterine dysfunction (painful, frequent, uncoordinated contractions with poor progress). Best nursing focus?

a)

Increase oxytocin rapidly

b)

Begin pushing early

c)

Encourage breath-holding for 30 seconds each contraction

d)

Promote rest, hydration, pain control; monitor fetal status; provider may adjust stimulation/consider etiologies

20.

Which sign is most concerning for impending fetal acidemia in a worsening tracing?

a)

Moderate variability with accelerations

b)

Marked variability with accelerations

c)

Absent variability with recurrent decelerations

d)

Early decels only

21.

A client has suspected infection; fetal baseline is 165 for >10 min. Next nursing action?

a)

Decrease IV fluids

b)

Place supine

c)

Assess maternal temperature and treat contributing factors; notify provider

d)

Start dinoprostone

22.

Which is the best definition of baseline change?

a)

Change lasting ≥10 minutes

b)

Any HR change lasting 30 seconds

c)

Change lasting 2–9 minutes

d)

Change lasting <15 seconds

23.

A nurse is deciding between intermittent auscultation vs continuous EFM. Which client requires continuous EFM?

a)

Low-risk, spontaneous labor with reassuring status

b)

Client refusing IV

c)

Client with normal NST yesterday

d)

VBAC attempt

24.

A nurse sees a sinusoidal pattern. Best implication?

a)

Benign sleep cycle

b)

Suggests serious fetal compromise such as anemia/hemorrhage—urgent evaluation

c)

Normal in second stage

d)

Indicates maternal dehydration only

25.

Which antibiotic is commonly used for GBS prophylaxis in labor (no allergy)?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Nitrofurantoin

c)

Penicillin G/ampicillin (per protocol)

d)

Doxycycline

26.

A client with suspected chorioamnionitis: which labs may support infection?

a)

Low HbA1c

b)

Low WBC

c)

Low LDL

d)

Leukocytosis and elevated inflammatory markers (with clinical findings)

27.

A client with PPROM is anxious and states, “I caused this.” Best nursing response?

a)

“You shouldn’t feel that way.”

b)

Validate feelings, provide education, assess supports, and connect to resources

c)

“Stop worrying.”

d)

Change subject

28.

A client has persistent bradycardia despite resuscitation. Priority preparation?

a)

Prepare for urgent operative delivery; notify neonatal team

b)

Encourage oral intake

c)

Remove internal monitors

d)

Start dinoprostone

29.

A nurse is documenting fetal presentation. Which is the best direct bedside method for initial assessment?

a)

Maternal temperature

b)

CBC results

c)

Leopold maneuvers + vaginal exam (as appropriate)

d)

Nitrazine test

30.

Which fetal head position is most associated with prolonged labor and back pain?

a)

Occiput anterior

b)

LOA always causes back labor

c)

Breech frank

d)

Occiput posterior

31.

A client has persistent late decelerations. Which “CHOP” component matches “Late”?

a)

Placental insufficiency

b)

Cord compression

c)

Head compression

d)

Oxygen toxicity

32.

A client has early decelerations. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Stop oxytocin immediately

b)

Continue monitoring; early decels are commonly benign head compression

c)

Give terbutaline immediately

d)

Emergent delivery prep

33.

The nurse is evaluating “resting tone” with IUPC. Why is high resting tone concerning?

a)

It proves rupture of membranes

b)

It confirms shoulder dystocia

c)

It can reduce uteroplacental perfusion between contractions

d)

It increases fetal oxygenation

34.

A newborn is separated due to NICU transfer. Which maternal concern should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

No psychosocial impact expected

c)

Only physical pain

d)

Delayed bonding/grief/anxiety—support coping and facilitate contact plans

35.

A client receives methylergonovine postpartum. Which condition is a contraindication?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Rubella nonimmune

c)

Mild anemia

d)

GBS colonization

36.

A client has uterine atony postpartum. First nursing actions include:

a)

Stop oxytocin infusion

b)

Fundal massage, assess bladder/void, administer uterotonics per order

c)

Encourage brisk walking immediately

d)

Place client prone and reassess later

37.

Which med is commonly first-line for uterine atony prevention/treatment?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Naloxone

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Nifedipine

38.

A nurse is preparing for amniotomy. Which fetal station finding is safest?

a)

-3

b)

Unstable lie

c)

Ballottable/high

d)

0 or + station (engaged)

39.

