Font size
WorksheetsMED 232 – Advanced Diagnostics & Testing Final Exam
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Gram-positive stains are colored blue or violet because they retain the red dye. T/F?
True
False
Bacteria that grow best in the presence of oxygen are called _____ ?
Organisms
Aerobes
Viruses
Anaerobes
A vibrio is ______ shaped and can move.
Cone
Comma
Rod
Spiral
Bacteria are, classified as Eukaryotes. T/F?
True
False
Fungi are, classified as Eukaryotes. T/F?
True
False
Which is not included in the 5 pathogens?
Bacteria
Viruses
Mold
Rickettsiae
A complex cell structure with a nucleus & specialized organelles in the cell's cytoplasm is a/an _____ ?
Eukaryote
Prokaryote
Subcellular
Protozoans
A microorganism that is neither, prokaryotic or eukaryotic, directly responsible for several diseases and can cause progressive brain degeneration is classified as a/an ______ ?
Subcellular
Prokaryote
Eukaryote
Prion
Microbiology is the study of ______ ?
Microanatomy
Biology
Microorganisms
Macroorganisms
An example of a subcellular microorganism is a ___.
virus
bacterium
protozoan
fungus
helminth
Which of the following is an example of a microorganism that is classified a prokaryotic cell?
Fungus
Virus
Bacterium
Parasite
Helminth
Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells?
They are noncellular.
They are simply structured with a single chromosome and no organelles
They are highly structured and contain a nucleus
They have a complex cell structure and have specialized organelles in the cytoplasm
They consist of nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat
The ability to produce energy, switching from aerobic to anaerobic respiration is called?
Facultative Anaerobe
Facultative Aerobe
Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration
What is the medical term for the presence of pus in the urine, usually from a bacterial infection?
Oliguria
Anuria
Polyuria
Pyuria
Which of the following are characteristics of eukaryotic cells?
They have a complex cell structure containing a nucleus and specialized organelles in the cytoplasm
They have a simple cell structure with no nucleus
They are non-cellular
They have an uncomplicated, basic structure that contains no organelles in the cytoplasm
They consist of nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat
Mononucleosis is caused by which of the following?
Varicella-zoster virus
Enterovirus vermicularis
Epstein-Barr virus
Helminths
Cytomegalovirus
The tube of urine separated from the sediment portion is called the ______ ?
Stool
Precipitate
Supernatant
Waste
Presence of blood in the stool may indicate colorectal cancer. What screening test is used?
O & P
FOBT
WBC
RBC
A cylinder-shaped element with flat or round ends forming protein; e.g. hyaline, RBC & waxy ___
Crystals
Casts
Bacilli
Spirochete
Bilirubin in the blood is the 1st sign of ________ disease?
Liver disease
Kidney disease
Heart disease
Disease of the Pancreas
Bacteria in urine makes an enzyme that changes _______ to _______ ?
Nitrites to Nitrates
Bilirubin to Urobilinogen
Carbohydrates to Glucose
Nitrates to Nitrites
The average healthy adult's daily urine output, with adequate fluid intake, is ____ mL /24 hrs
1150
1200
1250
1300
Which of the following is the most common urinary parasite?
Staphylococcus aureus
Trichomoniasis vaginalis
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pneumonia
Bacterial infections caused by ______ (genus) can cause loose, bloody, or mucus-tinged stools.
Salmonella or Shingella
Trichomoniasis vaginalis
Staphloccous aureus
Nosocomial infections
Which of the following is suspected when a reagent urine strip for (HCG) shows a positive result?
Polycystic kidney disease
Diabetes Mellitus
Pregnancy
Sickle-cell Anemia
When collecting a blood alcohol specimen, a(n) ____________ must be followed
Protocol
List of rules
Chain of custody
Chain of command
The purpose of adding potassium hydroxide (KOH) to a cervical smear is to ____.
dissolve epithelial cells and mucus
stain any fungi that might be present for better visibility
kill any bacteria that might be present
provide a nutritious medium for any organisms in the wet mount
stabilize the cervical cells
Which of the following routine tests are most often performed at the physician's office laboratory (POL)?
