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Metformin and Sulfonylureas (Glipizide/Glyburide) Worksheet

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Metformin primarily works by:

a)

Stimulating insulin secretion

b)

Decreasing hepatic glucose production

c)

Increasing carbohydrate absorption

d)

Promoting glycogen breakdown

2.

Which condition requires metformin to be held?

a)

Before receiving IV contrast dye

b)

During hypoglycemia

c)

After exercise

d)

With insulin therapy

3.

The nurse should monitor which lab in a client taking metformin?

a)

Serum calcium

b)

Serum potassium

c)

Serum creatinine

d)

Serum sodium

4.

Glipizide lowers blood glucose by:

a)

Stimulating pancreatic insulin secretion

b)

Decreasing carbohydrate absorption

c)

Reducing insulin resistance

d)

Increasing glucose excretion

5.

A client on glyburide reports dizziness and sweating. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Give a glass of orange juice

b)

Administer sliding-scale insulin

c)

Check urine ketones

d)

Give metformin

6.

What teaching is most important for a client taking glipizide?

a)

“Avoid alcohol to prevent adverse reactions.”

b)

“Take it at bedtime.”

c)

“Increase fiber intake.”

d)

“Expect mild diarrhea.”

7.

When should a client take nateglinide?

a)

At bedtime

b)

30 minutes before a meal

c)

On an empty stomach before fasting

d)

Immediately after meals

8.

Which instruction is essential for clients taking meglitinides?

a)

“Skip the dose if you skip a meal.”

b)

“Take it only in the morning.”

c)

“Always take with a protein snack.”

d)

“Avoid carbohydrates after taking it.”

9.

The nurse explains that acarbose works by:

a)

Stimulating insulin release

b)

Slowing carbohydrate absorption in the intestine

c)

Decreasing glucose excretion

d)

Enhancing insulin sensitivity

10.

Which side effect is most common with alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?

a)

Constipation

b)

Gas and bloating

c)

Dizziness

d)

Weight gain

11.

When teaching a client about acarbose, the nurse should say:

a)

Take it with the first bite of each meal.

b)

Take it one hour before eating.

c)

Take it at bedtime.

d)

Skip the dose if eating dessert.

12.

The nurse monitors a client on pioglitazone for which condition?

a)

Heart failure

b)

Hypoglycemia

13.

Pioglitazone improves glucose control by:

a)

Stimulating pancreatic insulin release

b)

Increasing insulin sensitivity

c)

Decreasing glucose absorption

d)

Promoting glucose excretion

14.

A patient taking pioglitazone should be instructed to report:

a)

Weight loss

b)

Shortness of breath and swelling

c)

Headache

d)

Constipation

15.

Sitagliptin lowers blood sugar by:

a)

Slowing glucose absorption

b)

Increasing insulin and decreasing glucagon release

c)

Enhancing hepatic glucose output

d)

Increasing urine glucose excretion

16.

Which serious adverse effect can occur with sitagliptin?

a)

Pancreatitis

b)

Heart failure

c)

Renal failure

d)

Anemia

17.

Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to hold sitagliptin and notify the provider?

a)

Fever

b)

Abdominal pain radiating to the back

c)

Polyuria

d)

Dry mouth

18.

The nurse knows SGLT2 inhibitors lower glucose by:

a)

Reducing insulin resistance

b)

Increasing urinary glucose excretion

c)

Enhancing pancreatic beta cell activity

d)

Blocking glucagon receptors

19.

Which side effect is associated with canagliflozin?

a)

Yeast infection

b)

Constipation

c)

Vision changes

d)

Tremors

20.

Which finding is most concerning for a client on an SGLT2 inhibitor?

a)

Increased urination

b)

Dizziness and hypotension

c)

Mild thirst

d)

Fatigue

21.

GLP-1 receptor agonists lower glucose by:

a)

Increasing insulin and decreasing glucagon

b)

Blocking carbohydrate absorption

c)

Decreasing insulin sensitivity

d)

Increasing glycogen breakdown

22.

