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UNIT 5 ― Postpartum

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This term refers to the period of labor and delivery 2-3 hours immediately after the delivery of the placenta.

a)

Stage 4 (Postpartum Recovery)

b)

Puerperium

c)

Fourth Trimester

d)

Postpartum

2.

This term refers to the period of pregnancy after childbirth.

a)

Postpartum

b)

Stage 4 (Postpartum Recovery)

c)

Puerperium

d)

Fourth Trimester

3.

This term refers to the period after childbirth covering the first 6 weeks for physical, physiologic, and reproductive involution.

a)

Puerperium

b)

Fourth Trimester

c)

Postpartum

d)

Stage 4 (Postpartum Recovery)

4.

This term refers to the period after childbirth covering the first 3 months for the complete recovery and adjustment (social, emotional, developmental) of the mother, baby, and family unit.

a)

Fourth Trimester

b)

Postpartum

c)

Stage 4 (Postpartum Recovery)

d)

Puerperium

5.

The process wherein the mother's reproductive organs return to a nearly pre-pregnant state is __________?

a)

Involution

b)

Subinvolution

c)

Evolution

d)

Solution

e)

Congratulation

6.

INVOLUTION is typically considered complete by the end of __________?

a)

6 weeks

b)

6 hours

c)

6 days

d)

6 months

e)

6 years

7.

There are 4 PHASES OF POSTPARTUM. Which one is the first 24-72hrs considered as the most critical period immediately after birth when the most serious medical complications occur.

a)

Acute 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

b)

Early 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

c)

Mid 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

d)

Late 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

8.

There are 4 PHASES OF POSTPARTUM. Which one is the Day 2 - Week 6 considered as the recovery period where the main focus is on physical, physiologic, and reproductive involution.

a)

Early 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

b)

Mid 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

c)

Late 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

d)

Acute 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

9.

There are 4 PHASES OF POSTPARTUM. Which one is on Week 6 - Month 6 considered as the extended recovery period where the mother typically begins to feel well enough to focus on restoring her energy, muscle strength , and general well being as the mother begins light exercise and returns to daily life.

a)

Mid 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

b)

Late 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

c)

Acute 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

d)

Early 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

10.

There are 4 PHASES OF POSTPARTUM. Which one is on Month 6 - Year 1+ considered as the final recovery period focusing on achieving full physical/mental well-being and long-term adaptation to motherhood.

a)

Late 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

b)

Acute 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

c)

Early 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

d)

Mid 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

11.

This s a technique used to remember the essential components of a comprehensive postpartum maternal assessment.

(a)  

12.

This is the first form of breastmilk produced by the mammary glands.

a)

Colostrum

b)

Transitional 𝙼𝚒𝚕𝚔

c)

Mature 𝙼𝚒𝚕𝚔

13.

This breastmilk begins production during pregnancy (as early as 12th-18th week) and lasts for the first 5 days.

a)

Colostrum

b)

Transitional 𝙼𝚒𝚕𝚔

c)

Mature 𝙼𝚒𝚕𝚔

14.

This is the type of breastmilk at Day 5-14.

a)

Transitional 𝙼𝚒𝚕𝚔

b)

Mature 𝙼𝚒𝚕𝚔

c)

Colostrum

15.

This is the type of breastmilk at Day 14 and onwards.

a)

Mature 𝙼𝚒𝚕𝚔

b)

Colostrum

c)

Transitional 𝙼𝚒𝚕𝚔

16.

The production is colostrum starts when?

a)

12-18 weeks AOG

b)

Immediately after childbirth

c)

During Labor & Delivery

d)

As soon as the newborn sucks for the first breastmilk

17.

COLOSTRUM is the type of breastmilk present @ __________.

a)

12-18 weeks AOG to Day 5 post-delivery

b)

Day 5-14

c)

Day 14 onwards

18.

TRANSITIONAL MILK is the type of breastmilk present @ __________.

a)

Day 5-14

b)

Day 14 onwards

c)

12-18 weeks AOG to Day 5 post-delivery

19.