Chemistry and hematology
Cytology and histology
Serology and immunology
Blood typing
Sterilization, or eradication of all organisms on the surface of instruments and equipment before they can be used on patients or in a procedure, is performed by a(n) ____.
Centrifuge
Hemocytometer
Photometer
Autoclave
A device for spinning a specimen at high speed until it separates into its component parts is a ____.
Glucometer
Centrifuge
Photometer
Volumetric beaker
Which of the following uses light, concentrated through a condenser and focused through the object being examined, to project an image?
Photometer
Hemocytometer
Optical microscope
Glucometer
Which of the following is designed to be lowered into a drop of immersion oil placed directly above the prepared specimen under examination?
Dry objective
Stage
Oil-immersion objective
Substage
Which of the following support and position the specimen and prevent contamination of the microscope by the specimen?
Focus controls
Coverslip and slide
Stage
Objectives
Patients with diabetes and clinical personnel use which of the following to monitor blood glucose levels?
Hemocytometer
Glucometer
Centrifuge
Photometer
Which of the following is included in the guidelines for Standard Precautions?
Transfer blood from one collection device to another with the use of a mouth pipette
Wear eye protection and face masks when there is a risk that droplets or spray may come in contact with your eyes, nose, or mouth
Wear the same gloves from patient to patient as you collect specimens for testing
If a work surface becomes contaminated, disinfect it once a week.
When testing specimens that may be contaminated with blood-borne or other pathogens, which of the following would apply?
Use a mouth pipette to draw specimens
Rock the stopper back and forth to transfer a blood specimen from one collection tube to another container
Avoid working when you have cuts, lesions, or sores on your hands
Work on an open counter when completing procedures that are likely to generate splashes of contaminated material
Which of the following is an appropriate solution for cleaning a surface contaminated with blood, blood products, or body fluids?
Hot water and soap
Iodine
20% ammonia
10% bleach
A quality assurance program ____.
requires employees to receive training regarding workplace hazards
is designed to monitor the quality of patient care a medical laboratory provides
contains information about hazardous chemicals or other substances
specifies standards that must be met in order to perform tests in a POL
Which of the following was created in response to public concern over the accuracy of laboratory testing?
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988
Certificate of Waiver Tests
Safety Data Sheets
Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
Laboratories that perform high-complexity tests ____.
will not significantly impact the patient if they perform or interpret the tests incorrectly
can allow the patient to perform these tests at home
must be run by a pathologist
are not authorized to perform blood cell counts and cholesterol screening
Which of the following are chemicals or chemically treated substances used in test procedures?
Controls
Objectives
Standards
Reagents
A foreign object that is visible through a microscope, but is unrelated to the specimen and may be misinterpreted when the specimen is examined, is a(n) ____.
Reagent
Calibration
Artifact
Control
Which of the following communications should be used when preparing a patient for a laboratory test?
Avoid giving the patient test instructions if the patient has had the test before
Let the patient be your guide in determining how much information to provide
Use technical terminology and language when providing information about the test
Use the patient's first name to establish a friendly atmosphere
The abbreviation for milligram is ____.
mL
mcg
mm
mg
A pap smear used to detect cervical cancer is sent to which department of a reference laboratory?
Toxicology
Cytology
Histology
Immunology
Which urine specimen contains the greatest concentration of substances?
First morning urine specimen
Random urine specimen
Timed urine specimen
24-hour urine specimen
Which of the following is the most common type of urine sample?
Timed urine specimen
Clean-catch midstream urine specimen
Random urine specimen
First morning urine specimen
Which method of collecting a urine specimen is required when performing a urine culture to identify the number and the types of pathogens present?
Timed urine specimen
First morning urine specimen
Clean-catch midstream urine specimen
Random urine specimen
Bilirubin in the blood is the 1st sign of ________ disease?
Heart
Pancreatic
Liver
Heart
A cylinder-shaped element with flat or round ends forming protein; e.g. hyaline, RBC & waxy ___
Crystals
Bacilli
Casts
Spirochete
Pulmonary function testing is done to measure & evaluate a patient's _______ ?
Heart function
Breathing ability
Airflow
Lung capacity and volume
An instrument used to measure breathing capacity is called a ______?