Which common benefit of semaglutide should the nurse include in teaching?

a)

Weight gain prevention

b)

Weight loss and satiety

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Reduced urine output

23.

Which adverse effect of liraglutide requires immediate reporting?

a)

Headache

b)

Abdominal pain radiating to back

c)

Constipation

d)

Metallic taste

24.

Pramlintide primarily acts to:

a)

Increase insulin secretion

b)

Slow gastric emptying and reduce glucagon release

c)

Increase glucose absorption

d)

Stimulate liver glycogen breakdown

25.

When giving pramlintide with insulin, what is the major risk?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hyperglycemia

26.

Which insulin should be given with meals?

a)

Lispro (Humalog)

b)

Glargine (Lantus)

c)

NPH

d)

Detemir (Levemir)

27.

A client receiving regular insulin should expect it to peak in:

a)

15 minutes

b)

2 to 3 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

No peak

28.

Which insulin has no defined peak and lasts up to 24 hours?

a)

NPH

b)

Glargine (Lantus)

c)

Regular

d)

Lispro

29.

The nurse explains that NPH insulin peaks between:

a)

1–2 hours

b)

4–12 hours

c)

16–24 hours

d)

30 minutes

30.

When mixing NPH and Regular insulin, which is drawn first?

a)

NPH

b)

Regular

c)

Either order

d)

Depends on syringe type

31.

The nurse identifies hypoglycemia by which finding?

a)

Fruity breath

b)

Diaphoresis and tremors

c)

Deep Kussmaul respirations

d)

Dry mucous membranes

32.

Which insulin complication causes fruity breath and Kussmaul respirations?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

DKA

c)

HHS

d)

Hypercalcemia

33.

What is the “Rule of 15” for hypoglycemia?

a)

Give 15 g of fast carbs, recheck in 15 min

b)

Give 15 units insulin

c)

Give 15 g protein

d)

Recheck in 30 min

34.

The nurse should rotate insulin injection sites primarily to prevent:

a)

Skin bruising

b)

Lipohypertrophy

c)

Infection

d)

Poor absorption

35.

Which drug combination increases risk for hypoglycemia?

a)

Insulin and glipizide

b)

Metformin and pioglitazone

c)

Pioglitazone and sitagliptin

d)

Metformin and canagliflozin

36.

Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?

a)

Regular (Humulin R)

b)

NPH (Humulin N)

c)

Lispro (Humalog)

37.

A nurse administers Lispro (Humalog) at 8:00 AM. When should the nurse ensure the client begins eating?

a)

Within 15 minutes

b)

Within 1 hour

c)

After blood sugar drops

d)

2 hours after injection

38.

The nurse prepares to give Regular insulin at 7:30 AM. When should the nurse expect the insulin to peak?

a)

A. 8:00–8:30 AM

b)

B. 9:30–10:30 AM

c)

C. 11:30 AM–12:00 PM

d)

D. 2:00 PM

39.

Which insulin is considered intermediate-acting?

a)

Regular (Humulin R)

b)

NPH (Humulin N)

c)

Lispro (Humalog)

d)

Glargine (Lantus)

40.

The nurse is aware that NPH insulin typically peaks:

a)

1–2 hours

b)

4–12 hours

c)

16–24 hours

d)

No peak

41.

Which insulin is long-acting and has no defined peak?

a)

A. Glargine (Lantus)

b)

B. NPH (Humulin N)

42.

What is the expected duration of action for insulin glargine (Lantus)?

a)

4–6 hours

b)

8–12 hours

c)

16–24 hours

d)

30 minutes

43.

The nurse is teaching a client about insulin detemir (Levemir). Which statement shows correct understanding?

a)

It will cover my meals.

b)

It provides basal control all day.

c)

I can mix it with regular insulin.

d)

It peaks around lunchtime.

44.

Which insulin cannot be mixed with any other insulin?

a)

Regular (Humulin R)

b)

NPH (Humulin N)

c)

Glargine (Lantus)

d)

Lispro (Humalog)

45.

