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2205 Exam 2 OT

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A postpartum client develops a fever of 38.5°C (101.3°F) on day 3, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia. Which infection is most likely?

a)

Endometritis

b)

Mastitis

c)

Urinary tract infection

d)

Wound infection

2.

A nurse suspects postpartum sepsis. Which finding is most concerning and requires immediate escalation?

a)

Chills and uterine tenderness

b)

Hypotension with altered mental status

c)

Elevated white blood cell count

d)

Foul-smelling lochia

3.

Which postpartum client is at greatest risk for endometritis?

a)

Vaginal birth with intact perineum

b)

Multiparous client with rapid labor

c)

Cesarean birth after prolonged labor and ROM

d)

Breastfeeding client with cracked nipples

4.

A client presents with unilateral breast pain, erythema, fever, and flu-like symptoms 10 days postpartum. Which intervention is priority?

a)

Stop breastfeeding on the affected side

b)

Continue breastfeeding or pumping to empty the affected breast while applying warm compresses

c)

Wear a tight-fitting bra to reduce milk flow

d)

Delay feeding until fever resolves

5.

Which assessment finding differentiates mastitis from engorgement?

a)

Fever and localized redness

b)

Bilateral breast firmness

c)

Milk leakage

d)

Breast warmth after feeding

6.

A postpartum client has suprapubic pain, urinary urgency, cloudy urine, and fever. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Blood cultures

b)

Urinalysis and urine culture

c)

Pelvic ultrasound

d)

Type and crossmatch

7.

Which complication is most associated with untreated postpartum urinary tract infection?

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Endometritis

c)

Pyelonephritis

d)

Mastitis

8.

A client with postpartum hemorrhage continues to bleed despite a firm uterus. Which cause should the nurse suspect?

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Retained placental fragments

c)

Subinvolution

d)

Laceration of the genital tract

9.

Which finding is most characteristic of a postpartum hematoma?

a)

Severe perineal pain with minimal bleeding

b)

Heavy vaginal bleeding

c)

Boggy uterus

d)

Elevated fundal height

10.

A nurse palpates a firm uterus with ongoing bright-red bleeding. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Perform bimanual uterine massage

b)

Inspect the perineum and vagina

c)

Administer oxytocin

d)

Insert a Foley catheter

11.

Which laboratory test is critical when severe postpartum hemorrhage is suspected?

a)

WBC count

b)

Serum glucose

12.

Which finding indicates early postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Bleeding at 4 weeks postpartum

b)

Lochia serosa on day 4

c)

Mild uterine cramping

d)

Saturation of a pad in 15 minutes

13.

A client develops heavy bleeding 3 weeks postpartum with an enlarged, boggy uterus. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Subinvolution of the uterus

b)

Uterine inversion

c)

Placenta accreta

d)

Uterine rupture

14.

Which risk factor is associated with uterine atony?

a)

Early ambulation

b)

Prolonged labor and overdistended uterus

c)

Breastfeeding

d)

Frequent voiding

15.

Which nursing action is appropriate when uterine atony is suspected?

a)

Express clots before massage

b)

Place client in Trendelenburg

c)

Perform fundal massage and assess bladder

d)

Avoid uterotonics

16.

A postpartum client experiences sudden hemorrhage and a smooth mass is visible at the introitus. Which condition is suspected?

a)

Retained placenta

b)

Placenta percreta

c)

Vaginal hematoma

d)

Uterine inversion

17.

Which medication is administered before manual replacement of an inverted uterus?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Methylergonovine

d)

Tranexamic acid

18.

A placenta fails to deliver within 30 minutes after birth. This is documented as:

a)

Subinvolution

b)

Retained placenta

c)

Placenta accreta

19.

Placenta percreta is best described as:

a)

Placenta attached superficially to endometrium

b)

Placenta invading myometrium

c)

Placenta penetrating through uterine wall

d)

Placenta retained due to uterine atony

20.

Which intervention is expected for severe postpartum hemorrhage unresponsive to uterotonics?

a)

Ice packs

b)

Tocolytic administration

c)

Fundal elevation

d)

Uterine tamponade

21.

Which uterotonic is contraindicated in a client with hypertension?

a)

Methylergonovine

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Misoprostol

d)

Tranexamic acid

22.

Tranexamic acid treats postpartum hemorrhage by:

a)

Enhancing platelet aggregation through thromboxane A2 synthesis

b)

Inhibiting fibrinolysis by blocking plasminogen activation and plasmin binding to fibrin

c)

Increasing uterine contractions via oxytocin receptor stimulation

d)

Accelerating coagulation by activating factor VII

23.