MATURE MILK is the type of breastmilk present @ __________.

a)

Day 14 onwards

b)

12-18 weeks AOG to Day 5 post-delivery

c)

Day 5-14

20.

The most abundant immunoglobulin in colostrum.

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

21.

The only immunoglobulin transferred from the mother to the fetus via the uteroplacental circulation.

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

22.

Which is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta?

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

23.

What type of immunity is received by a neonate when IgA is transfered via colostrum?

a)

Passive Natural Immunity

b)

Passive Artificial Immunity

c)

Active Natural Immunity

d)

Active Artificial Immunity

24.

What type of immunity is received by a fetus when IgG is transferred via uteroplacental circulation?

a)

Passive Natural Immunity

b)

Passive Artificial Immunity

c)

Active Natural Immunity

d)

Active Artificial Immunity

25.

What type of immunity is received by a neonate when IgA is transferred via colostrum?

a)

Naturally-acquired Passive Immunity

b)

Artificially-acquired Passive Immunity

c)

Naturally-acquired Active Immunity

d)

Artificially-acquired Active Immunity

26.

What type of immunity is received by a fetus when IgG is transferred via uteroplacental circulation?

a)

Naturally-acquired Passive Immunity

b)

Artificially-acquired Passive Immunity

c)

Naturally-acquired Active Immunity

d)

Artificially-acquired Active Immunity

27.

The hormone responsible for milk production.

a)

Prolactin

b)

Oxytocin

28.

The hormone responsible for milk ejection.

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Prolactin

29.

Prolactin is produced by?

a)

Anterior Pituitary Gland

b)

Posterior Pituitary Gland

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Uterus

e)

Mammary Gland

30.

What is produced by Hypothalamus to start the production of milk?

a)

Prolactin Releasing Hormone

b)

Prolactin

31.

What is produced by Anterior Pituitary Gland to stimulate the mammary gland to produce milk?

a)

Prolactin

b)

Prolactin Releasing Hormone

32.

Oxytocin is produced by?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Posterior Pituitary Gland

c)

Anterior Pituitary Gland

d)

Uterus

e)

Mammary Gland

33.

Oxytocin is released by?

a)

Posterior Pituitary Gland

b)

Anterior Pituitary Gland

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Uterus

e)

Mammary Gland

34.

High levels of PROLACTIN directly inhibit the release of Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. When breastfeeding, ovulation is delayed by as much as __________.

a)

4-6 months

b)

4-6 weeks

35.

High levels of PROLACTIN directly inhibit the release of Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. When not breastfeeding, ovulation returns as soon as __________.

a)

4-6 weeks

b)

4-6 months

36.

What is the normal and desired firmness of the uterus post-delivery?

a)

FIRM (𝙷𝙰𝚁𝙳)

b)

BOGGY (𝚂𝙾𝙵𝚃)

37.

What does a FIRM (𝙷𝙰𝚁𝙳) uterus indicates post-delivery?

a)

It is contracting well / undergoing involution as it should.

b)

It is not contracting / not undergoing involution as it should.

38.

What does a BOGGY (𝚂𝙾𝙵𝚃) uterus indicates post-delivery?

a)

It is not contracting / not undergoing involution as it should.

b)

It is contracting well / undergoing involution as it should.

39.

The POSITION of the uterus post-delivery is?

a)

At the midline.

b)

Deviated to the right.

c)

Deviated to the left.

40.

The FUNDAL HEIGHT of the uterus post-delivery is?

a)

At the level of the umbilicus.

b)

At the level of the xiphoid process.

c)

At the level of the symphysis pubis.

d)

At the level that is midway between the umbilicus and xiphoid process.

e)

At the level that is midway between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis.

41.

Post-delivery, the fundus is expected to descend by approximately __________. [𝚂𝙰𝚃𝙰]

a)

1 cm/day

b)

1 fingerbreadth/day

c)

2 cm/day

d)

2 fingerbreadths/day

42.

