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Worksheets

HESI 3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely during severe diarrhea in IBD?

a)

Hypermagnesemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Dehydration with electrolyte loss

d)

High calcium levels

2.

A client with UC is at risk for which long-term complication?

a)

Lung cancer

b)

Colorectal cancer

c)

Kidney cancer

d)

Bladder stones

3.

Which diagnostic test is used to evaluate inflammation in IBD?

a)

ESR and CRP

b)

BNP

c)

Troponin

d)

Hemoglobin A1C

4.

During a UC flare, the nurse should anticipate which bowel pattern?

a)

Watery stool with fat globules

b)

Clay-colored stool

c)

Frequent, bloody diarrhea

d)

Hard pellets

5.

A client with hepatitis develops pruritus. This is caused by:

a)

Low potassium

b)

Accumulation of bile salts

c)

Excess insulin

d)

Elevated platelets

6.

Which symptom indicates that a client with chronic hepatitis may be developing ascites?

4 lines
7.

In cholecystitis, the gallbladder may become filled with:

a)

Gastric acid

b)

Bile or pus

c)

Stool

d)

Ammonia

8.

A hallmark sign of gallbladder inflammation is:

a)

LUQ pain only

b)

RUQ pain after meals

c)

Black stool

d)

Pain relieved by fatty foods

9.

A client with pancreatitis shows decreased bowel sounds. This may indicate:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Paralytic ileus

c)

High motility

d)

Respiratory alkalosis only

10.

Which position may increase comfort for a client with peritonitis-like pain from pancreatitis?

a)

Supine with legs straight

b)

High Fowler’s only

c)

Knees flexed

d)

Prone with arms above head

11.

Inflammation management includes which pharmacologic category?

a)

Antidepressants

b)

Steroids

c)

Antivirals only

d)

Antiseptics

12.

During acute inflammation, vasodilation causes:

a)

Cool skin

b)

Decreased blood flow

c)

Redness and heat

d)

Loss of all WBC activity

13.

Which finding is consistent with fully developed acute inflammation?

a)

Pale, cool skin

b)

Edema and warmth

c)

Decreased WBC count

14.

A client with mobility limitations is at risk for which complication?

a)

Paralytic ileus and constipation

b)

Lung scarring only

c)

Kidney enlargement

d)

Increased bowel motility

15.

Immobility increases the risk for venous thromboembolism because:

a)

Veins become smaller

b)

Slowed venous return occurs

c)

Arteries constrict excessively

d)

Blood pressure rises

16.

Which order helps prevent VTE in an immobile client?

a)

Restrict fluids

b)

Ambulate 3 times per day

c)

High-sodium diet

d)

Remove SCDs while in bed

17.

In urinary retention, the bladder may appear:

a)

Flat and soft

b)

Distended and palpable

c)

Nonpalpable always

d)

Sunken inward

18.

A UTI in an older adult often presents with:

a)

Severe flank pain only

b)

Confusion or cognitive changes

c)

Vomiting only

d)

High fever exclusively

19.

Which behavior increases risk for UTI?

a)

Voiding after intercourse

b)

Wearing tight, non-breathable underwear

c)

Drinking 2 liters of water daily

d)

Wiping front to back

20.

The best prevention strategy for functional incontinence is:

a)

Timed toileting and easy access to the bathroom

b)

Restrict all fluids

c)

Use of diuretics at night

d)

Avoid mobility aids

21.

Which characteristic differentiates Crohn’s disease from ulcerative colitis?

a)

A) Inflammation limited to mucosal layer

b)

B) Continuous lesions through entire colon

c)

C) “Skip lesions” with segments of normal bowel between diseased areas

d)

D) Diarrhea always without pain

22.

Which bowel disease is limited only to the colon?

a)

Crohn’s disease

b)

Irritable bowel syndrome

c)

Ulcerative colitis

d)

Small bowel obstruction

23.

Which finding is expected in Crohn’s disease due to malabsorption?

a)

Elevated albumin

b)

Weight loss

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypernatremia

24.

Which action helps maintain skin integrity for clients with frequent diarrhea?

a)

Avoid cleansing until irritation occurs

b)

Clean with mild soap and water and apply barrier cream

c)

Use hot water to remove stool

d)

Apply rubbing alcohol for dryness

25.

