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2205 Exam 2 OT pt.2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse notes a baseline FHR of 90 bpm lasting 4 minutes immediately after the client is repositioned supine for a vaginal exam. Which cause is most likely?

a)

Maternal hypotension from aortocaval compression

b)

Fetal sleep cycle

c)

Maternal hyperventilation

d)

Normal fetal adaptation to contractions

2.

A client’s membranes rupture spontaneously and the FHR suddenly drops to 70 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Apply oxygen via nonrebreather mask

b)

Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess for cord prolapse

c)

Increase IV oxytocin to shorten labor

d)

Prepare the client for epidural placement

3.

Which fetal presentation is most strongly associated with the denominator “mentum”?

a)

Vertex

b)

Breech

c)

Face

d)

Shoulder

4.

A newborn is delivered by cesarean birth. Which complication is the nurse most concerned about in the immediate newborn period?

a)

Hyperbilirubinemia from bruising

b)

Post-term dysmaturity

c)

Facial nerve palsy

d)

Transient tachypnea/respiratory distress

5.

Which forceps-related newborn finding requires the most urgent follow-up?

a)

Skull fracture or signs of intracranial hemorrhage

b)

Mild facial bruising

c)

Temporary molding

d)

Caput succedaneum

6.

A client receives an epidural and becomes pale with BP 78/40. FHR shows recurrent late decelerations. What is the nurse’s best first action?

a)

Notify anesthesia and prepare ephedrine immediately

b)

Turn the client to a lateral position and increase IV fluids per protocol

c)

Encourage the client to push with each contraction

d)

Discontinue fetal monitoring to reduce stress

7.

Which screening test is typically performed at 36–37 weeks to guide intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis?

a)

Rubella titer

b)

1-hour glucose screen

c)

Group B Streptococcus culture

d)

Quad screen

8.

Which tracing meets Category III criteria?

a)

Moderate variability with occasional variable decelerations

b)

Minimal variability with accelerations after stimulation

c)

Marked variability without decelerations

d)

Absent variability with recurrent late decelerations

9.

Which fetal heart rate variability is most reassuring for fetal well-being at the time of observation?

a)

Moderate variability

b)

Absent variability

c)

Minimal variability

d)

Marked variability with recurrent lates

10.

A client is receiving oxytocin. The nurse counts 6 contractions in 10 minutes averaged over 30 minutes. How should the nurse document this pattern?

a)

Normal uterine activity

b)

Tachysystole

c)

Hypertonic dysfunction

d)

Hypotonic labor

11.

A nurse palpates contractions lasting 95 seconds with only 20 seconds of relaxation between them. What fetal risk is most concerning?

a)

Decreased uteroplacental perfusion and fetal hypoxemia

b)

Increased fetal oxygenation from stronger contractions

c)

Reduced risk of cord compression

d)

Improved labor progress without complications

12.

A client is 5 cm dilated and requests “something to speed this up.” Which teaching about oxytocin infusion is most important?

a)

Oxytocin is given as an IV push for rapid delivery

b)

Oxytocin eliminates the need for fetal monitoring

c)

Oxytocin is titrated carefully because too-frequent contractions can reduce fetal oxygenation

d)

Oxytocin is safest when the client remains supine

13.

A nurse notes decreased FHR variability after IV opioid administration. Which explanation is most likely?

a)

Medication-related CNS depression

b)

Placental abruption

c)

Umbilical cord prolapse

d)

Uterine rupture

14.

Which situation is a common reason for transient minimal variability that is NOT immediately pathologic?

a)

Uterine rupture

b)

Placental separation

c)

Fetal sleep cycle

d)

Sustained fetal hypoxia

15.

Which contraction pattern most supports uterine tachysystole?

a)

4 contractions in 10 minutes, lasting 45–60 seconds

b)

5 contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over 30 minutes

c)

6 contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over 30 minutes

d)

Contractions every 5 minutes with moderate intensity

16.

A client is in active labor. Which finding best supports this stage?

a)

Cervix 1–2 cm, irregular contractions, no cervical change

b)

Cervix 4–7 cm with progressive dilation and stronger regular contractions

c)

Cervix 0–3 cm with mild contractions that stop with hydration

d)

Cervix 8–10 cm with involuntary pushing

17.