Post-delivery, the fundus is expected to descend by approximately __________.

a)

1 cm/day

b)

0.5 cm/day

c)

1.5 cm/day

d)

2 cm/day

43.

Post-delivery, the fundus is expected to descend by approximately __________.

a)

1 fingerbreadth/day

b)

0.5 fingerbreadth/day

c)

1.5 fingerbreadth/day

d)

2 fingerbreadths/day

44.

The fundal height is expected to be __________ the level of the umbilicus 24 hrs after childbirth.

a)

1 cm below

b)

1 cm above

c)

2 cm below

d)

2 cm above

45.

The fundal height is expected to be __________ the level of the umbilicus 48 hrs after childbirth.

a)

2 cm below

b)

1 cm below

c)

3 cm below

d)

1 cm above

e)

2 cm above

46.

The fundal height is expected to be __________ the level of the umbilicus 72 hrs after childbirth.

a)

3 cm below

b)

2 cm below

c)

2 cm above

d)

3 cm above

47.

By approximately __________ postpartum, the uterus should have returned to nearly its normal, pre-pregnant size and weight.

a)

6 weeks

b)

6 hours

c)

6 days

d)

6 months

48.

Which uterotonic is the DOC for preventing and controlling Postpartum Hemorrhage?

a)

Methylergonovine maleate (Methergine)

b)

Oxytocin (Pitocin)

c)

Prostaglandins (Misoprostol)

49.

When doing a postpartum fundal massage, which hand is used to massage the fundus until it becomes firm?

a)

Dominant Hand

b)

Non-dominant Hand

c)

Right Hand

d)

Left Hand

50.

When doing a postpartum fundal massage, which hand placed on the lower portion of the abdomen, supporting the base of the uterus?

a)

Non-dominant Hand

b)

Dominant Hand

c)

Right Hand

d)

Left Hand

51.

Which one is the correct sequence of LOCHIA occurrence?

a)

Rubra > Serosa > Alba

b)

Serosa > Alba > Rubra

c)

Alba > Rubra > Serosa

d)

Rubra > Alba > Serosa

e)

Serosa > Rubra > Alba

52.

Which lochia is bright red or dark red?

a)

Lochia Rubra

b)

Lochia Serosa

c)

Lochia Alba

53.

Which lochia is pinkish-brown or musty?

a)

Lochia Serosa

b)

Lochia Alba

c)

Lochia Rubra

54.

Which lochia is yellowish-white?

a)

Lochia Alba

b)

Lochia Rubra

c)

Lochia Serosa

55.

LOCHIA RUBRA is expected at which days post-delivery?

a)

Day 1-4

b)

Day 4-10

c)

Day 10-Week 6

56.

LOCHIA ALBA is expected at which days post-delivery?

a)

Day 10-Week 6

b)

Day 1-4

c)

Day 4-10

57.

LOCHIA SEROSA is expected at which days post-delivery?

a)

Day 4-10

b)

Day 10-Week 6

c)

Day 1-4

58.

What is the main component of LOCHIA RUBRA?

a)

Blood

b)

Serous Fluid

c)

WBC

59.

What is the main component of LOCHIA SEROSA?

a)

Serous Fluid

b)

WBC

c)

Blood

60.

What is the main component of LOCHIA ALBA?

a)

WBC

b)

Blood

c)

Serous Fluid

61.

The __________ appearance of the the opening of the cervix is the classic anatomical change that occurs after a vaginal delivery. Healthcare provider can visually determine if a woman has had a vaginal birth because of this.

a)

Horizontal, slit-like

b)

Vertical, slit-like

c)

Dilated

d)

Non-dilated

62.

This is a tool used in obstetrics to assess the healing of a wound, most commonly an episiotomy or perineal laceration after childbirth.

(a)  

63.

In REEDA Scoring Scale, the "R" stands for?

(a)  

64.

In REEDA Scoring Scale, the "E" (which also means swelling) stands for?

(a)  

65.

In REEDA Scoring Scale, the "E" (which also means bruising) stands for?

(a)  

66.

