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2205 Exam 2 pt.4

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A laboring client’s fetus is cephalic. Which presenting part is expected in the pelvis on exam?

a)

Occiput (vertex)

b)

Sacrum

c)

Scapula

d)

Mentum posterior

2.

A client’s fetus is in transverse lie. Which outcome is most likely if the lie persists at term?

a)

Spontaneous vaginal birth is expected

b)

Vaginal birth is unsafe unless corrected; cesarean is likely

c)

Immediate shoulder dystocia is guaranteed

d)

Placenta previa is confirmed

3.

Which fetal presentation carries the highest risk of cord prolapse after rupture of membranes?

a)

Frank breech

b)

Complete breech

c)

Footling breech

d)

Vertex OA

4.

“LOA” documentation means the fetus is:

a)

Lie: oblique, attitude: flexed

b)

Occiput left anterior

c)

Sacrum left anterior

d)

Mentum left anterior

5.

Which fetal attitude is most favorable for vaginal birth?

a)

Complete extension

b)

Military (neutral)

c)

Hyperextension

d)

Flexion (chin to chest)

6.

Which “5 P’s” factor is being assessed when the nurse evaluates maternal coping, fear, and anxiety?

a)

Passenger

b)

Psyche

c)

Passageway

d)

Powers

7.

Which finding best indicates true labor?

a)

Contractions stop with walking

b)

Cervical change with regular contractions

c)

Pain decreases with time

d)

No change in dilation over hours

8.

The nurse is documenting a vaginal exam. Which entry is correct format?

a)

“6/80/+1, membranes intact”

b)

“80/6/+1, membranes intact”

c)

“+1/6/80, membranes intact”

d)

“6/+1/80, membranes intact”

9.

Which stage of labor is 10 cm to delivery of the baby?

a)

Second stage

b)

Third stage

c)

First stage

d)

Fourth stage

10.

Which stage of labor includes delivery of the placenta?

a)

First stage

b)

Third stage

c)

Fourth stage

d)

Second stage

11.

Which stage is the first 1–2 hours postpartum requiring close observation for hemorrhage?

a)

Second stage

b)

Fourth stage

c)

First stage

d)

Third stage

12.

Which “cardinal movement” is the head turning to align with the pelvic outlet?

a)

Extension

b)

Restitution

c)

Internal rotation

d)

Flexion

13.

A nurse is assessing station. “0 station” means the presenting part is:

a)

At the level of the ischial spines

b)

2 cm below the spines

c)

Crowning

d)

3 cm above the spines

14.

The best definition of the latent phase (typical) is:

a)

8–10 cm with intense urge to push

b)

0–3 cm with mild/irregular contractions

c)

10 cm to delivery

d)

Placenta delivery

15.

Which finding best reflects active labor (typical)?

a)

1–2 cm, irregular mild contractions

b)

2–3 cm, no cervical change

c)

4–7 cm with progressive dilation and stronger contractions

d)

8–10 cm with involuntary pushing

16.

A client at 9 cm reports a strong urge to push. Priority nursing action?

a)

Encourage pushing to relieve pressure

b)

Begin postpartum teaching

c)

Stop fetal monitoring

d)

Support pant–blow breathing and prevent early pushing until fully dilated/approved

17.

Leopold maneuvers primarily help determine:

a)

Fetal acid–base status

b)

Fetal lie, presentation, and position (approx.)

c)

Placental location definitively

d)

GBS status

18.

The most accurate method to measure contraction intensity numerically is:

a)

External tocodynamometer

b)

Intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC)

c)

Fetal scalp electrode (FSE)

d)

Maternal pulse ox

19.

Before placing an internal monitor (FSE/IUPC), which condition must be present?

a)

Intact membranes

b)

Closed cervix

c)

Ruptured membranes and sufficient dilation

d)

No fetal movement

20.

The nurse identifies tachysystole. Which definition is correct?

a)

>5 contractions in 10 minutes averaged over 30 minutes

b)

5 contractions in 30 minutes

c)

Contractions every 6 minutes

d)

Resting tone 0

21.

A client on oxytocin develops tachysystole with a Category II tracing. Priority action?

a)

Reduce/stop oxytocin and begin intrauterine resuscitation

b)

Increase oxytocin to shorten labor

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Encourage pushing

22.