Which action helps prevent worsening of diarrhea?

a)

Increase caffeine

b)

Encourage spicy foods

c)

Encourage adequate hydration

d)

Avoid all fluids

26.

Clients with UC may require which nutritional support during severe exacerbations?

a)

High-fat diet

b)

Parenteral nutrition (TPN)

c)

Low-calorie diet

d)

High-lactose diet

27.

A client with cholecystitis asks what causes their right shoulder pain. The nurse responds:

a)

Gas formation

b)

Referred pain from gallbladder inflammation

c)

Kidney stone radiation

d)

Musculoskeletal strain

28.

Which diagnostic test evaluates gallbladder obstruction?

a)

Chest x-ray

b)

Ultrasound

c)

ECG

d)

CT head

29.

A hallmark manifestation of cholecystitis includes:

a)

Pain relieved by fatty meals

b)

RUQ pain with nausea and vomiting

c)

Severe diarrhea only

d)

Left-sided abdominal pain

30.

A major risk factor for pancreatitis is:

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Gallstones

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Low calcium intake

31.

Which symptom indicates severe acute pancreatitis?

a)

Severe epigastric/LUQ pain radiating to the back

b)

Intermittent mild abdominal cramping

c)

Pain relieved by food

d)

No nausea

32.

The nurse expects which intervention for nausea and vomiting from pancreatitis?

a)

Encourage frequent meals

b)

Insert NG tube to suction

c)

Encourage carbonated drinks

d)

Administer laxatives

33.

Which physical exam finding supports acute inflammation?

4 lines
34.

Which of the following are classic signs of inflammation?

a)

Pallor

b)

Warmth, redness, swelling

c)

Absent capillary refill

d)

Bradycardia

35.

Systemic inflammatory response may include:

a)

Low WBC count

b)

Fever

c)

Weight gain

d)

Hypersalivation

36.

A client asking why inflammation causes swelling should be told:

a)

It's caused by WBC destruction of tissue

b)

It results from increased capillary permeability

c)

It is due to decreased blood flow

d)

It is caused by muscle breakdown

37.

Which action is included in RICE therapy?

a)

Warm compress immediately

b)

Rest and immobilization

c)

Compression avoided completely

d)

Exercise the area frequently

38.

Which medication type reduces inflammatory pain by lowering prostaglandin levels?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Beta-blockers

d)

Antivirals

39.

During inflammation, monocytes become:

a)

Platelets

b)

RBCs

c)

Macrophages

d)

Eosinophils

40.

A neutrophil count with increased “bands” indicates:

a)

Viral infection only

b)

Chronic inflammation

c)

Acute bacterial infection

d)

Low WBC production

41.

A client with decreased mobility is MOST at risk for:

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Venous thromboembolism

c)

High bone density

42.

A client with UC has tachycardia, fever, and severe abdominal pain. Which complication is suspected?

a)

Paralytic ileus

b)

Toxic megacolon

c)

GERD

d)

IBS

43.

Which inflammatory bowel disease complication is more common in Crohn’s than UC?

a)

Fistulas

b)

Bloody diarrhea only

c)

Rectal bleeding

d)

Mucosal-only inflammation

44.

Which nutritional strategy helps clients with IBD maintain hydration?

a)

Avoid drinking fluids

b)

Replace fluid and electrolytes frequently

45.

The nurse monitors a client with UC for dehydration. Which finding is consistent?

a)

Bounding pulses

b)

Poor skin turgor

c)

Hypertension

d)

Peripheral edema

46.

Which lab finding supports the presence of active inflammation?

a)

Low albumin

b)

Elevated ESR/CRP

c)

Low WBC

d)

High platelet count only

47.

Which IBD medication suppresses immune function and decreases inflammation?

a)

Antacids

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Diuretics

d)

Beta-blockers

48.

Which symptom suggests extraintestinal complications of UC?

a)

A) Eye pain and photophobia

b)

B) Persistent hiccups

49.

Which teaching is MOST important before a client undergoes barium enema testing?

a)

Avoiding milk

b)

Avoiding red meat for 3 days

c)

Eating high fiber

d)

Increasing Vitamin C intake

50.

The nurse instructs a client that Vitamin C should be avoided before a stool occult blood test because it:

a)

Causes diarrhea

b)

Causes false-negative results

c)

Causes false-positive results

d)

Prevents stool formation

51.