Which documentation correctly records dilation/effacement/station?

a)

6/80/+1

b)

80/6/+1

c)

+1/6/80

d)

6/+1/80

18.

Which station indicates the presenting part is level with the ischial spines?

a)

+2

b)

-2

c)

0

d)

+1

19.

Which finding best indicates true labor rather than false labor?

a)

Contractions decrease with walking

b)

Cervical change with regular contractions

c)

Contractions stop after a warm shower

d)

Pain is felt only in the abdomen

20.

A client is admitted with contractions every 2 minutes and minimal relaxation. FHR shows recurrent late decelerations. What is the priority nursing intervention sequence?

a)

Apply oxygen first, then increase oxytocin

b)

Stop oxytocin, reposition laterally, give IV bolus, and notify provider if unresolved

c)

Encourage pushing to shorten labor, then reassess

d)

Perform amniotomy to speed delivery

21.

The nurse identifies an overt umbilical cord prolapse. What must the nurse do continuously until birth?

a)

Manually elevate the presenting part off the cord

b)

Clamp and cut the cord immediately

c)

Apply firm fundal pressure to move the fetus down

d)

Place the client flat supine and wait for the provider

22.

Which intervention is contraindicated in cord prolapse management?

a)

Knee-chest or Trendelenburg positioning

b)

Manual elevation of presenting part

c)

Calling for immediate assistance/rapid delivery

d)

Handling or compressing the cord

23.

A fetus is in a breech presentation. Which breech type has the highest cord prolapse risk after rupture of membranes?

a)

Frank breech

b)

Complete breech

c)

Footling breech

d)

Kneeling breech

24.

Which fetal position documentation is correct for a vertex fetus with occiput as the denominator?

a)

LSA

b)

LOA

c)

LMA

d)

LST

25.

A nurse is preparing for amniotomy. Which finding is most important to reduce cord prolapse risk?

a)

Presenting part is engaged (0 station or lower)

b)

Client is 1 cm dilated

c)

FHR baseline is 170 bpm

d)

Client has mild back pain

26.

Immediately after amniotomy, which assessment is the priority?

a)

Maternal temperature

b)

FHR pattern

c)

Maternal bowel sounds

d)

Maternal rubella immunity

27.

Which client is the best candidate for intermittent auscultation instead of continuous electronic fetal monitoring?

a)

Low-risk client with reassuring FHR and no complications

b)

VBAC trial of labor

c)

Oxytocin induction

d)

Meconium-stained fluid

28.

Which fetal heart tracing finding is most consistent with uteroplacental insufficiency?

a)

Early decelerations

b)

Variable decelerations with “shoulders”

c)

Accelerations with movement

d)

Late decelerations

29.

A nurse identifies Category III tracing. What is the priority nursing response?

a)

Initiate intrauterine resuscitation and prepare to expedite birth if unresolved

b)

Document and continue routine monitoring

c)

Discontinue monitoring to reduce artifact

d)

Encourage ambulation to improve labor progress

30.

Which maternal condition is a common cause of fetal bradycardia?

a)

Maternal fever

b)

Maternal hypotension

c)

Maternal mild anxiety

d)

Maternal rubella nonimmune status

31.

A fetus develops sudden bradycardia after rupture of membranes. Which complication must the nurse suspect first?

a)

Umbilical cord prolapse or acute cord compression

b)

Fetal sleep cycle

c)

Normal head compression

d)

Post-term placental aging

32.

During Leopold maneuvers, which finding most clearly confirms a cephalic (vertex) presentation?

a)

Hard, round, ballotable structure palpated in the fundus

b)

Small, irregular fetal parts felt in the lower uterus

c)

Broad, soft buttocks felt in the fundus

d)

No fetal parts are palpable

33.

Which forceps-related newborn complication is most concerning?

a)

Facial nerve palsy

b)

Mild bruising

c)

Transient molding

d)

Slight jaundice risk

34.

A nurse is teaching a client about risks/benefits of operative vaginal delivery. Which maternal complication is most appropriate to include?

a)

Genital tract trauma and increased postpartum pain/bleeding

b)

Decreased risk of perineal trauma

c)

Guaranteed shorter postpartum recovery than cesarean

d)

Elimination of fetal monitoring needs

35.