A tracing shows gradual decelerations that mirror the contraction. Most likely cause?

a)

Cord compression

b)

Head compression

c)

Uteroplacental insufficiency

d)

Fetal anemia

23.

A tracing shows abrupt drops with quick return and “shoulders.” Most likely cause?

a)

Maternal fever

b)

Head compression

c)

Cord compression

d)

Placental abruption

24.

Which fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern is most associated with uteroplacental insufficiency?

a)

Variable decelerations

b)

Early decelerations

c)

Accelerations

d)

Late decelerations

25.

Correct method to determine baseline FHR is to:

a)

Determine mean FHR over 10 minutes excluding periodic changes

b)

Average over 2 minutes including decelerations

c)

Use the lowest rate over 10 minutes

d)

Use maternal pulse if tracing is poor

26.

Normal fetal adaptation to labor includes which finding?

a)

Persistent absent variability

b)

Decreased fetal breathing movements during contractions

c)

Sustained sinusoidal pattern

d)

Recurrent late decels with minimal variability

27.

Which tracing is Category III?

a)

Moderate variability with occasional variables

b)

Absent variability with recurrent late decelerations

c)

Marked variability with early decels

d)

Moderate variability with accelerations

28.

Moderate variability most strongly suggests:

a)

Confirmed fetal anemia

b)

Ongoing fetal metabolic acidemia

c)

Placental abruption is present

d)

Absence of fetal metabolic acidemia at time of observation

29.

Which is a prolonged deceleration?

a)

Drop lasting ≥2 minutes but <10 minutes

b)

Drop lasting 15 seconds

c)

Drop lasting 30–60 seconds

d)

Drop lasting ≥10 minutes (baseline change)

30.

A fetal baseline of 170 for >10 minutes is classified as:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Moderate variability

d)

Sinusoidal

31.

First-line intervention for many nonreassuring patterns is:

a)

Amniotomy

b)

Oxygen by NRB for 30 minutes

c)

Lateral repositioning

d)

Immediate pushing

32.

A client is supine for epidural placement and becomes pale/diaphoretic; FHR shows recurrent lates. Priority action?

a)

Apply oxygen 12 L NRB

b)

Turn client lateral (left tilt/side-lying)

c)

Stop IV fluids

d)

Begin pushing coaching

33.

After repositioning and stopping oxytocin for recurrent lates, what is the best next action (per common protocol)?

a)

IV fluid bolus and notify provider

b)

Start dinoprostone

c)

Begin pushing at 6 cm

d)

Perform amniotomy

34.

Updated practice trends about routine oxygen for abnormal tracings are best summarized as:

a)

Oxygen is always first and best

b)

Oxygen replaces stopping oxytocin

c)

Use oxygen after correcting reversible causes; not first-line for all patterns

d)

Oxygen is contraindicated in labor

35.

A client received IV opioids 20 minutes ago; tracing now shows minimal variability and no accelerations. Most likely explanation?

a)

Medication/sedation effect

b)

Uterine rupture

c)

Cord prolapse

d)

Placental abruption

36.

Fetal scalp stimulation produces accelerations during a persistent Category II pattern. Best interpretation?

a)

Confirms fetal anemia

b)

Suggests fetal acidemia is less likely at that moment

c)

Confirms uterine rupture

d)

Requires immediate cesarean always

37.

Which is the best indication for a fetal scalp electrode (FSE)?

a)

Poor external FHR tracing in a high-risk labor needing accurate continuous monitoring

b)

Need to quantify contraction intensity

c)

Need to confirm PPROM

d)

Client refuses IV access

38.

Which best describes IUPC use?

a)

Measures fetal oxygen saturation

b)

Measures contraction intensity and resting tone numerically

c)

Measures baseline variability

d)

Measures fetal pH directly

39.

Why is high resting tone concerning?

a)

It increases fetal oxygenation

b)

It proves ROM

c)

It reduces uteroplacental perfusion between contractions

d)

It confirms shoulder dystocia

40.

A client on oxytocin has tachysystole with recurrent lates. Priority action?

a)

Increase oxytocin

b)

Apply oxygen and keep oxytocin running

c)

Perform amniotomy

d)

Stop oxytocin and reposition laterally

41.