A client has PROM and a sudden FHR drop occurs. What is the priority assessment?

a)

Check for cord prolapse and assess FHR immediately

b)

Assess rubella immunity

c)

Obtain HbA1c

d)

Teach breastfeeding

40.

A client is placed on oxygen for fetal distress. The nurse should understand oxygen is generally:

a)

Always first intervention in any abnormal tracing

b)

Used after correcting causes like position/hypotension/oxytocin per updated practice trends

c)

Not allowed in labor

d)

Used to replace stopping oxytocin

41.

A client’s fetal tracing is Category I. Which is expected?

a)

Persistent bradycardia

b)

Sinusoidal pattern

c)

Baseline 110–160, moderate variability, no late/variable decels (early/accels may be present)

d)

Absent variability with recurrent lates

42.

A nurse wants to reduce infection risk with PPROM. Which action is best?

a)

Delay fetal monitoring

b)

Avoid maternal vitals

c)

Digital exams q2h

d)

Limit digital exams; use sterile speculum as needed

43.

Which labor stage includes onset of regular contractions to full dilation?

a)

First stage

b)

Fourth stage

c)

Second stage

d)

Third stage

44.

Which stage is “first 1–2 hours postpartum with close maternal assessment”?

a)

Third

b)

Fourth

c)

First

d)

Second

45.

Which “3 S’s” mnemonic possibilities fit?

a)

Supine, stress, sugar

b)

Serum, sputum, saliva

c)

Sleep, sedation, sick

d)

Straining, shivering, shaking

46.

Fetal sleep cycles can contribute to decreased variability for about:

a)

3–4 hours

b)

2–5 minutes only

c)

24 hours

d)

20–60 minutes

47.

A client has PPROM. Which sign suggests developing infection that must be reported?

a)

Fever/uterine tenderness/foul fluid

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Clear urine

d)

Mild heartburn

48.

A client is 6 cm with strong regular contractions. Best nursing focus?

a)

Stop fetal monitoring

b)

Active labor support: pain control, position changes, monitor FHR/uterine activity, hydration

c)

Prepare placenta container

d)

Begin pushing coaching

49.

A newborn with bruising from forceps is at risk for:

a)

Hypothyroidism

b)

NEC

c)

Hyperbilirubinemia

d)

Spina bifida

50.

Which finding is most consistent with cord compression?

a)

Sinusoidal pattern

b)

Late decelerations

c)

Early decelerations

d)

Variable decelerations

51.

A nurse sees recurrent late decelerations. Which maternal condition is a classic contributor?

a)

Hypertension causing placental insufficiency risk

b)

Mild reflux

c)

Seasonal allergies

d)

Rh negative status

52.

After delivery, which newborn medication is typically given in first hours?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Vitamin K (and erythromycin per policy)

c)

Dinoprostone

d)

Methylergonovine

53.

A client requests nitrous oxide. Key safety requirement?

a)

Must be supine only

b)

Requires intubation readiness always

c)

Client self-administers via mask/demand valve; maintains protective reflexes

d)

Nurse holds mask continuously

54.

A client has Category III tracing and is fully dilated with head crowning. Best plan?

a)

Start dinoprostone

b)

Stop monitoring

c)

Expectant management for 1 hour

55.

A client has post-partum hemorrhage and is given carboprost. Which history is a major caution?

a)

Asthma

b)

Rubella nonimmune

c)

Mild anemia

d)

GBS positive

56.

A client has postpartum hemorrhage; uterus is firm, bleeding persists. Priority next step?

a)

Delay assessment

b)

Suspect laceration/retained products and notify provider

c)

Stop all meds

d)

Continue fundal massage only

57.

A client’s fetus is transverse lie. Best implication?

a)

Confirms placenta previa

b)

Indicates immediate shoulder dystocia

c)

Vaginal delivery is unsafe unless corrected—provider management required

d)

Always safe for induction

58.

A nurse is assessing for PPROM and wants to preserve fFN accuracy. Best practice?

a)

Collect after speculum with heavy gel

b)

Collect after digital exam

c)

Collect after vaginal cleansing with soap

d)

Collect before digital exam/intercourse and avoid lubricant contamination

59.

A client has a contraction pattern q1–2 min with fetal distress. What medication may be ordered to reduce uterine activity?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Methylergonovine

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Dinoprostone

60.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection/tocolysis. Priority monitoring includes:

a)

Nail beds only

b)

RR, DTRs, urine output (per protocol)

c)

Daily weights only

d)

Skin turgor only

61.

