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2121 Exam 1 OT pt.3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A school-age child has recurrent epistaxis during winter. Which factor is the most likely cause?

a)

Dry nasal mucosa from low humidity

b)

Esophageal varices

c)

Ruptured cerebral aneurysm

d)

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

2.

A client with COPD is being assessed in the clinic. Which finding is most expected?

a)

Sudden pleuritic chest pain after immobilization

b)

Chronic productive cough with exertional dyspnea

c)

Inspiratory stridor with drooling

d)

High fever with stiff neck

3.

A client’s total calcium is 7.4 mg/dL. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this value?

a)

Flushed skin and constipation

b)

Polyuria with renal stones

c)

Perioral tingling and carpopedal spasm

d)

Bounding pulses and hypertension

4.

An older adult is suspected of fluid volume deficit. Which assessment finding supports hypovolemia?

a)

Jugular venous distention

b)

Crackles in lung bases

c)

Bounding peripheral pulses

d)

Orthostatic hypotension and tachycardia

5.

Which situation places a client at highest risk for metabolic alkalosis?

a)

Severe diarrhea for 3 days

b)

Prolonged vomiting with nasogastric suction

c)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

d)

Septic shock with lactic acid buildup

6.

A client receiving magnesium sulfate develops toxicity. Which finding is most concerning?

a)

Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

b)

Abdominal cramping

c)

Respiratory depression and decreasing RR

d)

Diaphoresis and tremor

7.

A postoperative client is somnolent after opioids. ABG: pH 7.28, PaCO2 58, HCO3− 26. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

8.

Which statement by a client with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) indicates correct understanding?

a)

“Antibiotics will cure my airway collapse.”

b)

“A bronchodilator is my long-term cure.”

c)

“I should drink alcohol at bedtime to sleep deeper.”

d)

“CPAP helps keep my airway open while I sleep.”

9.

A client reports flashes of light and a “curtain” over one eye. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Arrange urgent ophthalmic evaluation

b)

Apply warm compresses and reassess tomorrow

c)

Teach to use lubricating drops only

d)

Encourage rest and limit reading for 24 hours

10.

ABG: pH 7.52, PaCO2 30, HCO3− 24. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

11.

An older adult reports difficulty hearing in crowded rooms and trouble hearing high-pitched voices. This is most consistent with:

a)

Acute otitis media

b)

Presbycusis

c)

Ménière’s disease

d)

Impacted cerumen only

12.

Which best describes the pathophysiology of primary open-angle glaucoma?

a)

Sudden complete blockage of aqueous humor outflow

b)

Infection causes rapid corneal scarring

c)

Decreased aqueous humor outflow through the trabecular meshwork

d)

Excess tear production increases intraocular pressure

13.

A client’s sodium is 118 mEq/L and they are increasingly confused. Which action is the priority?

a)

Encourage free-water intake

b)

Administer hypotonic IV fluids

c)

Place the client on seizure precautions

d)

Give potassium chloride IV push

14.

During a Rinne test, bone conduction is heard longer than air conduction in the affected ear. This suggests:

a)

Normal hearing in that ear

b)

Sensorineural loss in that ear

c)

Central hearing loss

d)

Conductive hearing loss in that ear

15.

A child has fever, sore throat, and strawberry tongue. Which organism is most associated with this presentation?

a)

Group A β-hemolytic streptococci

b)

Respiratory syncytial virus

c)

Candida albicans

d)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

16.

A child is 6 hours post-tonsillectomy. Which finding is most concerning for hemorrhage?

a)

White patches at the surgical site

b)

Frequent swallowing and throat clearing

c)

Mild throat pain

d)

Refusal of cool liquids

17.

A client has episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and ear fullness. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Acute otitis externa

b)

Allergic rhinitis

c)

Ménière’s disease

d)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

18.

A client is in an acute asthma exacerbation. Which medication provides the fastest relief?

a)

Montelukast

b)

Fluticasone inhaler

c)

Salmeterol

d)

Albuterol

19.

A COPD client has thick secretions that are difficult to expectorate. Which order best supports thinning secretions?

a)

Encourage increased oral fluids if not contraindicated

b)

Restrict fluids to 1 L/day

c)

Give scheduled antitussives around the clock

d)

Avoid humidification to reduce infection risk

20.

A client’s potassium is 6.5 mEq/L with peaked T waves. Which medication should the nurse anticipate FIRST to stabilize the myocardium?

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Regular insulin with dextrose

c)

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

21.