Recurrent variable decelerations persist despite repositioning. Most targeted next intervention (if ordered)?

a)

Amnioinfusion

b)

Dinoprostone insert

c)

Increase oxytocin

d)

Fundal pressure

42.

Which best matches VEAL-CHOP for Variable?

a)

Head compression

b)

Cord compression

c)

Placental insufficiency

d)

Overstimulation from epidural

43.

VEAL-CHOP for Late is:

a)

Cord compression

b)

Head compression

c)

Placental insufficiency

d)

Fetal sleep

44.

A client has tachysystole with fetal compromise. Which medication may be ordered to relax the uterus?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Misoprostol

c)

Methylergonovine

d)

Terbutaline

45.

Terbutaline requires close monitoring for which adverse effect?

a)

Maternal tachycardia/palpitations

b)

Severe hypertension and proteinuria

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Jaundice

46.

Which medication is used for cervical ripening during induction?

a)

Magnesium sulfate

b)

Dinoprostone

c)

Naloxone

d)

Methylergonovine

47.

A client receiving dinoprostone develops tachysystole with fetal distress. Priority nursing action?

a)

Remove/stop prostaglandin per policy and begin resuscitation measures

b)

Encourage ambulation

c)

Begin pushing

d)

Delay assessment

48.

A client in preterm labor is ordered nifedipine. Priority assessment before giving?

a)

Maternal blood pressure

b)

Maternal bowel sounds

c)

Fundal height trend only

d)

Fetal hair pattern

49.

Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is used primarily to:

a)

Help assess risk of preterm birth in symptomatic clients (with clinical correlation)

b)

Confirm ROM definitively

c)

Determine fetal presentation

d)

Diagnose chorioamnionitis

50.

Best practice to preserve fFN accuracy is to collect it:

a)

After a digital exam

b)

After vaginal cleansing with soap

c)

Before digital exam/intercourse and avoid lubricant contamination

d)

After speculum exam with heavy gel

51.

PPROM at 31 weeks: the approach that reduces infection risk while confirming ROM is:

a)

Sterile speculum exam for pooling/visualization; limit digital exams

b)

Frequent digital cervical exams for trend

c)

Routine checks every 2 hours

d)

Bimanual exam with lubricant first

52.

Nitrazine testing can be false-positive due to:

a)

Low vaginal pH

b)

Normal leukorrhea

c)

Blood or semen contamination

d)

Dried slide artifact only

53.

Fern test means:

a)

Microscopic crystallization pattern supports amniotic fluid presence

b)

It measures fetal oxygenation

c)

It determines GBS status

d)

It is unaffected by contamination

54.

Which cluster most supports chorioamnionitis?

a)

Painless bright red bleeding, soft uterus

b)

Maternal fever, uterine tenderness, fetal tachycardia, foul/purulent fluid

c)

Reactive NST and maternal bradycardia

d)

Marked variability with accelerations only

55.

A key nursing plan to reduce infection risk with PPROM is to:

a)

Minimize vaginal exams and monitor temp/FHR closely

b)

Place supine for accurate tracing

c)

Encourage repeated digital exams

d)

Stop maternal vitals

56.

Fetal tachycardia baseline >160 for ≥10 minutes most supports:

a)

Shoulder dystocia

b)

Cord prolapse

c)

Uterine rupture

d)

Intraamniotic infection/chorioamnionitis (when paired with maternal findings)

57.

The test most helpful at 36-week screening impacting intrapartum antibiotics is:

a)

GBS culture

b)

Quad screen

c)

Rubella titer

d)

1-hour GTT

58.

A GBS-positive client with no allergy: expected intrapartum plan is:

a)

Oral antibiotics after delivery only

b)

IV penicillin/ampicillin during labor per protocol

c)

No antibiotics if membranes intact

d)

Ceftriaxone for all cases

59.

A client with penicillin anaphylaxis is GBS positive. Best nursing action?

a)

Hold antibiotics until postpartum

b)

Give penicillin anyway

c)

Notify provider for alternative antibiotic selection per protocol

d)

Decide based on nitrazine result

60.