The nurse prepares to mix NPH and Regular insulin. Which step is correct?

a)

Draw up NPH first

b)

Draw up Regular first

c)

Shake both vials

d)

Use separate syringes

46.

A nurse is teaching a client about insulin storage. Which statement is correct?

a)

Keep opened insulin at room temperature for 28 days.

b)

Freeze unused insulin.

47.

When teaching a client about insulin injection sites, which instruction is correct?

a)

A. “Rotate injection sites within the same anatomical area.”

b)

B. “Always use the same exact spot.”

c)

C. “Massage after injection to increase absorption.”

d)

D. “Inject into muscle for faster effect.”

48.

A client injects insulin into the thigh before exercising. What is the nurse’s best response?

a)

That’s a good site choice.

b)

Avoid using the thigh before exercise.

c)

You should inject into your arm only.

d)

Exercise doesn’t affect insulin absorption.

49.

Which insulin type is used in IV administration during DKA?

a)

NPH

b)

Regular (Humulin R)

c)

Lispro

d)

Glargine

50.

The nurse explains that insulin glargine (Lantus) provides:

a)

Short-term meal coverage

b)

Basal control for 24 hours

c)

Coverage for 4 hours only

d)

Immediate blood sugar lowering

51.

Which combination insulin contains both rapid- and intermediate-acting insulin?

a)

Novolog Mix 70/30

b)

Glargine

52.

The nurse knows the purpose of basal-bolus therapy is to:

a)

Use oral drugs to avoid insulin

b)

Mimic the body’s normal insulin pattern

c)

Prevent hypoglycemia completely

d)

Replace rapid-acting insulin

53.

A patient’s glucose drops to 58 mg/dL after taking insulin. What symptom does the nurse expect?

a)

Fruity breath

b)

Tremors and diaphoresis

c)

Deep respirations

d)

Flushed, dry skin

54.

Which teaching is correct for a patient using an insulin pen?

a)

“Prime the pen before each use.”

b)

“Shake the pen vigorously.”

c)

“Store it lying flat in sunlight.”

d)

“Use the same needle multiple times.”

55.

The nurse administers insulin at 8:00 AM and the client becomes diaphoretic and shaky at 9:30 AM. Which insulin is likely the cause?

a)

Lispro (Humalog)

b)

NPH

c)

Glargine

d)

Detemir

56.

Which action best prevents lipohypertrophy?

4 lines
57.

Which insulin would the nurse expect to give once daily at bedtime?

a)

Lantus (Glargine)

b)

Lispro

c)

Regular

d)

NPH

58.

The nurse educates a client to avoid injecting insulin into:

a)

The abdomen

b)

Areas with scar tissue or bruising

c)

The upper arm

d)

The thigh

59.

When drawing up mixed insulin doses, why is regular insulin drawn first?

a)

To prevent contamination of short-acting insulin

b)

To mix faster

c)

To ensure full absorption

d)

To maintain color consistency

60.

A patient’s blood sugar is 70 mg/dL before scheduled insulin. What should the nurse do?

a)

Hold insulin and notify provider

b)

Administer as ordered

c)

Give half the dose

d)

Give insulin after eating

61.

The nurse knows that skipping meals while taking insulin increases the risk for:

(a)  

62.

What is the onset time for Regular insulin?

a)

10–30 minutes

b)

30–60 minutes

c)

2 hours

d)

4 hours

63.

A patient receives NPH insulin at 7:00 AM. The nurse should monitor for hypoglycemia at:

a)

8:00 AM

b)

11:00 AM–3:00 PM

c)

5:00 PM

d)

Bedtime

64.

The nurse recognizes that premixed insulin (70/30) should be administered:

a)

1 hour before meals

b)

30 minutes before meals

c)

At bedtime

d)

Without regard to meals

65.

Which nursing action is appropriate when administering insulin to a hospitalized patient?

a)

Check blood glucose before each dose

b)

Skip if the patient is NPO without checking

c)

Use another nurse’s insulin syringe

d)

Give subcutaneously at any angle

66.