A client has right upper quadrant pain, fever, and nausea after eating fried foods. This suggests:

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Cholecystitis

c)

UC flare

d)

Peptic ulcer disease

52.

Which imaging test is most commonly used to diagnose cholecystitis?

(a)  

53.

Why is pain in cholecystitis sometimes referred to the right shoulder?

a)

Radiation from a kidney stone

b)

Phrenic nerve irritation (correct)

c)

Pulmonary inflammation

d)

Muscular strain only

54.

Which finding indicates worsening gallbladder disease?

a)

Decreased nausea

b)

Jaundice

c)

Clear yellow urine

d)

Decreased WBC count

55.

A client has pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is expected?

a)

Pain relieved with eating

b)

Severe LUQ pain radiating to back

c)

Bradycardia

d)

No abdominal tenderness

56.

Which electrolyte imbalance may occur in pancreatitis?

(a)  

57.

Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in acute pancreatitis?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

High sodium

d)

High potassium only

58.

Why is NPO status necessary in acute pancreatitis?

a)

To prevent aspiration

b)

To reduce pancreatic enzyme secretion

c)

To increase metabolic rate

d)

To promote bowel movements

59.

Which intervention supports respiratory function in pancreatitis?

a)

Encourage deep breathing and coughing

b)

Keep client flat in bed

c)

Restrict oxygen therapy

d)

Avoid ambulation

60.

In the inflammatory process, monocytes mature into:

a)

Mast cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Platelets

d)

Neutrophils

61.

Which characteristic is typical of the acute inflammatory response?

(a)  

62.

Which of the following is caused by vasodilation?

a)

A) Vasoconstriction causing pallor

b)

B) Vasodilation causing heat and redness

c)

C) Poor blood flow

d)

D) Tissue cooling

63.

A client's WBC count shows increased neutrophils and bands. This indicates:

a)

Viral infection

b)

Acute bacterial inflammation

c)

Allergic reaction

d)

Parasitic infection

64.

Which manifestation is commonly seen in viral hepatitis during the acute phase?

a)

Pale, frothy stool

b)

Dark urine

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Bradycardia

65.

A client with acute hepatitis reports severe fatigue. What is the priority teaching?

a)

Encourage frequent rest periods throughout the day.

b)

Increase physical activity to build strength.

c)

Limit fluid intake to prevent swelling.

d)

Follow a high-protein diet to speed recovery.

66.

A nurse teaches a client with hepatitis to:

a)

Engage in vigorous exercise

b)

Rest periods between activities

c)

Restrict all fluids

d)

Minimize sleep to stay active

67.

The presence of jaundice indicates impairment in:

a)

Protein metabolism only

b)

Bile excretion

c)

Kidney filtration

d)

Electrolyte absorption

68.

Which hepatitis type requires Hepatitis B to replicate?

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

Hepatitis D

d)

Hepatitis E

69.

A nurse teaches a client with hepatitis to avoid alcohol because:

a)

It raises blood pressure

b)

It increases bilirubin excretion

c)

It accelerates liver damage

d)

It prevents bile secretion

70.

Which finding is an early clinical manifestation of acute hepatitis?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Ascites

c)

Splenomegaly

d)

Hepatic encephalopathy

71.

Which of the following is a common symptom of pancreatitis?

a)

Increased energy

b)

Anorexia and nausea

c)

Rapid weight gain

d)

Bright red stool

72.

In pancreatitis, which vital sign change is expected?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hypotension and tachycardia

c)

Bradycardia and hypertension

d)

Afebrile state

73.

Which complication of pancreatitis is characterized by a fluid-filled cavity?

a)

Duodenal ulcer

b)

Pseudocyst

c)

Viral abscess

d)

Hepatitis encephalopathy

74.

A client with pancreatitis complains that pain worsens after meals. Why?

a)

Pancreatic stimulation increases

b)

Stomach acid decreases

c)

Bile production stops

d)

Enzymes decrease

75.

The MOST important assessment to monitor in pancreatitis is:

a)

Serum amylase and lipase levels

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Urine output

d)

Respiratory rate

76.

Which of the following should be assessed in a client with PUD?

a)

Skin turgor only

b)

Respiratory effort

c)

Finger strength

d)

Visual acuity

77.