A client has oligohydramnios and recurrent variable decels after ROM. Which order best targets the cause?

a)

Methylergonovine

b)

Magnesium sulfate

c)

Dinoprostone

d)

Amnioinfusion

61.

CST is most accurate as:

a)

It evaluates fetal tolerance of uterine contractions (stress)

b)

It diagnoses ROM

c)

It replaces continuous EFM in labor

d)

It is performed only after delivery

62.

A nonreactive NST after 40 minutes most commonly leads to:

a)

Immediate hysterectomy

b)

Amniotomy

c)

Biophysical profile (BPP) or further evaluation

d)

VBAC criteria review

63.

Typical minimum NST monitoring time before extending is:

a)

5 minutes

b)

20 minutes

c)

60 minutes

d)

2 minutes

64.

A newborn delivered through meconium-stained fluid is vigorous (crying, good tone). Expected care?

a)

Immediate intubation for deep suction regardless

b)

NPO and gastric lavage for all cases

c)

Routine newborn care (no automatic intubation solely for meconium)

d)

Delay drying to reduce aspiration risk

65.

Highest risk fetus for meconium passage is:

a)

Twin at 34 weeks

b)

Preterm 28 weeks

c)

Post-term fetus

d)

Elective induction at 37 weeks

66.

If meconium aspiration occurs, most concerning complication is:

a)

Clubfoot

b)

Respiratory distress/hypoxemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

PDA from oxytocin

67.

A client with ROM has later thick green particulate fluid. Best interpretation?

a)

Normal after epidural

b)

Proves infection every time

c)

Thick meconium—alert neonatal team and increase surveillance

d)

Proves breech presentation

68.

Operative vaginal delivery (vacuum/forceps) increases jaundice risk mainly due to:

a)

Low vitamin K stores

b)

Bruising/hematoma increasing bilirubin load

c)

Poor feeding only

d)

Congenital liver disease

69.

Vacuum birth newborn has scalp swelling that crosses suture lines. Most likely finding?

a)

Caput succedaneum

b)

Cephalohematoma

c)

Hydrocephalus

d)

Meningocele

70.

Cephalohematoma is most associated with later risk for:

a)

Immediate respiratory distress

b)

Hyperbilirubinemia/jaundice due to blood breakdown

c)

Congenital infection

d)

Tetralogy of Fallot

71.

A client becomes hypotensive after epidural and FHR shows bradycardia. Priority intervention?

a)

Lateral position and IV fluid bolus per protocol

b)

Start dinoprostone

c)

Encourage breath-holding pushes

d)

Administer naloxone

72.

Persistent epidural-associated hypotension after fluids/positioning: common medication per protocol?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Methylergonovine

c)

Magnesium sulfate

d)

Ephedrine/vasopressor per policy

73.

After IV fentanyl, the most important maternal assessment is:

a)

Respiratory rate and level of consciousness

b)

Deep tendon reflexes

c)

Urine ketones

d)

Fundal height

74.

Client becomes somnolent with RR 8 after opioid analgesia. Priority medication?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Naloxone

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Dinoprostone

75.

Contraindication to neuraxial anesthesia (epidural/spinal) is:

a)

Nulliparity

b)

Intact membranes

c)

Coagulopathy/low platelets

d)

Mild heartburn

76.

High spinal block with difficulty breathing and hypotension: priority action?

a)

Give oral fluids

b)

Stop fetal monitoring

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Assist airway/ventilation and call anesthesia/provider immediately

77.

Aortocaval compression prevention in labor: best position is:

a)

Left lateral tilt/side-lying

b)

Flat supine

c)

Trendelenburg

d)

High Fowler’s with legs straight

78.

Client receiving magnesium sulfate: priority monitoring includes:

a)

Daily weights only

b)

RR, DTRs, urine output per protocol

c)

Skin turgor only

d)

Nail beds only

79.

Magnesium toxicity is suggested by:

a)

Hyperreflexia

b)

Increased urine output

c)

Respiratory depression and absent DTRs

d)

Mild flushing only

80.

Oxytocin major risk leading to nonreassuring fetal status is:

a)

Increased fetal oxygen delivery

b)

Tachysystole → reduced uteroplacental perfusion → fetal hypoxia/acidemia

c)

Decreased contraction intensity

d)

Replaces fetal monitoring

81.