Forced Vital Capacity (VFC)
Holter Monitor
Spirometer
Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR)
The greatest volume of air that can be expelled when performing rapid, forced expiration is?
Forced Vital Capacity
Spirometry
Calibration syringe
Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR)
Measurements taken to determine the amount of air that can be quickly forced from the lungs is?
Forced Vital Capacity (VFC)
Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR)
Holter Monitor
Spirometer
A noninvasive test that measures the saturation of oxygen in a patient's arterial blood is?
PEFR
Arterial Blood gas draw
FVC
Pulse oximetry
A pulse oximeter can be placed as a sensor on all except:
Earlobe
Finger
Tongue
Bridge of the nose
A pulse oximetry reading of less than 95% indicates ______
Hypoxemia
Hypovolemia
Hypoglycemia
Hypotension
Measuring low blood oxygen may help to diagnose what condition?
Bacterial infection
Sleep apnea
Insomnia
Hypoxemia
An acceptable maneuver when using a spirometer include all of the following, except:
No coughing, particularly during the first second
An adequate length of time (a minimum of 6 seconds)
Consistency with other maneuvers
A quick and gentle start
The 3 peak flow zone colors are _____?
Red, yellow and green
Red, yellow and blue
Red, purple and blue
Red, green and white
_____ is the condition of having 2 separate poles, one positive and one negative
Depolarization
Apolarization
Polarization
Repolarization
Depolarization and Systole both mean ______________?
Contraction
Subtraction
Detraction
Attraction of polar opposites
Peak flow rates in the red zone indicate______?
The air moves well through the large airways
Narrowing of the largest airways has occurred and is a medical emergency
Large airways are beginning to narrow and medication is needed
Flow rate is less than 80%
Peak flow rates in the yellow zone indicate _______?
Flow rate is 60% - 90%
The air moves well through the large airways
Narrowing of the largest airways has occurred with symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath
Large airways are beginning to narrow and medication is needed
Depolarization begins at the ______ and flow to the ventricles.
AV node
BA node
SA node
Left Atria
Depolarization is always followed by a period of electrical recovery called ______?
Electrical impulse
Cardiac cycle
Repolarization
Depolarization
Electrodes are placed on ______ areas of the body when performing an EKG.
12
11
10
6
Standard leads are also called _______?
Precordial
Bipolar
Unipolar
Augmented
Augmented leads are also called _______?
Bipolar
Standard
Precordial
Unipolar
One small square on an ECG paper represents _____ seconds?
0.04
0.05
0.06
0.20
Erroneous marks or defects on the tracking of an ECG are known as ______?
Flaws
Artifacts
Imperfections
Blemishes
This is an example of what on an ECG strip?
Somatic tremors
An alternating current (AC) interference
Wandering baseline
Flatline
Tracing lines with a series of small uniform, jagged spikes are called _____?
Flatline
Asystole
AC interference
Wandering baseline
Artifacts called _____ happens due to muscle movement, shifting of position, tremors or talking.
Somatic interference
Wandering baseline
Electrical activity
AC interference
_____ originate from ventricles. It occurs before regular heartbeats as a result of irritability.
V-tach
A-fib
SA node
PVC’s
A _____ is used to determine electrical activity of a patient's heart over a 24-hour period.
Hilter monitor
Haulter monitor
Cardiac monitor
Holter monitor
Which of the following is an example of an invasive diagnostic procedure?
Mammography
CT scan
Angiography
Ultrasound
Standard X-ray
Which of the following is characteristic of a noninvasive diagnostic procedure?
It requires the radiologist to insert a catheter or wire into a blood vessel or organ.
It requires surgical aseptic technique.
It uses standard X-rays or ultrasound to view internal structures.
It requires close monitoring of the patient because of the anesthesia.
A contrast medium is injected into a vein before the procedure.
Many contrast media contain _____.
calcium
iodine
petroleum
lead
hydrogen peroxide
A patient who is to receive an iodine contrast medium should be asked which of the following questions?
"Are you allergic to eggs?"
"Are you allergic to chocolate?"
"Are you allergic to milk?"
"Are you allergic to shellfish?"
"Are you allergic to peanuts?"
Which of the following uses a contrast medium and fluoroscopy to assist in the diagnosis of abnormalities or injuries in the cartilage, tendons, or ligaments of the joint?