The nurse is teaching a client with type 2 diabetes about metformin (Glucophage). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

4 lines
67.

The nurse knows that glipizide (Glucotrol) lowers blood glucose by:

a)

Decreasing hepatic glucose production

b)

Stimulating insulin release from the pancreas

c)

Blocking carbohydrate absorption in the intestine

d)

Increasing glucose excretion through urine

68.

Which diabetes medication class increases insulin release, decreases glucagon, and decreases gluconeogenesis?

a)

Thiazolidinediones

b)

DPP-4 inhibitors

c)

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

d)

SGLT-2 inhibitors

69.

The nurse should monitor for which serious side effect in a patient taking pioglitazone (Actos)?

a)

Pancreatitis

b)

Heart failure and bladder cancer

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

Hypoglycemia

70.

A client prescribed acarbose (Precose) should be instructed to:

a)

Take the drug with the first bite of each meal

b)

Take it 1 hour before meals

c)

Take it at bedtime

d)

Skip a dose if eating more carbohydrates

71.

The nurse is teaching a client starting canagliflozin (Invokana). Which finding should the nurse emphasize to report to the provider?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Increased urination

c)

Burning on urination or vaginal itching

d)

Mild thirst

72.

A client on semaglutide (Rybelsus) reports persistent upper abdominal pain. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Encourage small, frequent meals

b)

Notify the healthcare provider

c)

Administer sliding-scale insulin

d)

Reassure that nausea is expected

73.

Which antidiabetic agent is injectable, slows gastric emptying, reduces glucagon, and increases satiety?

a)

Pramlintide (Symlin)

b)

Sitagliptin (Januvia)

c)

Metformin (Glucophage)

d)

Dapagliflozin (Farxiga)

74.

The nurse prepares to give regular insulin (Humulin R) at 7:00 AM before breakfast. When should the nurse anticipate hypoglycemia to be most likely?

a)

7:15–7:45 AM

b)

8:00–10:00 AM

c)

12:00–2:00 PM

d)

3:00–4:00 PM

75.

A patient taking NPH insulin at 7:00 AM is at greatest risk for hypoglycemia during which period?

a)

8–9 AM

b)

11 AM–3 PM

c)

4–6 PM

d)

Before bedtime

76.

Which insulin has no defined peak and a 24-hour duration, making it ideal for basal control?

a)

NPH

b)

Lispro (Humalog)

c)

Glargine (Lantus)

d)

Regular (Humulin R)

77.

The nurse knows that clients taking thiazide diuretics or corticosteroids may need:

a)

Increased insulin doses

b)

Decreased carbohydrate intake

c)

Smaller insulin doses

d)

Beta-blocker therapy

78.

The nurse monitors for hypoglycemia after giving which medication?

a)

Metformin

b)

Glipizide

c)

Pioglitazone

d)

Dapagliflozin

79.

A client with type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and dizzy after a morning run. Blood glucose is 58 mg/dL. Which nursing action is appropriate?

a)

Administer glucagon IM

b)

Provide 4 ounces of orange juice

c)

Recheck glucose in 30 minutes

d)

Call the provider immediately

80.

Which combination of diabetes medications can be used together safely?

a)

Metformin and glipizide

b)

Pioglitazone and insulin (avoid—fluid retention)

c)

Sitagliptin and canagliflozin (avoid—hypoglycemia)

d)

Metformin and contrast dye (hold for renal protection)

81.

The nurse is preparing to administer Lispro (Humalog) insulin at 7:30 AM. Breakfast trays are delayed. What should the nurse do?

a)

Administer insulin as scheduled

b)

Hold the dose until breakfast arrives

c)

Give half the dose now, half later

d)

Administer long-acting insulin instead

82.

A nurse instructs a client to mix NPH and Regular insulin in the same syringe. Which step should the nurse teach first?

a)

Inject air into the Regular insulin vial

b)

Withdraw Regular insulin first

c)

Withdraw NPH insulin first

d)

Roll both vials to mix and inject NPH last

83.