A client develops tingling around the mouth and a positive Trousseau sign after thyroidectomy. Which complication is occurring?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hypermagnesemia

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

22.

Which client is at highest risk for metabolic acidosis?

a)

Client with prolonged vomiting

b)

Client with diabetic ketoacidosis

c)

Client taking loop diuretics

d)

Client receiving antacids daily

23.

Which statement best explains Ménière’s disease manifestations?

a)

Increased endolymph (inner ear fluid) disrupts hearing and balance

b)

Middle ear infection ruptures the tympanic membrane

c)

Cerumen blocks sound transmission permanently

d)

Increased IOP damages the macula first

24.

A client is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food should the client avoid?

a)

Applesauce

b)

White rice

c)

Cucumbers

d)

Baked potato

25.

A client has potassium 2.8 mEq/L. Which discharge statement requires follow-up?

a)

“I will report palpitations right away.”

b)

“I’ll take potassium exactly as prescribed.”

c)

“If I miss a dose, I’ll double the next one.”

d)

“I’ll eat more potassium-rich foods as instructed.”

26.

A client takes diphenhydramine for allergic rhinitis. Which adverse effect should the nurse emphasize?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Sedation and dry mouth

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Bronchodilation

27.

Montelukast is most effective for which condition?

a)

Acute asthma attack

b)

Emergency bronchospasm

c)

Chronic asthma and allergic rhinitis

d)

Bacterial pneumonia

28.

Cromolyn sodium helps prevent allergic symptoms by:

a)

Blocking histamine receptors

b)

Stimulating beta2 receptors

c)

Suppressing the immune system systemically

d)

Preventing release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells

29.

Which patient should avoid systemic decongestants (e.g., pseudoephedrine/phenylephrine)?

a)

Patient with hypertension

b)

Patient with asthma

c)

Patient with GERD

d)

Patient with anemia

30.

Fluticasone nasal spray works primarily by:

a)

Immediate vasoconstriction

b)

Local anti-inflammatory action

c)

Bronchodilation

d)

Systemic immune suppression

31.

Albuterol is classified as a:

a)

Rescue medication

b)

Controller medication

c)

Mucolytic

d)

Antibiotic

32.

A common adverse effect of albuterol is:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Tremors and tachycardia

d)

Hypotension

33.

Ipratropium works by:

a)

Stimulating beta2 receptors

b)

Blocking acetylcholine in the airways

c)

Breaking down mucus chemically

d)

Suppressing inflammation systemically

34.

Long-acting beta2 agonists (e.g., salmeterol) should be:

a)

Used alone for asthma control

b)

Used as rescue therapy

c)

Avoided in COPD

d)

Used with inhaled corticosteroids for asthma maintenance

35.

Acetylcysteine helps patients primarily by:

a)

Suppressing cough

b)

Breaking down thick mucus

c)

Relaxing airway smooth muscle

d)

Reducing airway inflammation

36.

A key nursing consideration for theophylline therapy is to:

a)

Avoid all hydration

b)

Expect absent deep tendon reflexes

c)

Monitor serum drug levels

d)

Use only at bedtime

37.

A client with influenza symptoms started 24 hours ago. Which medication is most appropriate?

a)

Oseltamivir

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Guaifenesin

d)

Diphenhydramine

38.

A client is prescribed modafinil in the setting of OSA. The purpose is to:

a)

Treat airway obstruction

b)

Eliminate nighttime apnea

c)

Reduce daytime sleepiness

d)

Replace CPAP therapy

39.

A child is to receive nirsevimab. It is best described as:

a)

A live vaccine

b)

An antiviral medication

c)

A broad-spectrum antibiotic

d)

A monoclonal antibody

40.

A client with suspected fluid volume deficit has labs showing increased BUN. This finding most strongly supports:

a)

Dehydration/hypovolemia

b)

Heart failure fluid overload

c)

SIADH

d)

Acute glaucoma attack

41.

A client’s calcium is 12.1 mg/dL. Which manifestation is most expected?

a)

Perioral tingling and tetany

b)

Constipation and lethargy

42.

A client is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates worsening toxicity?

a)

Hyperactive reflexes

b)

Respiratory rate 8/min

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Tingling in fingers

43.

A postoperative client is at risk for respiratory acidosis. Which nursing assessment best helps detect this early?

a)

Monitor for hypoventilation and rising PaCO2 on ABGs

b)

Monitor for tetany and Chvostek sign

c)

Monitor for photophobia and halos

d)

Monitor for tinnitus and ear fullness

44.