Which finding supports a diagnosis of late postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Bleeding within 24 hours

b)

Uterine inversion at delivery

c)

Retained placental fragments at 3 weeks

d)

Vaginal laceration

24.

A client with Von Willebrand disease is postpartum. What complication is the nurse most concerned about?

a)

Infection

b)

Thrombosis

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hemorrhage

25.

Which statement correctly describes Von Willebrand disease Type 3?

a)

Near-complete absence of factor

b)

Partial deficiency

c)

Mild deficiency

d)

Increased clotting risk

26.

A postpartum client has fever >38°C after the first 24 hr and tachycardia. The nurse identifies the major complication of puerperal infection as which condition?

a)

Hematoma

b)

Septicemia

c)

Hypovolemic shock

d)

Uterine inversion

27.

A postpartum client has dark, profuse lochia and uterine tenderness on day 4 with fever. Which disorder is most consistent?

a)

Wound infection

b)

Mastitis

c)

Endometritis

d)

UTI

28.

A breastfeeding client develops unilateral breast pain, a reddened area, flu-like symptoms, and fever. Which organism is typically the cause?

a)

Group B streptococcus

b)

Candida albicans

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

29.

A nurse assesses a cesarean incision that is warm with erythema, pain, edema, and seropurulent drainage. Which complication is most likely?

a)

Wound infection (surgical site infection)

b)

Normal postoperative inflammation

c)

Incisional hernia

d)

Superficial thrombophlebitis

30.

A client is postpartum and reports pelvic discomfort, urgency, dysuria, and cloudy malodorous urine. Which diagnostic procedure should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Type and crossmatch

b)

Urinalysis for WBCs, RBCs, protein, bacteria

c)

Intracervical cultures

d)

Blood cultures

31.

A nurse is prioritizing teaching for postpartum infection prevention. Which instruction is most appropriate?

a)

Perform thorough handwashing and good perineal hygiene

b)

Use tampons to control lochia odor

c)

Avoid all ambulation for 48 hr

d)

Decrease protein intake to reduce swelling

32.

A client with mastitis asks what action best helps prevent milk stasis. Which teaching should the nurse include?

a)

Stop feeding on the affected side for 24 hr

b)

Completely empty the breasts with each feeding

c)

Limit fluids to decrease milk production

d)

Avoid pumping until pain resolves

33.

A postpartum client has mastitis and reports pain with breastfeeding. Which action is appropriate per the teaching points?

a)

Restrict feedings to every 6 hr

b)

Stop breastfeeding permanently

c)

Use a breast pump or manually express milk if too painful to breastfeed

d)

Use an underwire bra for support

34.

A postpartum client has suspected puerperal infection. Which medication approach is expected?

a)

No antibiotics until culture results return

b)

IV broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy

c)

Oral antibiotics only

d)

Antivirals to prevent spread

35.

A postpartum client with suspected endometritis has pain and fever. Which nursing action is appropriate?

a)

Encourage the client to avoid contact with the newborn

b)

Apply ice packs to the uterus

c)

Collect prescribed vaginal and blood cultures

d)

Restrict all fluids

36.

A postpartum client has a UTI. Which medication is used to reduce discomfort and pain associated with the infection?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Morphine

d)

Acetaminophen

37.

A nurse reinforces UTI management teaching. Which instruction is appropriate?

a)

Stop antibiotics once symptoms improve

b)

Increase fluid intake to 3,000 mL/day to flush the bladder

c)

Drink less fluid to avoid frequency

d)

Wipe back to front to reduce irritation

38.

A nurse is reviewing postpartum infection risk factors. Which client history increases risk as listed?

a)

Vaginal birth without laceration

b)

Early ambulation

c)

Cesarean birth

d)

No prior infections

39.

A postpartum client reports uterine tenderness, malodorous lochia, and fever. Which assessment is essential for ongoing monitoring?

a)

Frequent vital signs

b)

Pupillary response

40.

A newly postpartum client develops mastitis. Which action should the nurse encourage to help manage it?

a)

Stop fluids to reduce milk production

b)

Continue breastfeeding frequently (every 2–4 hr), especially on the affected side

c)

Wear an underwire bra continuously

d)

Avoid emptying the affected breast

41.