Which finding suggests magnesium toxicity?

a)

Mild flushing only

b)

Increased urine output

c)

Respiratory depression and absent DTRs

d)

Hyperreflexia

62.

A client in labor has anxiety increasing pain. Which “power” is being affected by fear/tension?

a)

Passenger

b)

Passageway

c)

Powers

d)

Psyche

63.

A fetal scalp blood sample shows worsening acidemia (low pH). Best next expectation?

a)

Stop monitoring

b)

Escalation to expedited delivery if unable to correct cause promptly

c)

Continue labor unchanged

d)

Start dinoprostone

64.

A nurse is assessing fetal presentation. Which finding suggests cephalic?

a)

Soft irregular mass (buttocks) in pelvis

b)

Shoulder presenting first

c)

Hard, round, ballotable part in lower uterus/pelvis

d)

No presenting part

65.

Which is an appropriate first action in uterine rupture suspicion?

a)

Encourage pushing regardless of dilation

b)

Increase oxytocin

c)

Perform amniotomy

d)

Stop oxytocin and activate emergency response/prepare OR

66.

A client with suspected abruption has increased uterine tone. Which uterine description fits?

a)

Firm/boardlike, tender uterus possible

b)

Soft and painless

c)

Boggy fundus postpartum

d)

Uterus absent

67.

A labor client with internal monitor is noted to have elevated resting tone and fetal late decels. Priority?

a)

Begin pushing

b)

Stop uterine stimulants and begin intrauterine resuscitation; notify provider

c)

Turn off monitor

d)

Increase oxytocin

68.

A newborn delivered after prolonged shoulder dystocia is at greatest immediate risk for:

a)

Delayed teething

b)

Colic at 6 weeks

c)

Hypoxia/asphyxia complications

d)

Neonatal acne

69.

Which statement about vacuum extraction is correct?

a)

Replaces maternal pushing effort

b)

Always safer than cesarean

c)

Can be used at 4 cm to speed labor

d)

Requires full dilation and appropriate station/position per provider criteria

70.

Which is a correct association in VEAL-CHOP?

a)

Late—Placenta

b)

Variable—Head

c)

Accel—Placenta

d)

Early—Placenta

71.

A client in labor has recurrent variables. Which position change is most appropriate first?

a)

Trendelenburg for all cases

b)

Side-to-side or lateral repositioning

c)

Prone flat

d)

Flat supine

72.

Which fetal monitoring approach is most appropriate for a low-risk labor with reassuring status?

a)

Must have CST during labor

b)

Must have FSE

c)

Must have IUPC

d)

Intermittent auscultation may be acceptable per policy

73.

A client has recurrent lates with minimal variability. Which intervention is least appropriate?

a)

Continue oxytocin unchanged

b)

Prepare for delivery if unresolved

c)

Notify provider

d)

Reposition + fluids + stop oxytocin + evaluate cause

74.

A client’s contraction pattern is adequate but cervix stalls and fetus is OP. Best nursing intervention?

a)

Reduce hydration

b)

Encourage position changes (hands-and-knees/side-lying) as tolerated

c)

Keep supine

d)

Start pushing early

75.

A client with PPROM is asked why they check for cord compression. Best explanation?

a)

Cord compression only occurs with intact membranes

b)

Cord compression prevents infection

c)

Less fluid can increase cord compression risk → variable decelerations

d)

Cord compression causes late decels

76.

Which lab is most essential on admission for hemorrhage preparedness?

a)

Lipid panel

b)

TSH

c)

HbA1c

d)

CBC and type & screen

77.

A client has forceps delivery. Which newborn finding requires urgent follow-up?

a)

Facial asymmetry/weak suck suggesting facial nerve injury

b)

Vernix caseosa

c)

Lanugo

d)

Mild molding

78.

A postpartum client’s fundus is deviated right. Priority?

a)

Begin CST

b)

Assess bladder distention and assist to void/catheterize per policy

c)

Place in Trendelenburg

d)

Give terbutaline

79.

A nurse is evaluating fetal tachycardia. Which maternal factor must be assessed immediately?

a)

Maternal freckles

b)

Maternal shoe size

c)

Maternal temperature (fever/infection)

d)

Maternal hair texture

80.

Which tracing is most reassuring regarding fetal acid–base status?

a)

Persistent bradycardia

b)

Absent variability

c)

Sinusoidal

d)

Moderate variability

81.

A client has minimal variability and no decels; fetus later shows accelerations after vibroacoustic stimulation. Best interpretation?

a)

Likely fetal sleep/temporary effect; continue monitoring as ordered

b)

Confirmed cord prolapse

c)

Immediate uterine rupture

d)

Confirmed placental abruption

82.