Which ABG set indicates metabolic acidosis?

a)

pH 7.48, HCO3- 30, PaCO2 44

b)

pH 7.31, HCO3- 16, PaCO2 34

c)

pH 7.51, HCO3- 24, PaCO2 30

d)

pH 7.29, HCO3- 24, PaCO2 58

45.

A client with suspected OSA asks what is monitored during polysomnography. Which is included?

a)

EEG activity

b)

Serum calcium

c)

BNP level

d)

Throat culture

46.

An older adult has presbycusis. Which communication strategy is best?

a)

Speak loudly from behind the client

b)

Face the client and reduce background noise

c)

Use complex medical terms to avoid repeating

d)

Speak quickly to shorten interaction

47.

Which statement best describes open-angle glaucoma symptoms?

a)

Sudden severe eye pain and vomiting

b)

Rapid purulent drainage and crusting

c)

Gradual peripheral vision loss over time

d)

Abrupt “curtain” over vision with flashes

48.

A client with sodium 120 mEq/L becomes increasingly restless. Which provider order should the nurse implement first?

a)

Encourage free-water intake

b)

Administer hypotonic IV fluids

c)

Start potassium replacement

d)

Initiate seizure precautions

49.

Rinne test is used to:

a)

Compare air conduction to bone conduction

b)

Measure intraocular pressure

c)

Detect retinal detachment

d)

Diagnose influenza strain

50.

A child with suspected GAS pharyngitis is started on antibiotics. What is the primary goal?

a)

Prevent rheumatic fever

b)

Prevent glaucoma

c)

Prevent COPD

d)

Prevent Ménière’s disease

51.

Post-tonsillectomy discharge teaching should include:

a)

Avoid coughing, throat clearing, and nose blowing

b)

Use a straw to increase fluids

c)

Gargle vigorously after meals

d)

Take aspirin for pain control

52.

Which finding best differentiates Ménière’s disease from benign positional vertigo?

a)

Vertigo triggered by rolling over only

b)

Tinnitus with ear fullness and hearing loss

c)

Dizziness improved by standing quickly

d)

No auditory symptoms present

53.

A client with asthma has an order set during an acute attack. Which action should occur first?

a)

Obtain a sputum culture

b)

Administer albuterol via nebulizer

c)

Encourage oral fluids

d)

Teach long-term trigger avoidance

54.

A COPD client asks why guaifenesin was prescribed. The best response is:

a)

“It cures emphysema.”

b)

“It prevents pneumonia permanently.”

c)

“It suppresses your cough reflex.”

d)

“It thins secretions to make coughing them out easier.”

55.

A client has severe symptomatic hypocalcemia. Which provider order is most appropriate?

a)

Oral calcium carbonate only

b)

Vitamin D supplements only

c)

IV calcium gluconate via infusion pump

d)

Fluid restriction

56.

A client with suspected hypovolemia from hemorrhage is unstable. Which fluid is most appropriate initially?

a)

Isotonic IV fluids (0.9% NS or LR as ordered)

b)

Hypotonic D5W

c)

3% hypertonic saline for all clients

d)

Free water only

57.

Which scenario most commonly produces metabolic alkalosis in hospitalized clients?

a)

Nasogastric suction

b)

Acute renal failure with uremia

c)

Shock with lactic acidosis

d)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

58.

A client receiving magnesium sulfate has absent patellar reflexes. What is the priority action?

a)

Increase the infusion rate

b)

Stop the infusion and prepare calcium gluconate

c)

Give oral magnesium

d)

Encourage ambulation

59.

A client with COPD has chronic CO2 retention. Which ABG pattern most fits this?

a)

Low PaCO2 with high pH

b)

High PaCO2 with low pH (may show compensation)

c)

High HCO3- with high pH and normal PaCO2

d)

Low HCO3- with low pH and normal PaCO2

60.

Which OSA statement requires follow-up teaching?

a)

“Weight loss can improve symptoms.”

b)

“Alcohol before bed can worsen apnea.”

c)

“CPAP decreases daytime sleepiness.”

d)

“Sleeping on my back always prevents airway collapse.”

61.

A client with suspected retinal detachment should be instructed to:

a)

Avoid strenuous activity and seek urgent care

b)

Use OTC antihistamine drops and wait 48 hours

c)

Apply warm compresses and rest the eyes

d)

Increase fluids and reassess later

62.

ABG: pH 7.18, PaCO2 38, HCO3− 15. Which imbalance is present?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

63.