A postpartum client with infection risk asks what diet supports healing. Which instruction is appropriate?

a)

A diet high in protein promotes tissue healing

b)

Avoid protein

c)

High-carbohydrate only

d)

Low-protein diet

42.

A postpartum client with suspected infection. Which lab finding is expected per the listed tests?

a)

Decreased WBC count

b)

Leukocytosis

c)

Decreased RBC sedimentation rate

d)

Increased platelet aggregation

43.

Using the 4 T’s, which “T” includes uterine atony?

a)

Tissue

b)

Trauma

c)

Tone

d)

Thrombin

44.

A client is 1 hr postpartum with a boggy uterus and heavy lochia. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Prepare for discharge teaching

b)

Firmly massage the uterine fundus

c)

Apply warm compress to abdomen

d)

Inspect for hematoma first

45.

A client continues heavy bleeding after birth. The nurse prepares an IV fluid bolus consistent with postpartum hemorrhage care. Which solution is appropriate?

a)

D5W as primary replacement

b)

0.45% sodium chloride

c)

Sterile water infusion

d)

Lactated Ringer’s or 0.9% sodium chloride

46.

A nurse prepares oxygen for a postpartum client with hemorrhage. Which oxygen delivery is expected?

a)

Nonrebreather mask at 10–15 L/min

b)

Nasal cannula at 2 L/min

c)

Simple face mask at 6 L/min

d)

Room air with incentive spirometer every hour

47.

A client has ongoing hemorrhage. Which nursing intervention supports perfusion to essential organs?

a)

Encourage standing

b)

Elevate the client’s legs 20°–30°

c)

Place in high Trendelenburg

d)

Keep legs flat

48.

Which action supports accurate ongoing assessment of kidney function during significant postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for accurate urinary output

b)

Encourage voiding every 8 hr

c)

Avoid catheterization

d)

Check urine color only

49.

A nurse notes a pad saturated in 15 minutes with bright red blood. This finding is most consistent with:

a)

Lochia alba

b)

Lochia serosa

c)

Postpartum hemorrhage pattern

d)

Normal lochia rubra only

50.

A provider orders medication for postpartum hemorrhage. Which medication is a uterine stimulant used to promote contractions?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Warfarin

c)

Heparin

d)

Oxytocin

51.

A nurse is monitoring a client receiving oxytocin for postpartum hemorrhage. Which adverse reaction must be monitored?

a)

Increased lochia alba

b)

Water intoxication findings that can progress to cerebral edema

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Vision loss

52.

A postpartum client has hemorrhage and a history of hypertension. Which medication should the nurse anticipate avoiding?

a)

Misoprostol

b)

Tranexamic acid

c)

Methylergonovine

d)

Carboprost

53.

A nurse plans to administer tranexamic acid for postpartum hemorrhage. When is it recommended?

a)

Within 3 hours of birth

b)

Between 6 and 12 hours after birth

c)

Only after 24 hours have passed

d)

Only before delivery begins

54.

Tranexamic acid is classified as which medication type in this content?

a)

Uterine stimulant

b)

Tocolytic

c)

Opioid analgesic

d)

Antifibrinolytic

55.

Which adverse effect concern is most associated with tranexamic acid?

a)

Severe diarrhea as primary risk

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Venous/arterial thrombosis

d)

Uterine inversion

56.

Which treatment is described as an intrauterine balloon placed inside the uterus?

a)

Uterine tamponade

b)

Type and crossmatch

c)

D&C

d)

Hysterectomy

57.

A postpartum client has a boggy uterus with increased bleeding. Which action is appropriate as part of uterine atony care?

a)

Encourage leg massage

b)

Ensure the urinary bladder is empty

c)

Avoid fundal assessment

d)

Express clots before the uterus is firm

58.

A nurse is about to express clots from the uterus. Which condition must be met first to avoid inversion risk?

a)

The uterus must remain boggy

b)

The lochia must be alba

c)

The uterus must be firmly contracted

d)

The client must be febrile

59.

A postpartum client has prolonged lochia with an enlarged, higher-than-expected uterus and irregular bleeding. Which condition is most consistent?

a)

Mastitis

b)

Subinvolution of the uterus

c)

DVT

d)

Endometritis

60.

A nurse suspects subinvolution related to infection. Which lab/collection is listed to check for infection/endometritis?

a)

Urine ketones

b)

INR

61.

Which provider procedure is listed to remove retained placental fragments when indicated in subinvolution?

a)

Splenectomy

b)

Dilation and curettage (D&C)

c)

Chest CT

d)

Embolectomy

62.