A client with PUD reports burning epigastric pain. Which action helps confirm diagnosis?

a)

Endoscopy

b)

Chest x-ray

c)

CT head

d)

Abdominal ultrasound only

78.

Which food type should be avoided by a client with PUD?

a)

Bananas

b)

Pepper and spicy foods

c)

Yogurt

d)

Applesauce

79.

Which medication protects the stomach lining in PUD?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Sucralfate

c)

Aspirin

d)

Antihistamines

80.

Coffee-ground emesis indicates:

a)

Gastrointestinal bleeding (upper GI bleed)

b)

Viral infection

c)

Gallstones

d)

Pancreatitis

81.

A) Lower GI bleed C) Small bowel obstruction D) Viral infection

a)

Lower GI bleed

b)

Digested blood from upper GI bleed

c)

Small bowel obstruction

d)

Viral infection

82.

Gastric perforation presents with:

a)

Pain relieved by eating

b)

Sudden severe abdominal pain and rigid abdomen

c)

Soft abdomen and diarrhea

d)

Gradual improvement of symptoms

83.

A priority nursing action for suspected perforation is:

a)

Give oral fluids

b)

Insert NG and notify provider

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Provide a heating pad to abdomen

84.

What is the purpose of SCDs in immobile clients?

a)

Strengthen leg muscles

b)

Prevent venous stasis and clots

c)

Increase body temperature

d)

Reduce urine output

85.

Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a client with Parkinson-related mobility impairment?

a)

Impaired physical mobility

b)

Risk for infection

c)

Ineffective airway clearance

d)

Disturbed sensory perception

86.

Which of the following is a common nursing diagnosis for a client with Parkinson's disease?

a)

Risk for social isolation

b)

Impaired physical mobility

c)

Ineffective thermoregulation

d)

Impaired gas exchange

87.

A Parkinson’s client with bradykinesia and shuffling gait is at high risk for:

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Falls

c)

Hypertension

d)

Constipation only

88.

What is the safest ambulation pattern for a Parkinson’s client?

a)

Heel-toe walking

b)

Toe-heel walking

c)

Looking down at feet

d)

Taking large steps

89.

Which intervention helps reduce DVT risk in immobile clients?

a)

Restricting all fluids

b)

Ambulating as tolerated

c)

Applying warm compresses to legs

d)

Encouraging prolonged bedrest

90.

Immobility contributes to constipation primarily because:

a)

It increases gastric emptying

b)

It decreases peristalsis

c)

It increases fiber absorption

d)

It increases stool lubrication

91.

Which complication of immobility occurs due to calcium leaving bones?

a)

Muscle hypertrophy

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Increased bone density

d)

Elevated potassium

92.

Which statement by a client demonstrates understanding of constipation prevention?

a)

I will limit fluids to reduce urgency.

b)

I should increase fiber and water intake.

c)

I should stop walking after meals.

93.

A client experiencing urinary urgency and frequency likely has:

a)

Urethral stenosis

b)

Lower UTI

c)

Cirrhosis

d)

Paralytic ileus

94.

The nurse identifies which client as MOST at risk for a UTI?

a)

The athlete who hydrates well

b)

The client with an indwelling catheter

c)

The client voiding every 4 hours

d)

The client with high fiber intake

95.

Which finding indicates the bladder may not be fully emptying?

a)

Frequent large voids

b)

Dribbling and weak stream

c)

Clear yellow urine

d)

Strong urine odor only

96.

Functional incontinence is best addressed by:

a)

Teaching pelvic floor exercises

b)

Improving environmental access

c)

Increasing caffeine intake

97.

Which instruction is MOST important for preventing CAUTI?

a)

Clamp the catheter at night

b)

Maintain a closed drainage system

c)

Clean catheter tip with alcohol daily

d)

Disconnect tubing before ambulation

98.

Which manifestation is most consistent with upper UTI (pyelonephritis)?

a)

Mild dysuria only

b)

Flank pain and fever

c)

Frequent small voids

d)

Amber urine without odor

99.

Which laboratory finding confirms active inflammation?

a)

Low CRP

b)

Elevated ESR

c)

Low WBC

d)

Low hematocrit

100.

Inflammation causes redness primarily because of:

a)

Loss of skin pigment

b)

Vasodilation

c)

Decreased blood flow