In REEDA Scoring Scale, the "D" (which also means discharge) stands for?

(a)  

67.

In REEDA Scoring Scale, the "A" stands for?

(a)  

68.

In the context of the REEDA Scoring Scale for wound assessment, what does a total score of 0 indicate?

a)

Excellent Healing / No Inflammation or Infection

b)

Mild Inflammation or Infection

c)

Moderate Inflammation or Infection

d)

Severe Inflammation or Infection

69.

In the context of the REEDA Scoring Scale for wound assessment, what does a total score of 1-5 indicate?

a)

Mild Inflammation or Infection

b)

Moderate Inflammation or Infection

c)

Severe Inflammation or Infection

d)

Excellent Healing / No Inflammation or Infection

70.

In the context of the REEDA Scoring Scale for wound assessment, what does a total score of 6-10 indicate?

a)

Moderate Inflammation or Infection

b)

Severe Inflammation or Infection

c)

Excellent Healing / No Inflammation or Infection

d)

Mild Inflammation or Infection

71.

In the context of the REEDA Scoring Scale for wound assessment, what does a total score of 11-15 indicate?

a)

Severe Inflammation or Infection

b)

Excellent Healing / No Inflammation or Infection

c)

Mild Inflammation or Infection

d)

Moderate Inflammation or Infection

72.

Which one is the hallmark sign of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

Homan's Sign

b)

Hegar's Sign

c)

Chadwick's Sign

d)

Goodell's Sign

73.

Homan's Sign is a clinical test for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) that involves pain in the (a)   upon forced dorsiflexion of the foot. 

74.

Homan's Sign is a clinical test for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) that involves pain in the calf upon forced __________ of the foot. 

a)

Dorsiflexion

b)

Plantarflexion

75.

Homan's Sign is a clinical test for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) that involves pain in the (a)   upon forced dorsiflexion of the foot. 

76.

These are 3 broad categories of factors that are thought to contribute to thrombosis, particularly deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

(a)  

77.

There are 3 PHASES ᴏғ POSTPARTUM ADAPTATION. The focus of the mother in this phase is SELF, PHYSICAL RECOVERY, & IMMEDIATE NEEDS (like eating, sleeping, and pain relief).

a)

Takin-In 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

b)

Taking-Hold 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

c)

Letting-Go 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

78.

There are 3 PHASES ᴏғ POSTPARTUM ADAPTATION. The focus of the mother in this phase is ACTIVE NEWBORN CARE & COMPETENCE.

a)

Taking-Hold 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

b)

Letting-Go 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

c)

Takin-In 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

79.

There are 3 PHASES ᴏғ POSTPARTUM ADAPTATION. The focus of the mother in this phase is NEW FAMILY UNIT & ROLE INTEGRATION.

a)

Letting-Go 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

b)

Takin-In 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

c)

Taking-Hold 𝙿𝚑𝚊𝚜𝚎

80.

Which one best describes TAKING-IN PHASE?

a)

The mother is focused primarily on herself, her needs, and her birth experience.

b)

The mother shifts her focus from her own needs to the active care of her infant and regaining control over her bodily functions.

c)

The mother moves beyond the reality of the baby and begins adjusting to the new family unit.

81.

Which one best describes TAKING-HOLD PHASE?

a)

The mother shifts her focus from her own needs to the active care of her infant and regaining control over her bodily functions.

b)

The mother moves beyond the reality of the baby and begins adjusting to the new family unit.

c)

The mother is focused primarily on herself, her needs, and her birth experience.

82.

Which one best describes LETTING-GO PHASE?

a)

The mother moves beyond the reality of the baby and begins adjusting to the new family unit.

b)

The mother is focused primarily on herself, her needs, and her birth experience.

c)

The mother shifts her focus from her own needs to the active care of her infant and regaining control over her bodily functions.

83.

This is the MOST COMMON postpartum psychiatric/mood disorder affecting 50% to 80% of mothers.

a)

Postpartum Blues (𝚊𝚔𝚊 "Baby Blues")

b)

Postpartum Depression (PPD)

c)

Postpartum Psychosis (PPP)

84.