Which client activity supports uterine involution in subinvolution management?

a)

Bedrest with legs crossed

b)

Avoid voiding frequently

c)

Fluid restriction

d)

Early and frequent ambulation

63.

A placenta has not delivered within 30 minutes after birth. This is defined as:

a)

Retained placenta

b)

Subinvolution

c)

Uterine inversion

d)

Lochia rubra

64.

A postpartum client has retained placenta with continued bleeding. Which provider action is listed?

a)

Fundal massage only

b)

Manual separation and removal of placenta

c)

Stop all uterotonics permanently

d)

Apply ice packs to uterus

65.

Retained placenta can lead to uterine atony or subinvolution because it prevents the uterus from:

a)

Increasing lochia alba

b)

Producing milk

c)

Contracting effectively

d)

Lowering temperature

66.

A client has sudden hemorrhage and a large red rounded mass protruding outside the introitus. Which condition is suspected?

a)

Endometritis

b)

Uterine inversion

c)

Hematoma

d)

Subinvolution

67.

A client experiences uterine inversion while oxytocin is running. Which action is required?

a)

Stop oxytocin

b)

Increase the oxytocin infusion rate

c)

Apply firm fundal pressure

d)

Encourage ambulation

68.

After uterine replacement for inversion, which nursing action is specifically included?

a)

Encourage immediate vigorous ambulation

b)

Avoid aggressive fundal massage

c)

Perform aggressive fundal massage

d)

Avoid all oxytocics

69.

Which medication is listed to relax the uterus before the provider attempts replacement in uterine inversion?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Methylergonovine

c)

Terbutaline

d)

Misoprostol

70.

A postpartum client has heavy bleeding with a firm uterus. Which cause is most likely?

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Genital tract laceration

c)

Bladder distention only

d)

Normal lochia

71.

Which distinguishing finding supports hematoma rather than uterine atony?

a)

Saturated pad in 15 minutes

b)

Uterine enlargement above expected

c)

Pain rather than noticeable bleeding

d)

Boggy uterus

72.

A nurse suspects a postpartum hematoma. Which nursing action is expected?

a)

Inspect vulva/perineum/rectum for bluish bulging mass

b)

Encourage leg massage

c)

Avoid assessing pain

d)

Perform chest physiotherapy

73.

A client has a small hematoma. Which intervention is listed?

a)

Immediate hysterectomy

b)

Ice packs

c)

Oral oxytocin

d)

Warm packs only

74.

A postpartum client has persistent bleeding and unusual oozing from injection sites. Which “T” of the 4 T’s is most consistent?

a)

Tone

b)

Tissue

c)

Trauma

d)

Thrombin

75.

A nurse anticipates a lab priority for suspected coagulopathy with hemorrhage. Which is most appropriate?

a)

Lipid panel

b)

Type and crossmatch

c)

Hemoglobin A1c

d)

Stool guaiac

76.

A postpartum client with suspected DIC is at risk for internal/external bleeding and organ damage from microclots. Which nursing focus is emphasized?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Avoid IV access

c)

Strict fluid restriction

d)

Correct the underlying cause

77.

A postpartum client with infection has worsening condition despite initial interventions. Which action is most appropriate?

a)

Delay provider notification until next vitals

b)

Report signs of worsening condition immediately

c)

Stop antibiotics

d)

Encourage warm baths only

78.

Which postpartum infection can occur as early as the 7th postpartum day and is usually unilateral?

a)

Endometritis

b)

UTI

c)

Mastitis

d)

Wound infection

79.

Which finding is expected in puerperal infection monitoring?

a)

HR below 40/min

b)

Temperature at least 38°C for 2+ consecutive days

c)

Lochia alba on day 1

d)

Blood glucose drop

80.

A client has a wound infection with separation of incision edges. Which term matches this finding?

a)

Evisceration

b)

Uterine atony

c)

Wound dehiscence

d)

Lochia rubra

81.

A wound infection progresses and internal contents protrude through separated wound edges. Which term applies?

a)

Dehiscence

b)

Evisceration

c)

Hematoma

d)

Seroma

82.

A nurse is providing infection prevention teaching for perineal care. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Change pads front-to-back

b)

Cleanse back-to-front

c)

Use tampons postpartum

d)

Change pads back-to-front

83.