Which finding is most consistent with vacuum extraction-related caput succedaneum?

a)

Scalp swelling that crosses suture lines

b)

Subperiosteal swelling that does not cross suture lines

c)

Bulging anterior fontanel from increased ICP

d)

Absent Moro reflex from spinal injury

36.

A client requests pain medication and receives an opioid. Which maternal adverse reaction is the highest priority for the nurse to monitor?

a)

Nausea

b)

Urinary retention

c)

Pruritus

d)

Respiratory depression

37.

A client becomes somnolent with RR 8/min after opioid analgesia. Which medication does the nurse anticipate?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Terbutaline

c)

Methylergonovine

d)

Dinoprostone

38.

A client receives epidural anesthesia. Which complication requires immediate intervention?

a)

Mild itching

b)

Hypotension with fetal late decelerations

c)

Temporary lower-extremity numbness

d)

Decreased urge to urinate

39.

Despite lateral positioning and IV bolus, hypotension persists after epidural placement. Which medication is commonly used per protocol to support blood pressure?

a)

Ephedrine (vasopressor)

b)

Naloxone

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Dinoprostone

40.

Which client would generally NOT be an appropriate candidate for epidural/spinal anesthesia?

a)

Client with thrombocytopenia/coagulopathy

b)

Client requesting pain relief in active labor

c)

Client with reassuring fetal tracing

d)

Client with intact membranes

41.

A client attempting VBAC reports sudden severe abdominal pain and the nurse notes loss of fetal station with fetal bradycardia. What is the priority action?

a)

Activate emergency response and prepare for emergent cesarean

b)

Begin intermittent auscultation

c)

Encourage pushing to speed delivery

d)

Increase oxytocin to strengthen contractions

42.

Which statement best reflects VBAC candidate criteria teaching?

a)

Any prior uterine scar is acceptable for VBAC

b)

VBAC is safest when induction with prostaglandins is routine

c)

A prior low transverse uterine incision is generally the most favorable scar type

d)

Continuous fetal monitoring is never necessary

43.

A nurse is preparing a client for an uncomplicated birth. Which intervention is most appropriate in early labor?

a)

Encourage hydration, position changes, and coping techniques while monitoring maternal/fetal status

b)

Encourage closed-glottis pushing with each contraction

c)

Keep the client supine to maintain a steady tracing

d)

Limit education until after delivery

44.

A client is in second stage of labor. Which finding indicates progress toward birth?

a)

Crowning

b)

Cervix 6 cm dilated

c)

Placenta delivered

d)

Fundus firm and midline

45.

A client is in third stage of labor. What is the nurse primarily anticipating?

a)

Delivery of the placenta

b)

Full cervical dilation

c)

Onset of regular contractions

d)

Fetal head engagement

46.

A client is in the fourth stage of labor. Which nursing assessment is the priority focus?

a)

Hemorrhage and uterine tone (fundus/lochia)

b)

Fetal presentation

c)

Cervical dilation trend

d)

Maternal rubella status

47.

A postpartum client has a boggy fundus with heavy lochia. What is the nurse’s best first action?

a)

Massage the fundus and assess for bladder distention/assist to void

b)

Place the client prone and reassess later

c)

Withhold uterotonic meds until provider arrives

d)

Encourage the client to ambulate immediately

48.

Fundus is firm but bleeding remains heavy and bright red. What is the priority concern?

a)

Genital tract laceration

b)

Normal lochia rubra

c)

Maternal dehydration

d)

Expected “afterpains”

49.

A client’s baseline FHR is 175 for 12 minutes. How should the nurse document this?

a)

Fetal tachycardia

b)

Moderate variability

c)

Fetal bradycardia

d)

Sinusoidal pattern

50.

Which is the best example of a cause of fetal bradycardia requiring immediate nursing intervention?

a)

Maternal supine hypotension syndrome

b)

Normal fetal movement

c)

Maternal mild hunger

d)

Fetal hiccups

51.

Which is a common reason for loss of variability the nurse should consider first when the client recently received systemic analgesia?

a)

Medication effect

b)

Uterine rupture

c)

Placental abruption

d)

Cord prolapse

52.