Arthrography
Angiography
Thermography
Xeroradiography
Lower GI series
Which of the following is used to diagnose ulcers, diverticulosis, tumors, and motility problems of the esophagus, stomach, duodenum, and small intestine?
Retrograde pyelogram
Barium swallow
Cholangiography
KUB radiography
Myelography
Motility problems of the colon and rectum are diagnosed by _____.
barium swallow
gastrointestinal angiography
barium enema
stereoscopy
KUB radiography
Which diagnostic test is used to detect pyelonephrosis and hydronephrosis?
Barium enema
Xeroradiography
Myelography
Intravenous pyelogram
Which procedure is diagnostic for irregularities or compressions of the spinal cord?
Retrograde pyelogram
Ultrasound
Myelography
Mammography
Gastrointestinal angiography
Which of the following is used to diagnose upper GI bleeding?
Retrograde pyelogram
Stereoscopy
Ultrasound
Myelography
Gastrointestinal angiography
Which procedure includes nonionizing radiation and a strong magnetic field to allow the physician to examine internal structures and soft tissues of any area of the body?
Nuclear medicine
Ultrasound
Arthrography
Magnetic resonance imaging
Intravenous pyelography
In which procedure does a radiologist instill barium sulfate through the anus into the rectum and then into the colon?
Barium swallow
Nuclear medicine imaging
Barium enema
Cholangiography
KUB radiography
Which of the following involves the oral administration of barium and is also called an upper GI series?
Barium swallow
Cholangiography
Barium enema
Retrograde pyelogram
Myelography
In which procedure does the X-ray camera rotate completely around the patient on a special table while the computer compiles one cross-sectional view from each rotation of the camera?
MUGA scan
Ultrasound
Fluoroscopy
Cholangiography
CT scan
For which diagnostic procedure should a patient take a special drink the night before to help outline the intestines?
Barium enema
CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
Barium swallow
Nuclear medicine scan
Retrograde pyelography
The diagnostic procedure performed by a radiologist, who injects the contrast medium through a urethral catheter and then takes a series of X-rays to evaluate the function of the ureters, bladder, and urethra, is a(n) _____.
KUB
intravenous pyelography
retrograde pyelography
abdominal CT scan
cholecystography
Which diagnostic procedure is an X-ray examination of the internal breast tissues?
Myelography
Cholecystography
Mammography
Fluoroscopy
Cholangiography
Which of the following should be included in the instructions given to a patient who is going to have a closed machine MRI?
Tell the patient to follow an all-liquid diet the day before the procedure
Explain that the table will be placed inside a long, narrow tube about 22 inches in diameter and that he will hear a loud knocking noise as the machine scans
Instruct the patient that he will be drinking a barium sulfate drink that tastes chalky and resembles a milk shake
Tell the patient that the physician may order a laxative to prevent constipation
Tell the patient to consider avoiding caffeine for 14 days prior to the procedure
For which diagnostic procedure would it be important for you to ask if the patient is a metalworker?
Ultrasound
KUB
Cholecystography
Myelography
MRI
The medical assistant should instruct women not to wear eye makeup when having which diagnostic procedure because eye makeup often contains metallic ingredients.
Mammography
Ultrasound
Myelography
Magnetic resonance imaging
Nuclear medicine
The entire body may be scanned for "hot spots" or places where the radioisotope is concentrated, in which procedure?
Nuclear medicine scan
CT scan
Ultrasound
MRI
Standard X-ray
The diagnostic procedure that directs high-frequency sound waves through the skin over the area of the body being examined and produces an image based on the echoes is called _____.
cholecystography
a CT scan
ultrasound
an MRI
nuclear medicine
Which of the following is used to treat cancer by preventing cellular reproduction?
Nuclear medicine
Ultrasound
CT
Stereotactic radiosurgery
Radiation therapy
A dosimeter is _____.
a form of radiation therapy that allows deep penetration and is used primarily for deep tumors
the scanner used in nuclear medicine
a radiation exposure badge that registers the levels of radiation to which a medical staff member is exposed
the screen that displays images from high-intensity light that is directed through soft tissue
a machine used to administer therapeutic radiology