A client has PPROM at 34 weeks. Which plan is most common depending on status?

a)

Digital exams every hour

b)

Evaluate gestational age, fetal status, infection; management may be expectant vs delivery per provider and clinical picture

c)

Immediate home discharge always

d)

Never give antibiotics

83.

Which is a key risk factor for chorioamnionitis?

a)

Normal UA

b)

Rubella immunity

c)

Prolonged rupture of membranes and frequent vaginal exams

d)

Normal NST

84.

A client’s fetus has recurrent lates. Which “fetal adaptation” concept explains why labor can still be tolerated early?

a)

Molding indicates hypoxia

b)

Meconium is always benign

c)

Fetus requires zero oxygen during labor

d)

Transient hypoxia is expected during contractions; fetus usually compensates if placenta functioning and variability is moderate

85.

Which assessment best supports “passenger” issues?

a)

Fetal size, attitude, presentation, position

b)

Maternal coping skills

c)

Uterine contraction frequency

d)

Pelvic outlet diameter

86.

A client is being prepared for cesarean for nonreassuring status. Which fetal complication is the team most urgently preventing?

a)

Neonatal acne

b)

Progressive hypoxia/acidemia leading to neonatal depression

c)

Neonatal jaundice at day 3

d)

Late breastfeeding latch issues

87.

Which medication is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?

a)

Nifedipine

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Naloxone

d)

Ceftriaxone

88.

A nurse is reviewing “molding.” Which is correct?

a)

Prevents delivery

b)

Always indicates intracranial hemorrhage

c)

Congenital skull fusion

d)

Overlap of fetal skull bones to fit birth canal; usually temporary

89.

Which stage includes delivery of placenta?

a)

Third

b)

Second

c)

First

d)

Fourth

90.

A client has persistent Category III tracing and is 8 cm with no descent. Best expectation?

a)

Stop monitoring for patient comfort

b)

Urgent operative delivery likely if not quickly correctable

c)

Continue labor and reassess in 2 hours

d)

Begin dinoprostone

91.

A client’s baseline is 105 with moderate variability and accelerations. Best classification?

a)

Category III by definition

b)

Sinusoidal pattern

c)

Baseline slightly low but reassuring features present; evaluate context (maternal BP, meds, etc.)

d)

Bradycardia requiring immediate cesarean always

92.

Which is a true statement about newborn separation after NICU transfer?

a)

It prevents postpartum hemorrhage

b)

It is always avoidable

c)

It has no emotional impact

d)

Maternal distress and delayed bonding are common concerns—support coping and facilitate contact/updates

93.

A nurse is teaching a client about oxytocin. Which statement shows correct understanding?

a)

“It is titrated and monitored to avoid tachysystole and fetal compromise.”

b)

“More is always safer.”

c)

“Once started, it can never be stopped.”

d)

“It replaces fetal monitoring.”

94.

A nurse suspects infection and notes fetal tachycardia plus maternal fever. Priority?

a)

Begin amniotomy

b)

Notify provider; anticipate cultures/antibiotics and close maternal/fetal monitoring

c)

Increase oxytocin

d)

Encourage pushing early

95.

Which is the best immediate nursing action when a client hyperventilates from anxiety in labor?

a)

Stop all monitoring

b)

Increase oxytocin to shorten labor

c)

Coach slow breathing/grounding and reassess fetal status

d)

Place supine in Trendelenburg and leave alone

96.

A laboring client has a baseline 140, moderate variability, and accelerations; occasional early decels. Interpretation?

a)

Immediate cesarean

b)

Cord prolapse likely

c)

Category III

d)

Reassuring pattern—continue monitoring/supportive care

97.

Which method is the best initial way to confirm ROM while limiting infection risk?

a)

Sterile speculum exam with visualization/pooling +/- tests (nitrazine/fern)

b)

Bimanual exam with gel

c)

Digital exam first

d)

Rectal exam only

98.

A client has suspected uterine rupture. Which oxytocin action is appropriate?

a)

Give oxytocin bolus IV push

b)

Stop oxytocin immediately

c)

Increase oxytocin

d)

Switch to dinoprostone and continue stimulation

99.

A postpartum client has heavy bleeding and hypotension. Which lab prep is most urgent?

a)

Lipid panel

b)

UA culture only

c)

Type & crossmatch for possible transfusion

d)

HbA1c