A nurse must determine baseline FHR. Which method is correct?

a)

Average the FHR over a 10-minute window, excluding accelerations/decelerations and rounding to the nearest 5 bpm

b)

Average over 2 minutes including the lowest deceleration

c)

Use the maternal pulse if the tracing is unclear

d)

Use the lowest value over 10 minutes

53.

The nurse is evaluating a Category III tracing. Which intrauterine resuscitation measure is generally first-line?

a)

Maternal repositioning (side-lying)

b)

Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask

c)

Increase oxytocin infusion

d)

Begin pushing to expedite delivery

54.

A client on oxytocin develops tachysystole with recurrent late decelerations. Which action is the priority?

a)

Increase oxytocin to shorten labor

b)

Stop/reduce oxytocin and begin intrauterine resuscitation

c)

Perform amniotomy immediately

d)

Encourage Valsalva pushing

55.

A nurse is teaching a client about oxytocin. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

“My contractions can become too frequent, so the dose is adjusted while monitoring the baby.”

b)

“Once oxytocin starts, it cannot be stopped.”

c)

“Oxytocin means I won’t need fetal monitoring.”

d)

“Oxytocin is given as a single injection.”

56.

Which fetal presentation is most compatible with uncomplicated vaginal delivery?

a)

Shoulder presentation

b)

Transverse lie

c)

Face with mentum posterior

d)

Vertex (cephalic)

57.

Which description best defines true labor?

a)

Regular contractions with progressive cervical change

b)

Irregular contractions relieved by hydration

c)

Contractions that stop with walking

d)

Pain only felt in the pelvis without contractions

58.

A client is 7 cm dilated with strong contractions and increasing bloody show. Which phase is most likely?

a)

Latent phase

b)

Active phase

c)

Transition phase

d)

Fourth stage

59.

Which sign most often precedes the onset of labor?

a)

Lightening with increased urinary frequency

b)

Sudden cessation of fetal movement

c)

Deep tendon reflex changes

d)

Immediate placental delivery

60.

A nurse suspects umbilical cord prolapse. Which fetal complication is the nurse trying to prevent with immediate interventions?

a)

Acute fetal hypoxia leading to acidemia

b)

Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia

c)

Congenital heart defect

d)

Meconium ileus

61.

Which finding most supports active labor rather than latent labor?

a)

Contractions regular with progressive cervical dilation around 4–7 cm

b)

Cervix 1–2 cm with irregular contractions

c)

No change in cervical status over time

d)

Contractions stop with sleep

62.

A nurse is assessing station. The presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. How is this documented?

a)

+2 station

b)

0 station

c)

-2 station

d)

+4 station

63.

A fetal heart tracing shows absent variability and recurrent variable decelerations. What is the best interpretation?

a)

Category III pattern requiring urgent evaluation/intervention

b)

Category I pattern that is normal

c)

Category II that needs no action

d)

A normal sleep cycle pattern

64.

Which finding is most consistent with a Category I tracing?

a)

Baseline 110–160 with moderate variability and no late or variable decelerations

b)

Absent variability with recurrent lates

c)

Sinusoidal pattern

d)

Persistent bradycardia

65.

Which complication is most associated with epidural anesthesia that can indirectly cause fetal distress?

a)

Maternal hypotension reducing uteroplacental perfusion

b)

Maternal hypertension causing placental abruption

c)

Maternal fever from infection at insertion site within minutes

d)

Maternal hypoglycemia from fasting

66.

A client receiving epidural anesthesia reports ringing in ears and metallic taste shortly after a test dose. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Continue monitoring; this is expected

b)

Stop infusion and notify anesthesia (possible local anesthetic systemic toxicity)

c)

Place client supine with legs flat

d)

Encourage oral fluids

67.

A nurse is preparing the client for amniotomy. Which statement is most appropriate to include in teaching?

a)

“We’ll monitor the baby’s heart rate right after your water is broken because the cord can slip down.”

b)

“After amniotomy, you won’t need any more cervical checks.”

c)

“This eliminates infection risk because fluid drains out.”

d)

“This guarantees a vaginal birth.”

68.