Umbilical cord prolapse risk increases most with:

a)

Unengaged presenting part/high station at ROM or amniotomy

b)

Vertex LOA with engaged head

c)

Ruptured membranes with head well applied

d)

Thick meconium

82.

Sudden fetal bradycardia after ROM: priority nursing action is to:

a)

Start CST

b)

Perform a vaginal exam to check for cord and relieve compression if present

c)

Administer antibiotics

d)

Place fetal scalp electrode first

83.

Overt cord prolapse confirmed. What must the nurse do continuously until delivery?

a)

Clamp cord immediately

b)

Replace cord into uterus

c)

Manually elevate presenting part off the cord (do not remove hand)

d)

Encourage pushing

84.

Which is contraindicated in cord prolapse management?

a)

Knee-chest/Trendelenburg positioning

b)

Manual elevation of presenting part

c)

Calling for emergent delivery

d)

Pinching/manipulating the cord

85.

VBAC client reports sudden severe abdominal pain; nurse notes loss of station and fetal bradycardia. Priority action?

a)

Prepare for emergent cesarean and activate rapid response

b)

Begin CST

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Continue oxytocin to expedite delivery

86.

Finding most consistent with uterine rupture (not dehiscence) is:

a)

Thinning of scar without fetal compromise

b)

Sudden pain + abnormal FHR + loss of station/uterine contour change

c)

Mild pain relieved by rest

d)

Gradual spotting only

87.

Suspicion for concealed abruption is strongest with:

a)

Green amniotic fluid after ROM

b)

Painless bleeding with soft uterus

c)

Rigid, tender uterus with fetal distress and minimal external bleeding

d)

Ferning on microscopy

88.

Placental separation with hypotension: first anticipate which order for resuscitation planning?

a)

Encourage oral fluids

b)

Discontinue continuous EFM

c)

Delay IV access until OR

d)

Type and crossmatch blood

89.

Shoulder dystocia is suspected when:

a)

Head delivers then retracts ("turtle sign")

b)

Placenta delivers before shoulders

c)

Variable decels resolve with amnioinfusion

d)

Cervix regresses

90.

First nursing action for shoulder dystocia is:

a)

Apply fundal pressure

b)

Call for help and begin McRoberts/suprapubic pressure sequence

c)

Pull downward on fetal head

d)

Immediate OR transport is the only option

91.

Which maneuver is appropriate in shoulder dystocia?

a)

McRoberts (hyperflex maternal hips)

b)

Suprapubic pressure

c)

Fundal pressure

d)

Trendelenburg positioning

92.

Newborn complication most associated with shoulder dystocia is:

a)

NEC

b)

PDA from ibuprofen

c)

Omphalocele

d)

Brachial plexus injury/clavicle fracture

93.

After prolonged shoulder dystocia, greatest immediate newborn risk is:

a)

Hypoxia/asphyxia complications

b)

Delayed teething

c)

Colic at 6 weeks

d)

Neonatal acne

94.

A labor client has anxiety increasing pain. Which “P” is being affected?

a)

Passenger

b)

Psyche

c)

Passageway

d)

Powers

95.

A postpartum client has boggy fundus and heavy lochia. First nursing action?

a)

Fundal massage and assess bladder/void

b)

Stop oxytocin infusion

c)

Place prone

d)

Delay until provider arrives

96.

Fundus firm but heavy bleeding continues. Priority concern?

a)

Normal lochia rubra

b)

Dehydration

c)

Bladder distention only

d)

Genital tract laceration/retained tissue—notify provider

97.

Methylergonovine postpartum is contraindicated in a client with:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Mild anemia

c)

Rubella nonimmune

d)

GBS colonization

98.

Carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage: major caution history is:

a)

Rubella nonimmune

b)

Asthma

c)

Mild anemia

d)

GBS positive

99.

First-line med commonly used for uterine atony prevention/treatment is:

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Naloxone

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Nifedipine

100.

A newborn first hour has persistent grunting and nasal flaring. Priority?

a)

Feed immediately

b)

Support airway/oxygenation per NRP and notify neonatal team

c)

Delay assessment for bonding

d)

Bathe immediately