A client has heavy bleeding at 4 weeks postpartum with return to bright red bleeding after progressing. Which type of hemorrhage is most consistent?

a)

Normal lochia alba

b)

Early postpartum hemorrhage

c)

Late postpartum hemorrhage

d)

Postpartum leukocytosis

84.

A postpartum client has hemorrhage and the fundus is firm and midline. Which immediate assessment is priority?

a)

Administer tocolytics

b)

Inspect for lacerations/hematomas

c)

Restrict fluids

d)

Encourage ambulation

85.

A nurse suspects tissue as the cause of hemorrhage. Which finding supports this?

a)

Unilateral calf warmth

b)

Boggy uterus only

c)

Return of lochia rubra after progression to serosa/alba

d)

Breast erythema

86.

Which intervention is appropriate when postpartum bleeding persists and the cause is suspected coagulopathy?

a)

Encourage leg massage

b)

Focus on correcting the underlying cause and replacing volume/blood products as prescribed

c)

Continue to stimulate contractions only

d)

Restrict oxygen therapy

87.

A postpartum client with suspected infection is prescribed antibiotics. Which instruction is essential?

a)

Take antibiotics only if pain is severe

b)

Stop antibiotics when afebrile

c)

Complete the full course of antibiotics

d)

Avoid all fluids

88.

A postpartum client with mastitis asks about bra choice. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Wear a supportive, well‑fitting bra that does not constrict the breasts

b)

Avoid wearing any bra to promote drainage

c)

Choose a tight underwire bra to reduce swelling

d)

Use a compression sports bra continuously to limit milk flow

89.

A postpartum client has a UTI and asks what to do about perineal hygiene. Which teaching is correct?

a)

Wipe front-to-back

b)

Wipe back-to-front

c)

Skip hygiene if sore

d)

Use scented sprays heavily

90.

A postpartum client has severe bleeding and the provider requests blood availability. Which action is expected?

a)

Obtain D-dimer only

b)

Obtain ESR only

c)

Obtain a type and crossmatch

d)

Obtain urinalysis only

91.

A postpartum client has suspected infection and needs evaluation for organism identification. Which is appropriate?

a)

Blood/intracervical/intrauterine bacterial cultures as prescribed

b)

ECG only

c)

Peak flow

92.

A nurse identifies a client at high risk for postpartum infection based on which history?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Prolonged labor

c)

Early discharge

d)

No vaginal exams after ROM

93.

A postpartum client has a fever pattern consistent with postpartum infection criteria. Which pattern requires further investigation?

a)

37.2°C on day 1

b)

37.8°C once after birth

c)

Fever ≥38°C after first 24 hr, or for 2 days during first 10 days postpartum

d)

36.8°C on day 2

94.

A postpartum client with hemorrhage is receiving ongoing assessment. Which action supports identifying the bleeding source?

a)

Stop all assessments once uterotonics are given

b)

Assess fundus, lochia, and inspect for lacerations/hematomas

c)

Avoid perineal inspection

d)

Limit vital signs

95.

A postpartum client with suspected subinvolution is being monitored. Which assessment is expected?

a)

Monitor peak flow hourly

b)

Monitor pupillary response

c)

Monitor lochia for color, amount, consistency, and odor

d)

Monitor only temperature once daily

96.

A postpartum client has suspected genital tract trauma. Which finding supports this more than uterine atony?

a)

Boggy uterus that firms with massage

b)

Firm uterus with continuous bright red trickle

c)

Afterpains during breastfeeding

d)

Lateral displacement from bladder distention only

97.

A postpartum client has an infection risk and asks what the nurse does to reduce microorganism spread. Which response aligns with care?

a)

Use aseptic technique, proper hand hygiene, and don gloves

b)

Use scented products to mask odor

c)

Delay antibiotics until day 7

d)

Avoid gloves to reduce irritation

98.

A postpartum client has suspected wound infection that may require provider intervention. Which procedure might be needed?

a)

Kegel exercises

b)

Incision and drainage of the wound

c)

Aromatherapy to reduce stress

d)

Warm compresses only without assessment

99.

A postpartum client has mastitis and asks what to report to the provider. Which is correct?

a)

Mild fatigue only

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Only milk leakage

d)

Redness and fever

100.

A client with postpartum UTI is reviewing discharge teaching. Which statement shows understanding?

a)

“I’ll drink large amounts of fluids to help flush bacteria.”

b)

“I’ll stop antibiotics when I feel better.”

c)

“I’ll wipe back-to-front to avoid discomfort.”

d)

“I’ll avoid fluids to reduce frequency.”