Which is the most appropriate nursing action when Category III persists despite repositioning and IV bolus?

a)

Prepare to expedite birth per provider direction (operative birth readiness)

b)

Continue expectant management for 2 hours

c)

Discontinue fetal monitoring for comfort

d)

Encourage ambulation

69.

Which fetal complication is a risk from cesarean birth related to delivery mechanics?

a)

Fetal laceration or trauma during uterine incision

b)

Neonatal clavicle fracture from shoulder dystocia

c)

Cephalohematoma from vacuum cup

d)

Facial bruising from forceps

70.

A nurse notes recurrent decelerations and suspects cord compression. Which intervention is most targeted first?

a)

Maternal repositioning

b)

Immediate prostaglandin insertion

c)

Apply fundal pressure

71.

Which statement best describes a primary goal of continuous EFM in a high-risk labor?

a)

Early detection of fetal hypoxemia patterns to guide timely interventions

b)

Guarantee of preventing cesarean birth

c)

Replacement of maternal vital sign monitoring

d)

Elimination of need for nursing reassessment

72.

A client is scheduled for induction. Which is a primary indication for dinoprostone?

a)

Cervical ripening when the cervix is unfavorable

b)

Treating postpartum hemorrhage

c)

Reversing opioid respiratory depression

d)

Treating uterine tachysystole

73.

After dinoprostone placement, the client develops tachysystole with a nonreassuring FHR. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Discontinue/remove dinoprostone per policy and begin intrauterine resuscitation

b)

Encourage ambulation to “work it out”

c)

Begin pushing

d)

Place client supine to stabilize tracing

74.

Which contraction characteristic best supports adequate relaxation between contractions?

a)

Resting tone remains elevated with no return to baseline

b)

60–90 second contraction with 2–3 minutes of relaxation

c)

Continuous uterine tightening without softening

d)

Contractions every 1 minute for 40 seconds

75.

A nurse suspects tachysystole in a client receiving oxytocin. Which assessment is most important for fetal status?

a)

FHR category and variability

b)

Maternal rubella immunity

c)

Maternal fundal height

d)

Maternal bowel movements

76.

Which cause of fetal bradycardia is most consistent with a sudden change right after regional anesthesia placement?

a)

Maternal hypotension

b)

Fetal anemia

c)

Fetal sleep

d)

Maternal hyperglycemia

77.

Which newborn complication is associated with forceps delivery more than vacuum extraction?

a)

Facial nerve palsy/ocular trauma risk

b)

Caput succedaneum crossing suture lines

c)

Scalp abrasion from cup placement

d)

Subgaleal hemorrhage only

78.

A client is being evaluated for VBAC. Which risk must be emphasized as the reason for continuous assessment and readiness for emergent intervention?

a)

Uterine rupture

b)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

c)

Shoulder dystocia is guaranteed

d)

Placenta previa is inevitable

79.

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when the client is in active labor and coping is deteriorating?

a)

Provide continuous support, reassess pain plan, encourage position changes, and maintain hydration as ordered

b)

Stop fetal monitoring to reduce anxiety

c)

Restrict all movement

d)

Delay assessments unless the client requests

80.

A nurse notes “LOA” in the chart. What does this mean?

a)

Left occiput anterior

b)

Left oblique attitude

c)

Left outlet engaged

d)

Left occiput above

81.

Which action is most appropriate when fetal bradycardia occurs and cord prolapse is suspected but not yet confirmed?

a)

Perform vaginal exam to assess for cord and relieve compression if present

b)

Begin CST

c)

Delay assessment until provider arrives

d)

Encourage immediate pushing

82.

Which is an expected nursing action when preparing a client for an uncomplicated birth in the first stage?

a)

Encourage the client to hold breath and push with every contraction

b)

Provide education, support coping, monitor contractions/FHR, and limit unnecessary vaginal exams

c)

Keep the client NPO and supine to maintain a tracing

d)

Discontinue IV access to reduce infection risk

83.

Which finding most strongly suggests the client is entering transition?

a)

Dilation 8–10 cm with intense contractions and pressure/urge to push

b)

Dilation 2 cm with mild irregular contractions

c)

Dilation 4 cm with mild discomfort

d)

No cervical change for 6 hours

84.