An older adult with hearing loss is at higher risk for:

a)

Social isolation and depression related to communication barriers

b)

Acute glaucoma

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Tonsil hemorrhage

64.

Which teaching is most appropriate for a client prescribed timolol eye drops?

a)

“Expect severe diarrhea as a side effect.”

b)

“This medication increases intraocular pressure.”

c)

“Report wheezing or bradycardia; it can have systemic beta-blocker effects.”

d)

“Use it only when your eye hurts.”

65.

Which Rinne test result is normal?

a)

Bone conduction louder than air conduction

b)

Air conduction louder than bone conduction

c)

No sound heard by either method

d)

Equal air and bone conduction always

66.

Which assessment finding suggests post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage?

a)

Mild sore throat and decreased appetite

b)

White fibrin tissue at the surgical site

c)

Frequent swallowing with tachycardia

d)

Ear pain referred from throat irritation

67.

Ménière’s disease treatment teaching should include:

a)

There is no cure; focus on symptom management and trigger control

b)

Antibiotics are first-line long-term therapy

c)

High-sodium diet prevents attacks

d)

Stop all meds once vertigo improves

68.

A COPD client has a flattened diaphragm on chest x-ray. This finding is most consistent with:

a)

Acute pleural effusion

b)

Late-stage COPD hyperinflation

c)

Acute bacterial tonsillitis

d)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

69.

A client is on a low-potassium diet. Which seasoning instruction is most important?

a)

Avoid potassium-based salt substitutes

b)

Use salt substitutes daily

c)

Add tomato paste to meals

d)

Add banana to smoothies

70.

Which instruction is most important for a client taking oral potassium supplements for hypokalemia?

a)

Stop the medication if stools darken

b)

Take the medication on an empty stomach only

c)

Crush sustained-release tablets for easier swallowing

d)

Take with food and a full glass of water; report GI irritation

71.

A client is receiving IV potassium for hypokalemia. Which action is required?

a)

Administer via infusion pump; never IV push

b)

Give undiluted IV push in emergencies

c)

Mix with blood transfusion tubing

d)

Run wide open to finish quickly

72.

Which electrolyte medication is used to remove potassium via the GI tract in hyperkalemia?

a)

IV calcium gluconate

b)

Regular insulin with dextrose

c)

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

d)

Potassium chloride

73.

A client with COPD is taught pursed-lip breathing primarily to:

a)

Increase expiratory time and reduce air trapping

b)

Cure chronic bronchitis

c)

Lower serum calcium

d)

Treat acute strep infection

74.

A client with suspected hypovolemia has cool clammy skin and delayed capillary refill. Which nursing priority is most appropriate?

a)

Place in Trendelenburg and withhold IV access

b)

Restrict fluids

c)

Administer oxygen and prepare for isotonic fluid resuscitation per orders

d)

Give diuretics

75.

Which cause is most associated with metabolic alkalosis related to potassium depletion?

a)

Loop diuretic use

b)

Diarrhea

c)

DKA

d)

Renal failure

76.

A client on magnesium sulfate becomes difficult to arouse. Which assessment is most critical?

a)

Respiratory rate and depth

b)

Hearing acuity

c)

Pupillary light reflex only

d)

Visual acuity only

77.

An ABG shows pH 7.33, PaCO2 67, HCO3− 37. This is most consistent with:

a)

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

b)

Compensated respiratory acidosis

c)

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

d)

Compensated metabolic alkalosis

78.

Which finding is most consistent with COPD rather than asthma?

a)

Episodic symptoms with symptom-free intervals

b)

Onset in childhood with eczema history

c)

Reversible symptoms triggered by allergens

d)

Long smoking history with chronic productive cough

79.

A client with hyponatremia is receiving 3% sodium chloride. Which complication must the nurse watch for?

a)

Rapid correction causing neurologic injury (monitor closely)

b)

Hyperactive reflexes from magnesium toxicity

c)

Increased intraocular pressure

d)

Conductive hearing loss

80.

A client reports gradual peripheral vision loss over months. Which condition is most consistent?

a)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

b)

Retinal detachment

c)

Chronic open-angle glaucoma

d)

Conjunctivitis

81.

A child with epistaxis is actively bleeding. Which action is appropriate?

a)

Sit upright and lean forward; pinch soft part of nose

b)

Tilt head back and swallow blood

c)

Pack nares tightly with dry gauze immediately

d)

Encourage forceful nose blowing

82.