This is the LESS COMMON postpartum psychiatric/mood disorder affecting 10% to 15% of mothers.

a)

Postpartum Depression (PPD)

b)

Postpartum Psychosis (PPP)

c)

Postpartum Blues (𝚊𝚔𝚊 "Baby Blues")

85.

This is the RAREST postpartum psychiatric/mood disorder affecting approximately 0.1% (1-2 per 1,000) of mothers.

a)

Postpartum Psychosis (PPP)

b)

Postpartum Blues (𝚊𝚔𝚊 "Baby Blues")

c)

Postpartum Depression (PPD)

86.

The postpartum mother said "I am Queen Elizabeth of England". This is...?

a)

Delusion

b)

Illusion

c)

Hallucination

87.

The postpartum mother said "The way to save my child from the incoming alien invasion is to kill him." This is...?

a)

Delusion

b)

Illusion

c)

Hallucination

88.

The postpartum mother said "Have you switched my baby? Why is she this ugly?" This is...?

a)

Delusion

b)

Illusion

c)

Hallucination

89.

The postpartum mother said "Have you switched my baby? Why is she this ugly?" This is...?

a)

Delusion

b)

Illusion

c)

Hallucination

90.

This occurs within the first 24 hours post-delivery.

a)

Primary PPH

b)

Secondary PPH

91.

This occurs after 24 hours post-delivery.

a)

Secondary PPH

b)

Primary PPH

92.

There are 4Ts THAT CAUSES PPH. Which one refers to the uterus failing to contract effectively after birth, leaving the blood vessels at the placental site open to bleed profusely.

a)

Tone

b)

Trauma

c)

Tissue

d)

Thrombin

93.

There are 4Ts THAT CAUSES PPH. Which one refers to the damage to the uterus or vagina during delivery.

a)

Trauma

b)

Tissue

c)

Thrombin

d)

Tone

94.

There are 4Ts THAT CAUSES PPH. Which one refers to fragments of the placenta or membranes being left behind in the uterus, preventing it from clamping down completely.

a)

Tissue

b)

Thrombin

c)

Tone

d)

Trauma

95.

There are 4Ts THAT CAUSES PPH. Which one refers to the  pre-existing blood clotting disorder of the mother wherein their blood lacks the ability to clot properly.

a)

Thrombin

b)

Tone

c)

Trauma

d)

Tissue

96.

What is known as the UNIVERSAL DONOR blood type?

a)

O(negative)

b)

O(positive)

c)

AB(positive)

d)

AB(negative)

97.

What is known as the UNIVERSAL RECIPIENT blood type?

a)

AB(positive)

b)

AB(negative)

c)

O(positive)

d)

O(negative)

98.

This is a condition where the pituitary gland is damaged due to severe blood loss during or after childbirth. 

a)

Sheehan's Syndrome

b)

Ed Sheeran's Syndrome

c)

Sheena's Syndrome

d)

Shairah's Syndrome

99.

Sheehan's Syndrome = is a condition where the __________ is damaged due to severe blood loss during or after childbirth. 

a)

Pituitary Gland

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Uterus

d)

Cerebrum

e)

Cerebellum

100.

What is the common etiologic agent of ENDOMETRITIS?

a)

Polymicrobial (E. coli, Group A & B Streptococci, Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus, Bacteroides, Gardnerella vaginalis, etc.)

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Escherichia coli

101.

What is the common etiologic agent of WOUND INFECTIONS?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Polymicrobial (E. coli, Group A & B Streptococci, Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus, Bacteroides, Gardnerella vaginalis, etc.)

102.

What is the common etiologic agent of MASTITIS?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Polymicrobial (E. coli, Group A & B Streptococci, Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus, Bacteroides, Gardnerella vaginalis, etc.)

103.

What is the common etiologic agent of UTI?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Polymicrobial (E. coli, Group A & B Streptococci, Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus, Bacteroides, Gardnerella vaginalis, etc.)

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

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