Which statement by a client using insulin glargine (Lantus) indicates correct understanding?

a)

I’ll mix it with my short-acting insulin to save injections.

b)

This insulin doesn’t have a peak, so I’m less likely to go low.

c)

I’ll take this insulin with my meals.

d)

I’ll adjust the dose based on my carbohydrate intake.

84.

A nurse reviews a new prescription for metformin in a client scheduled for CT with contrast dye tomorrow. What is the priority action?

a)

Continue metformin as ordered

b)

Hold metformin today and 48 hours after contrast

c)

Give an extra dose for renal protection

d)

Increase IV fluids after the scan

85.

A client taking Sitagliptin (Januvia) reports new onset of abdominal pain radiating to the back with nausea. What should the nurse suspect?

a)

Gallstones

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Gastritis

d)

Hypoglycemia

86.

The nurse is caring for a client taking Dulaglutide (Trulicity). Which instruction is most appropriate?

a)

Inject this medication right before meals.

b)

You may experience a feeling of fullness.

c)

If you miss a dose, take two next week.

d)

You can stop this medication once your sugars are normal.

87.

Which drug slows carbohydrate absorption and may cause gas and bloating?

a)

Pioglitazone (Actos)

b)

Acarbose (Precose)

c)

Empagliflozin (Jardiance)

d)

Glipizide (Glucotrol)

88.

Which statement is true regarding SGLT2 inhibitors such as Dapagliflozin (Farxiga)?

a)

They decrease glucose absorption in the gut

b)

They increase glucose excretion in the urine

c)

They stimulate pancreatic beta cells directly

d)

They cause hyperkalemia

89.

A client with Type 2 diabetes is prescribed Pioglitazone (Actos). The nurse should monitor closely for which adverse effect?

a)

Weight loss

b)

Fluid retention and edema

c)

Hypoglycemia after meals

d)

Tachycardia

90.

The nurse teaches a client about Semaglutide (Rybelsus). Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

This medication helps lower my appetite.

b)

I can take this with other oral diabetes medications.

c)

I’ll take this right after eating breakfast.

d)

This medication may help me lose some weight.

91.

The nurse should question which order for a client with chronic kidney disease?

a)

Glipizide

b)

Metformin

c)

Insulin glargine

d)

Sitagliptin

92.

A client receiving NPH insulin becomes diaphoretic and shaky at 2:00 PM. What is the likely cause?

a)

The insulin has peaked

b)

The insulin has worn off

c)

The dose was too small

d)

The client ate too much lunch

93.

The nurse teaches the “Rule of 15” for hypoglycemia. What is the correct first step?

a)

Eat 15 grams of protein

b)

Eat 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates

94.

A client with diabetes reports fatigue, fruity breath, and Kussmaul respirations. What medication deficiency likely contributed?

a)

Insulin

b)

Metformin

c)

Dapagliflozin

d)

Sitagliptin

95.

Which combination insulin has both rapid and intermediate components?

a)

Humulin 70/30

b)

Lantus

c)

Novolog

d)

Levemir

96.

The nurse reviews home insulin administration with a client. Which teaching point is most important to reduce lipohypertrophy?

a)

Store insulin at room temperature

b)

Rotate injection sites

c)

Use the same site each time

d)

Massage the area after injection

97.

A client on pramlintide (Symlin) and insulin is at greatest risk for:

a)

Weight gain

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Tachycardia

98.

The nurse should anticipate adding which medication for a patient whose A1C remains above 7% on metformin alone?

a)

Liraglutide (Victoza)

b)

Prednisone

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide

d)

Levothyroxine

99.

The nurse is reinforcing teaching for a patient starting Empagliflozin (Jardiance). Which side effect requires immediate reporting?

a)

Mild thirst

b)

Dizziness and hypotension

c)

Weight loss

d)

Increased urination

100.

A client taking Canagliflozin (Invokana) reports foot pain, swelling, and redness. What complication should the nurse suspect?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Urinary tract infection

c)

Possible infection or amputation risk

d)

Hypotension