A client with asthma uses salmeterol. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

“This is my rescue inhaler for sudden wheezing.”

b)

“I should use it alone instead of inhaled steroids.”

c)

“It’s for maintenance; I still need a rescue inhaler for attacks.”

d)

“I only use it when I have pneumonia.”

83.

A client with thick secretions is prescribed acetylcysteine. The expected effect is:

a)

Break down and thin mucus

b)

Block histamine receptors

c)

Stimulate beta2 receptors for bronchodilation

d)

Cure emphysema

84.

Which medication is most associated with sedation and dry mouth?

a)

Fluticasone nasal spray

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Guaifenesin

d)

Montelukast

85.

A client with OSA is prescribed CPAP. The best explanation is:

a)

It provides continuous positive pressure to prevent airway collapse

b)

It cures OSA permanently after 1 week

c)

It treats infection causing OSA

d)

It is used only to diagnose OSA

86.

A nurse is teaching about ototoxicity risk. Which medication class is commonly associated with ototoxic effects in older adults?

a)

Loop diuretics

b)

Antacids

c)

Stool softeners

d)

Topical emollients

87.

A client with severe hypocalcemia is receiving IV calcium gluconate. Which monitoring is priority?

a)

Cardiac rhythm monitoring

b)

Peak flow readings

c)

Throat culture monitoring

d)

Tympanometry

88.

A client has metabolic acidosis risk from bicarbonate loss. Which condition fits?

a)

Prolonged diarrhea

b)

Prolonged vomiting

c)

NG suction

d)

Loop diuretics

89.

A nurse reinforces low-potassium diet teaching. Which choice shows understanding?

a)

“I’ll choose applesauce instead of orange juice.”

b)

“I’ll eat baked potatoes more often.”

c)

“I’ll use potassium salt substitutes.”

d)

“I’ll snack on bananas daily.”

90.

A client with hypokalemia is at greatest risk for:

a)

Cardiac dysrhythmias

b)

Peaked T waves

c)

Sine-wave QRS pattern

d)

Severe hypertension with bounding pulses

91.

A client after thyroidectomy reports numbness/tingling and begins stridor. What is the priority concern?

a)

Laryngospasm from hypocalcemia affecting airway

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Fluid volume excess

d)

OSA

92.

A client with COPD asks about vaccines. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Influenza and pneumococcal vaccines are recommended

b)

Vaccines are avoided in COPD

c)

Vaccines cure COPD

d)

Vaccines replace inhalers

93.

A client with suspected GAS pharyngitis is allergic to penicillin. Which alternative is appropriate?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Ceftriaxone always first choice

d)

Palivizumab

94.

Which manifestation is most consistent with fluid volume deficit?

a)

Weak, thready pulse and tachycardia

b)

JVD and crackles

c)

Bounding pulses and edema

d)

Weight gain and elevated BNP

95.

A nurse reviews PFT purpose. Which is an appropriate reason to obtain PFTs?

a)

Evaluate response to bronchodilators by measuring airflow changes

b)

Confirm pulmonary embolism by visualizing clot

c)

Identify pleural effusion volume by ultrasound

d)

Detect myocardial ischemia during activity

96.

A client scheduled for bronchoscopy asks why it’s done. Best response?

a)

It measures apnea-hypopnea index

b)

It evaluates middle ear mobility

c)

It visualizes the trachea/bronchi and can remove foreign objects or secretions

d)

It confirms glaucoma

97.

Which finding best supports Ménière’s disease?

a)

Episodic vertigo with tinnitus and aural fullness

b)

“Curtain” over vision with flashes

c)

Wheezing relieved fully between episodes

d)

Frequent swallowing after tonsillectomy

98.

A client has respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation. Which ABG pattern fits?

a)

pH 7.50, PaCO2 28, HCO3- 24

b)

pH 7.30, PaCO2 58, HCO3- 24

c)

pH 7.18, PaCO2 38, HCO3- 15

d)

pH 7.57, PaCO2 46, HCO3- 38

99.

Which teaching best prevents childhood epistaxis recurrence?

a)

Use humidifier/saline sprays and discourage nose picking

b)

Encourage vigorous nose blowing hourly

c)

Use aspirin for discomfort

d)

Keep the room very dry

100.

A client with COPD asks why CO2 can be high. The best explanation is:

a)

Chronic air trapping and hypoventilation can lead to CO2 retention

b)

CO2 rises only when potassium is low

c)

CO2 rises only from tonsil bleeding

d)

CO2 rises only from glaucoma