A nurse observes a client in labor with contractions that are strong but cervical dilation stops and the uterus remains firm between contractions. Which complication is most likely?

a)

Hypertonic uterine dysfunction

b)

Hypotonic labor pattern

c)

Normal latent phase

d)

Precipitous labor

85.

Which sign preceding labor is most consistent with cervical changes and mucus plug release?

a)

Bloody show

b)

Polyuria

c)

Hyperreflexia

d)

Persistent vomiting

86.

A nurse is assessing fetal presentation during labor. Which presentation is least compatible with vaginal birth if persistent at term?

a)

Vertex

b)

Transverse lie

c)

Frank breech

d)

Complete breech

87.

Which “reason for loss of variability” is most concerning when paired with recurrent late decelerations?

a)

Fetal acidemia/hypoxia

b)

Fetal sleep cycle

c)

Recent opioid administration

88.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin. Which finding requires the nurse to intervene immediately?

a)

Contractions every 2 minutes with minimal resting time and Category II tracing

b)

Contractions every 4 minutes with moderate variability

c)

Baseline 140 with accelerations

d)

Cervix dilating steadily

89.

Which client is most appropriate for continuous electronic fetal monitoring rather than intermittent auscultation?

a)

Client receiving oxytocin augmentation

b)

Low-risk spontaneous labor client with reassuring status

c)

Client in early labor walking with no risk factors

d)

Client requesting minimal interventions

90.

A client has an epidural and cannot feel the urge to void. What nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Assess bladder distention and anticipate catheterization per policy

b)

Encourage unassisted ambulation to the bathroom

c)

Restrict all IV fluids immediately

d)

Delay voiding assessment until postpartum

91.

Which newborn assessment is most urgent after a difficult forceps delivery?

a)

Neurologic status and signs of trauma/bleeding

b)

Number of wet diapers

c)

Lanugo distribution

d)

Timing of first bath

92.

Which fetal complication from cesarean birth is most associated with delayed fluid clearance from lungs?

a)

Transient tachypnea of the newborn

b)

Meconium aspiration syndrome

c)

Necrotizing enterocolitis

d)

Omphalocele

93.

Which statement by a client about oxytocin infusion needs immediate correction?

a)

“If the baby looks stressed, you can turn down or stop the oxytocin.”

b)

“I’ll be monitored closely while I’m on it.”

c)

“More oxytocin always makes labor safer and better.”

d)

“Too many contractions can reduce oxygen to the baby.”

94.

A nurse suspects cord prolapse. Which maternal position is commonly used to reduce cord compression while awaiting delivery?

a)

Knee-chest or Trendelenburg (per protocol)

b)

Flat supine

c)

High Fowler’s

d)

Lithotomy with legs down

95.

Which finding supports “fetal presentation: shoulder”?

a)

Scapula is the presenting landmark

b)

Occiput is the presenting landmark

c)

Sacrum is the presenting landmark

d)

Mentum is the presenting landmark

96.

Which complication related to labor most directly increases risk for fetal hypoxemia by decreasing time for placental refill?

a)

Uterine tachysystole

b)

Bloody show

c)

Lightening

d)

Engagement

97.

A nurse is assessing pain management complications. Which symptom is most concerning after regional anesthesia?

a)

Difficulty breathing and rapidly dropping blood pressure

b)

Mild shivering

c)

Mild nausea

d)

Warm sensation in legs

98.

After an uncomplicated vaginal birth, which immediate nursing action best supports safe newborn transition?

a)

Dry thoroughly and assess respirations/airway while maintaining warmth

b)

Bathe immediately

c)

Delay all assessments for 2 hours

d)

Feed before respiratory assessment

99.

A client asks why fetal monitoring continues during oxytocin induction. What is the best response?

a)

“Oxytocin can cause contractions too close together, which can lower oxygen to the baby, so we watch the tracing.”

b)

“Monitoring is required only for insurance.”

c)

“Monitoring replaces checking your vital signs.”

d)

“If the tracing looks abnormal, we always keep oxytocin running.”

100.

Which assessment finding best indicates the placenta has separated in the third stage?

a)

Sudden gush of blood with lengthening of the umbilical cord and a firm, rising uterus

b)

Cervix is 10 cm

c)

FHR baseline is 120

d)

Membranes remain intact